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2024-2025学年度九年级第一学期期末试题
英 语 试 卷
注意事项：
1.本试卷共10页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What is the boy’s problem
A. Speaking. B. Reading. C. Pronunciation.
2. Who is going to see Linda off
A. Her cousin. B. Her friend. C. Her sister.
3. What are the two speakers going to do
A. Play basketball. B. Go hiking. C. Watch a movie.
4. Where will Judy go this summer
A. Canada. B. Australia. C. England.
5. What are they talking about
A. A film. B. A songer. C. A TV play.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Where are they talking
A. In the science museum. B. At the school library. C. In the park.
7. What’s the boy’s dream
A. To go into a space ship. B. To travel in space one day. C. To travel to the moon one day.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Where do they plan to go this Sunday
A. Science Museum. B. Space Museum. C. Science Show.
9. What time will they go there
A. At 8:00 a. m. B. At 9:00 a. m. C. At 9:00 p. m.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What do Frank and Mary do first in the morning
A. They do the cleaning. B. They read the news. C. They work on a computer.
11. What does Mary ask the robot to do
A. Turn on the TV. B. Get the newspapers. C. Make breakfast.
12. Where do they live
A. By the seaside. B. In a city. C. In a countryside.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. What did Jack go to Guangzhong for
A．For a holiday. B. On business. C. For a visit.
14. Where was Jack’s machine made
A. In Shanghai. B. In Hong Kong. C. In Guangdong.
15. What do the speakers mainly talk about
A. John’s business. B. The new machine. C. Noodles making.
第三节
听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成以下表格。每空填一词。短文读两遍。
Different Ways to Travel
Name Way Advantage Disadvantage
Joy By train 16 around in the train and take a little more time see many interesting things through the windows take a little more time
Peter By plane 17 than any other way very 18 from the city
Mike By 19 stop 20 feel tired after hours of riding
16. 17. 18. 19. 20. ______
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
Some American students will come to Li Fang’s school next Sunday. Li Fang is going to introduce Chinese culture to them. She wants to talk about the following things.
Traditional Chinese Medicine (also known as TCM) includes a lot of traditional medical methods beginning in China. TCM methods include treatments such as herbal medicine (草药). Traditional Chinese Medicine is very scientific through careful study of nature and the human body. Sun Simiao, known as the King of Medicine, was a famous doctor in the Tang Dynasty.
The Chinese Zodiac, known as Shengxiao, follows a twelve-year cycle. Each year is named for an animal. Twelve animals are as follows: Rat, Ox, Tiger, Rabbit, Dragon, Snake, Horse, Sheep, Monkey, Rooster, Dog and Pig. For example, the year 2024 is the Year of the Dragon.
In China, a whole fish means richness. At a party, it is a tradition to serve the whole fish at the end. Fish has a special meaning because Chinese word for fish, “yu” sounds like the word for richness.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21．When will some American students come to Li Fang’s school
A. On Saturday. B. On Sunday. C. Next Saturday. D. Next Sunday.
22．According to the Chinese Zodiac, the Year of the Pig is ______.
A. 2033 B. 2031 C. 2029 D. 2027
23．When is the whole fish served according to the text
A. At the beginning of the dinner. B. In the middle of the dinner.
C. At the end of the dinner. D. Any time during the dinner.
24．Which of the following is TRUE according to the text
A. Traditional Chinese Medicine is called TCM for short.
B. Lu Yu was a famous doctor in the Tang Dynasty.
C. Traditional Chinese Medicine is very difficult.
D. The Chinese Zodiac is popular with people all over the world.
25．What is the purpose (目的) of this text
A. To sell books. B. To introduce Chinese culture.
C. To share a fun story. D. To teach how to make fish.
B
Paper can be seen everywhere in our life and we cannot study and work without it. Do you know who invented paper It was created in China, yet there is no one knows exactly about who first invented it. However, according to historical records, it was improved by a man named Cai Lun from Eastern Han Dynasty (AD 25—AD 220).
