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2025年1月葫芦岛市普通高中期末考试
高一英语
时间：120分钟 满分：150分
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生须在答题卡和试题卷上规定的位置，准确填写本人姓名、准考证号，并核对条形码上的信息。确认无误后，将条形码粘贴在答题卡上相应位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上各题目规定答题区域内，超出答题区域书写或写在本试卷上的答案无效。
第Ⅰ卷(三部分，共95分)
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the man do first
A. Send an e-mail. B. Have breakfast. C. Board a train.
2. How will the woman go home probably
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By subway.
3. What is the woman probably
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A boss.
4. When did the man enter the university
A. Five years ago. B. Four years ago. C. Three years ago.
5. How is the weather now
A Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
第二节(共15 小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the woman come to the man
A. To make an invitation. B. To offer an explanation. C. To ask for information.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Brother and sister. C. Classmates.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the woman’s hometown like
A. Noisy. B. Quiet. C. Crowded.
9. Where did the man grow up
A. In a town. B. In a city. C. In a village.
10. What does the man suggest doing
A. Visiting each other’s hometowns. B. Enjoying the convenience of city life. C. Moving to a quieter town.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. At a music club. B. At an art club. C. At a health club.
12. How often does the man go to the club
A. Three times a week. B. Once a week. C. Five times a week.
13. What should the woman do according to the man
A. Warm down after exercising. B. Do exercise before dinner. C. Drink enough water after exercising.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What do we know about the woman’s mother
A. She is hard to please. B. She has almost everything. C. She is good at cooking.
15. What does the woman think of the handbag
A. It’s popular. B. It’s common. C. It’s expensive.
16. What does the woman decide to buy at last
A. A tea set. B. Flowers. C. Healthcare products.
17. How much will the woman pay for the gift
A. $145. B. $45. C. $245.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Where does the speaker come from
A. America. B. Australia. C. England.
19. What did the speaker like doing in the afternoon in England
A. Playing with his friends. B. Having a cup of tea. C. Watching TV shows.
20. What did the speaker find amazing in England
A. The TV programs. B. The tea shops. C. The old buildings.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
China now has 53sites included on the UNESCO World Heritage List. Let's have a look at four of them, which may give you some advice on your next travel plan.
Huangshan Mountain
Huangshan, known as “the loveliest mountain of China”, lies in the south of Anhui Province in eastern China. The scenic area covers 154 square kilometers, and is famous for its peaks, rocks, pines, clouds and springs. It also has a rich cultural heritage.
Longmen Grottoes
The Longmen Grottoes(石窟) lies in the south of Luoyang city, Henan Province. It includes the largest collection of Chinese art of the late Northern Wei and Tang dynasties, and show the achievements of Chinese stone carving(雕刻).
Gulangyu Island
Located on the entry of the Jiulong River the island was occupied by at least a dozen countries, including Great Britain, France and Japan. With such a harmonious mixture of Western music and Eastern culture, Gulangyu is naturally referred to as the “island of music”. It is famous for its outstanding musicians and musical instruments.
Ancient villages in southern Anhui
Lying in southern Anhui, Xidi and Hongcun have a high historical and artistic value in architecture. The villages show the architectural features of the Huizhou-styled living houses in the period of the Ming and Qing dynasties. Xidi and Hongcun were added onto the list on November 30,2000.
1. In which place can you admire the western music according to the writing
A. Huangshan Mountain B. Gulangyu Island
C. Longmen Grottoes D. Ancient villages in southern Anhui
2. Who will probably choose the Ancient villages in southern Anhui to visit
A. A couple who want to see natural scenery.
B. A college student who loves the history of Tang and carving.
C. A professor who plans to admire the Huizhou-styled architecture.
D. A family who’d like to experience the mixture of Chinese and Western cultures.
3. Where does the passage most probably come from
A. A travel guidebook B. A history textbook
C. A scientific fiction D. An entertainment magazine
B
When I lived in Spain, some Spanish friends of mine decided to visit England by car. Before they left, they asked me for advice about how to find accommodation. I suggested that they should stay at “bed and breakfast” houses, because this kind of accommodation gives a foreign visitor a good chance to speak English with the family. My friends listened to my advice, but they came back with some funny stories.
“We didn’t stay at ‘bed and breakfast’ houses,” they said, “because we found that most families were away on holiday.”
I thought this was strange. Finally I understood what had happened. My friends spoke little English, and they thought “VACANCIES” meant “holidays”, because the Spanish word for “holidays” is “vacaciones”. So they did not go to house where the sign outside said“VACANCIES”, which in English means there are free rooms. Then my friends went to house where the sign said “NO VACANCIES”, because they thought this meant the people who owned the house were not away on holiday. But they found that these houses were all full. As a result, they stayed at hotels!