It is said that Cai Lun used to pay visits to the countryside factory when he worked as an Shang-fang Ling officer in charge of producing weapons (武器). In that period, he always wanted to create something soft and easy to write. Inspired by women who raised silkworms, he tried to make paper, using many materials such as bark, ropes and rags. He broke these raw materials down into very small pieces and produced a kind of paper at last. Cai’s way of making paper improved the quality of paper greatly. Cai Lun got praised by the Emperor He of Han as soon as he showed his way to make paper to the emperor. And this kind of paper was called Cai Hou Paper.
Cai Lun not only made new paper a popular and widely used writing material but also changed the way of writing, which had a great influence on later generations and Cai Hou Paper was one of the most important contributions of Chinese civilization to the world.
In 2007, Cai Lun was listed as one of the “Best Inventors in Recorded History” by the American Time due to his great improvement on paper-making.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. When was the paper we know today improved according to the article
A. More than 2 000 years ago. B. About 1900 years ago.
C. About 3 000 years ago. D. Fewer than 1 000 years ago.
27. Which material was not mentioned during Cai’s paper-making process
A. Bark. B. Silk. C. Rags. D. Ropes.
28. Put the events into correct order according to the article.
a. Cai Lun changed the way of writing.
b. Cai Lun visited the countryside factory.
c. Cai Lun got praised by Emperor He of Han.
d. Cai Lun made paper with different kinds of materials.
A. d-b-a-c B. d-a-b-c C. b-d-c-a D. b-d-a-c
29. What is the meaning of the underlined word “silkworm” in paragraph 2
A. 蚕 B. 蝴蝶 C. 蠕虫 D. 蚯蚓
30. What is the article mainly about
A. The first country to make paper.
B. The ancestor（祖先）of paper.
C. One of the Four Great Inventions of ancient China.
D. The improver of paper-making process, Cai Lun.
C
As climate change brings dangers to people, we are now facing another problem—underground climate change.
With the development of cities, the rising underground temperature is causing the ground to heat up and deform (变形), reported a study team from Northwestern University, US. In the last three years, the team had put more than 150 temperature sensors (感应器) under Chicago. The temperatures they recorded were surprising. For example, air temperatures in underground can be up to 25°C higher than the normal ground temperature. After collecting information in Chicago, the team created computer models to see how temperatures will influence the ground until 2051.
The models showed, when heated, the ground may go up by as much as 12 centimeters, or go down by as much as 0.8 centimeters. This may even cause the ground to break up, leaving people who live and work above in dangerous situations.
However, Rotta Loria, who led the study, said in a report “it takes a long time to see the bad effects”. As scientists have already known a lot about underground climate change, future plans for cities should be considered. Materials that take in heat can be used to keep the heat from entering the ground.
The team also pointed out that the rising temperature could be seen as an opportunity. City planners can try to collect heat underground and send it above for heating.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. According to the passage, what may NOT happen to the ground when heated
A. It may go up. B. It may go down.
C. It may break up. D. It may become smaller.
32. How does the writer express his idea in Paragraph 2
A. By telling a story. B. By asking a question.
C. By showing a picture. D. By giving an example.
33. What can we do to avoid the underground climate change
A. The number of people who take the underground should be limited.
B. Fans should be fixed in the ground.
C. The materials that can take in heat should be used.
D. More sensors can be put in the ground to record the temperature.
34. What can we infer (推测) from the passage
A. The underground heat may be used to warm the house in winter.
B. Climate change influences the underground temperature.
C. The underground temperature has risen to 25°C.
D. The rising underground temperature is causing the ground to heat up.
35. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
D
Have you ever imagined an AI restaurant Have you ever dreamed to be served by robots in a restaurant 36 In July, 2021, a smart restaurant has caught everyone’s eyes. The restaurant lies in Hongqiao community, Changning district in Shanghai and it covers 133 square meters. 37 There are no staffs (工作人员) in the restaurant, and all we can see are robots and electric machines. The robots work as cooks and waiters or waitresses. 38 That largely increases the efficiency (效率) comparing with a traditional restaurant. The restaurant not only has self-service food areas and online booking centers, but also snack machines. The restaurant open 24 hours. 39
40 The most expensive meat dishes, such as big chicken legs, cost only 8 yuan. While usual vegetables, such as Chinese cabbage, cost only 3.5 yuan. There is no doubt that the AI restaurant takes a leading position in the field of new dining.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A. And it can serve more than 1000 dishes, including Chinese food and Western food.
B. And they can work a long time without a rest.
C. Your dream can be realized now.
D. So however late you are off work, you can pack meals out.
E. This AI restaurant is popular for its high quality and low price.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. _____
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Once there was a 14-year-old boy. He was known as a fast runner in his village. He only cared about winning every race and becoming more 41 .
One day, the boy 42 a running race in his village. He won the 100-meter and 50-meter races with no problem. He was 43 himself and received great applause (掌声). But his grandfather asked him to have a race with two unexpected (出乎意外的) people, an old man and a blind 44 . The boy thought it was unbelievable but agreed. In the race, the boy finished 45 , but the old man and the blind girl were 46 at the starting line (起跑线). With joy, he was waiting for the applause from the crowd. But they kept 47 .
“Why are people not cheering 48 me like before ” he asked his 49 . “Start the race again with them. But this time, all of you should cross the finish line at the same time,” the grandfather said.
The boy was surprised but 50 .
During the second race, the boy took the 51 of the old man and the blind girl and walked 52 with them. The crowd gave them standing applause.
The boy asked his grandfather, “For whom are the people cheering Is it for me, or 53 ”
The grandfather was happy. He 54 and said, “The crowd did not cheer for anyone of you. They 55 for how you all ran the race together.”
Facing the race of life, the most important thing is not just winning, but how you run the race.
41. A. beautiful B. patient C. upset D. successful
42. A. took part in B. took out C. took care of D. passed by
43. A. good at B. proud of C. interested in D. afraid of
44. A. man B. uncle C. girl D. partner
45. A. last B. second C. third D. first
46. A. never B. always C. ever D. still
47. A. quiet B. relaxed C. careful D. crazy
48. A. in B. from C. for D. up
49. A. father B. grandfather C. grandmother D. crowd
50. A. rushed B. stopped C. played D. agreed
51. A. legs B. feet C. hands D. ears
52. A. slowly B. easily C. clearly D. widely
53. A. her B. him C. you D. them
54. A. jumped B. smiled C. worried D. interviewed
55. A. sang B. worked C. suggested D. cheered
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
第一节
阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
(
although, compare, possible, progress, consider, so, proud, she, write, Britain
)
In an English writing competition, a girl named Cindy won the first prize. 56 with others, she is special, because she is the only competitor who doesn’t have hands.
Cindy was born without hands. Her family left her in front of a welfare home (福利院) when she was a baby. Luckily, a 57 couple brought her back to their home from the welfare home. They 58 her as their own daughter. Whenever she needed help, they supported her unconditionally (无条件地).
Cindy was shy at first. But all the family encouraged her to open the heart. They taught her to speak English and treated her as a common person. As time went by, Cindy became more and more active. She was 59 smart that she could speak and read English in just one year. She was also brave for certain. She learned to ride a bike and climb trees with no hands.
Last year, there was an English 60 competition in her school. Cindy decided to take part in it. Everyone was surprised at her courage. She began to learn to write, holding the pen between her arms. 61 the pen fell down from her arms again and again, she didn’t give up. After two months, she made great 62 and could write very well. Finally, she won the prize. All her family and friends were 63 of her. When she knew many people liked 64 in China, she began to learn Chinese. She said it was her duty to tell them that as long as you work hard enough, nothing is 65 .
56. _______ 57. _______ 58. _______ 59. _______ 60. _______
61. _______ 62. _______ 63. _______ 64. _______ 65. _______
阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
In language learning, don’t worry about making mistakes. Language learners should not think that making mistakes 66 bad.
A language expert advises that language learners should see mistakes as signs 67 progress. One common problem is that English learners think too much about mistakes instead of communication. The goal is to be able to communicate in practice. When you make 68 mistake, the only thing you should worry about is if it causes an unsuccessful communication.
When you are speaking with an English speaker, 69 are two kinds of things you can do to look for mistakes. The first is to look for misunderstandings or other signs of confusion. The second work is if you know an English speaker well. You can ask him 70 her about the kinds of things that you say that could cause communication problems with other English speakers.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70. ______
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hello, Mike!
B: Hello, Amy! 71 . Make yourself at home.
A: Thank you. I’m coming to say goodbye to you. I’m going to Beijing tomorrow.
B: Really 72
A: I’ m going to take part in an English Summer Camp there.
B: What will you do at the camp
A: I will practice my spoken English in a new way.
B: I’ m sure you will speak English much better. 73
A: About 10 days.
B: How about visiting some places of interest in your spare time
A: 74 ! What places do you think I should visit
B: The Summer Palace and the Great Wall are well worth visiting.
A: Thanks for your advice. Bye!
B: 75 . Enjoy yourself. Bye!
六、书面表达（共20分）
兴趣爱好在人生中扮演着重要的作用，兴趣爱好不仅能够丰富人生，还能在身体、心理和社交等方面产生积极的影响。假设现在某英文报纸正在以“兴趣爱好”为主题面向初中生征稿，请根据要点与要求并你结合自身的经历写一篇短文投稿。
要点:1. 讲述一件事;
2. 表达你的感悟;
要求：1. 条理清晰，行文连贯，书写规范、整洁；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名和校名；
3. 词数100词左右。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2024-2025学年度九年级第一学期期末试卷
参考答案与听力材料
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1—5 CBCBA 6—10 ACABB 11—15 CABAB
16.walk 17.faster 18.far 19.bike 20.anywhere
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25 DBCAB 26-30 BBCAD 31-35 DDCAB 36-40 CABDE
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
41-45 DABCD 46-50 DACBD 51-55 CADBD
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
pared 57. British 58. considered 59. so 60. writing
61. Although 62. progress 63. proud 64. her 65. impossible
66. is 67. of 68. a 69. there 70. or
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
71. Come in and have a seat
72. What are you going to do
73. How long will you stay there
74. It sounds great / Sounds great / Great / Good idea
75. You’re welcome / That’s all right / My pleasure
六、书面表达（共20分）
Undoubtedly, hobbies and interests benefit us, enriching and making a positive impact on our lives.
That was my 7th birthday. The minute my father came home from work, he said “Happy birthday” to me excitedly with a brand new basketball in his hand. Hearing that, I grinned from ear to ear, a wave of happiness flooding over me. Then he took me to the basketball court, where we played and laughed together. Seeing him get the ball into the basket skillfully, I opened my mouth wide. It was then that I fell in love with the sport. It was since then that basketball has been part of my life. In the process of practicing the hobby, I have become healthier and made a few friends. More importantly, I have learned to challenge myself and become tougher.
All in all, basketball is to me what water is to fish. It makes all the difference to my life.
评分标准：
1. 第1-20题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2. 第21-40题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
3. 第41-55题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4. 第56-70题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5. 第71-75题，每小题2分 说明:(1)学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误，评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。(2)本评分标准每题给出了答案供参考，如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不致，但只要与情景相符，上下文意思连贯，符合英语表达习惯，语言表达准确，应给分。
书面表达评分说明：
注意:(1)本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次。注意把握各个档次的给分范围，避免过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。文中须包含所给要点及提示，文章能够合理表达出学生的想法及观点即可。
(3)评分时，应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(4)词数少于70的，从总分中减去2分:多于100的，建议不扣分。
(5)拼写与标点符号是语言淮确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6)如书写较差影响内容表达，在本档次内可酌情扣分，但不能因为书写影响对作答内容评判的客观性，避免将书写美观度作为主要评分标准。
(7)各档次的给分范围和要求:
各档次的给分范围和要求
第四档 16-20分 完成了试题规定的任务。 ●覆盖所有内容要点。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ●语法结构和词汇应用基本正确，些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂语法结构和词汇所致。 ●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 11-15分 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ●虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖主要内容。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的基本要求， ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ●应用了简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 6-10分 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ●语法结构单调，应用的词汇有限。 ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 ●较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1-5分 未完成试题规定的任务。 ●明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 ●语法结构单调，应用的词汇有限。 ●有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 ●缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少，无法评判:写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
听力材料
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Miss Wang, I have difficulties in pronunciation. Can you help me
W: No problem.
2. M: Linda, are you leaving for the airport with your sister
W: No. My sister is busy. My friend, Amy is going to see me off.
3. M: A wonderful movie will be shown next Sunday. Shall we go to watch it
W: Great. We go to watch it together.
4. M: Judy, I hear you will join the summer camp in Australia.
W: Yes, I have a good chance to practice my English.
5. M: What is the movie that you watched yesterday about
W: It’s about life in space.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
M: Look, what a large crowd! Let’s go and see.
W: Wow! Chang’e I. It’s a space ship which was launched as China’s first lunar probe.
M: I have heard about Chang’e I before.
W: I have also heard of it.
M: Amazing! I hope I can travel to the moon one day.
W: I think your dream will be realized in the future.
M: Thank you. What time will we go home
W: At four o’clock in the afternoon. What about you
M: I agree with you.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
W: Jack, what do you plan to do this Sunday
M: I plan to go to the Science Museum.
W: Why
M: Because I am interested in spaceships. What about you, Mary
W: Me too.
M: How about we go there together
W: Good idea. What time shall we leave
M: Let’s make it at nine o’clock in the morning.
W: Where will we meet
M: We will meet at the school gate, OK
W: OK. See you then.
M: See you.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
Frank and Mary Smith wake up in the morning in a comfortable house. They turn on the bedroom computer to read the news. They used to take The Times, but changed to online newspapers many years ago. Then Mary asks the family robot to make breakfast. After breakfast, Frank goes into the study to attend a live video meeting. Both Frank and Mary used to have an office desk in London. But last year they moved to the seaside and worked at home. They have one child, Louise. She goes to school only one day a week, mainly to play with other children. Louise, now fourteen, is studying Chinese. Louise is supposed to live to at least 130. She is going to work for forty years.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
W: Hi, Jack! I haven’t seen you for a long time. How’s everything going
M: Pretty good. I went to Guangzhou on business for three months. Look, I bought a new machine there.
W: Oh, it looks smart. What is it used for
M: It can be used for making noodles, frying chicken as well as cooking rice.
W: Wow! How useful it is! Where was it made
M: Let me have a look. Oh, it was made in Shanghai.
W: Is it easy to operate
M: Yes. And the noodles made by the machine are delicious.
W: That sounds great. I want to buy one, too.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格。每空填一词。短文读两遍。
My good friends like travelling, but they like different ways to travel.
Joy likes traveling by train. Railway stations are usually in cities. He thinks that if he is late for the train, he can catch another one. He can walk around in the train and see many interesting things through the windows. But it takes a little more time.
Peter prefers taking a plane to taking a train.He thinks it is faster than any other way in the plane, and he can see cities , clouds and mountains. It's a wonderful feeling to enjoy it. But the airport is not near.
Mike likes travelling by bike with his father. He and his father are sports-lovers. They often ride bikes to go out at weekends. They can stop anywhere. They can stop near a river , a big tree , ora nice restaurant. But he feels tired after hours of riding.

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