We laughed about this and about mistakes my friends made in reading other signs. In Spanish, the word “DIVERSION” means fun. In English, it means that workmen are repairing the road, and that you must take a different road. When my friends saw the word “DIVERSION” on a road sign, they thought they were going to have fun. Instead, the road ended in a large hole.
English people also have problems when they learn foreign languages. Once in Paris, when someone offered me some more coffee, I said “Thank you” in French. I meant that I would like some more. However, to my surprise, the coffeepot was taken away! Later I found out that “Thank you” in French means “No, thank you”.
4. Why did the writer’s friends ask him for advice
A. To find places to stay in England. B. To decide the way of going to England.
C. To learn the traffic rules in England. D. To get the chance of learning English.
5. Why did the writer suggest that they stay at “bed and breakfast” houses
A. It would be convenient for them to have dinner.
B. It would be much cheaper than staying in hotels.
C. They would be able to practise their English.
D. There would be no problem about finding accommodation there.
6. What led to the writer’s friends staying at hotels at last
A. There were no such “bed and breakfast” houses in England.
B. They misunderstood the signs outside the door.
C. They found there were no free rooms there.
D. People there were away on holiday.
7. What does a road sign that says “DIVERSION” in England mean
A. You will have to take a different road. B. You may dig a hole.
C. You will find that the road is stopped by lots of people. D. You may drive your car safely.
C
Processed foods like chips, sodas and frozen pizzas are full of salt, sugar, and fat. Now, scientists are trying to understand if there is something else about such foods that may be bad for humans.
Scientists have already linked low-cost, packaged foods to rising obesity rates around the world. Obesity increases the risk of many health problems. Three recent studies offer more clues on how our increasingly industrialized food supply may be affecting our health.
The researchers created a system that places foods into four groups. The system says highly processed foods are made mostly of industrialized materials and additives(添加剂). Sodas, packaged cookies, instant noodles and chicken nuggets(鸡肉块) are some examples of highly processed foods. But also included are products that can seem healthy, such as morning cereals, energy bars and some kinds of yogurt.
Researchers conducted a four-week study involving 20 people. They found that people ate about 500 more calories a day when fed mostly processed foods. That is compared to when the same people were given less processed foods. The researchers permitted the 20 participants to eat as much or as little as they wanted. They were taken to a medical center so their health and behavior could be observed. In another study, researchers in France found people who ate more processed foods were more likely to have heart disease. A similar study in Spain linked eating more processed foods to a higher risk of death in general.
When fed less processed foods, people in the study produced more of a hormone that controls hunger, and less of a hormone that causes hunger. The reason for the reaction is not clear. The scientists also found that people ate processed foods more quickly. Kevin Hall is one of the researchers who led the study. He said that processed foods were usually softer and easier to chew and swallow”. Hall noted the source of nutrients might make a difference. For example, fiber from fruit and vegetables may be better for making people feel full than fiber added to packaged foods such as energy bars and yogurt.
Avoiding processed foods can be hard, especially for people with limited time and money. Processed foods can also take many forms. In addition, companies continually re-engineer products to make them seem healthier. The newest studies may provide more reasons to avoid processed foods. But, they also call attention to the difficulty of coming up with ways to do that.
8. What kind of food do energy bars belong to
A. Fairly health-friendly foods. B. Especially beneficial foods.
C. Relatively high-cost foods. D. Highly processed foods.
9. What can we know about eating more processed foods in Paragraph 4
A. It does harm to people potentially. B. It can often result in death.
C. It makes people get less calories. D. It makes little difference to people’s health.
10. What is more likely to make people feel full
A. Fiber added to packaged foods.
B. Fiber from fruit and vegetables
C. Highly processed foods like instant noodles.
D. Foods made mostly of industrial materials and additives.
11. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage
A. Different Kinds of Processed Foods
B. Recent Studies on Processed Foods
C. How Bad Processed Foods Are!
D. Advantages and Disadvantages of Processed Foods
D
Nothing compares with the joy of coming home to a lovely pet. Besides keeping one company, pets may also decrease stress, improve heart health, and even help children with their social skills. Over the past 10 years, researchers have been looking at what the possible effects are.
Animals can offer comfort and support. Dogs are especially good at this. They’re sometimes brought into hospitals or nursing homes. Ann Berger, a researcher at the NIH Clinical Center, teaches the patients with serious diseases about mindfulness to help decrease stress and manage pain. “Mindfulness includes attention, awareness, etc.,” Berger says, “all those are things that animals bring to the table. People kind of have to learn it, while animals do this innately.” Researchers are also studying the safety of bringing animals into hospital settings because animals may bring people more germs (病菌). A current study is looking at the safety of bringing dogs to visit children with a certain kind of illness. Scientists will be testing the children’s hands to see if there are dangerous levels of germs brought by the dog after the visit.
Dogs may also help in the classroom. One study found that dogs can help children with ADHD, a disease related to attention. Researchers divided children with ADHD into two groups. The first group of kids read to dogs once a week for 30 minutes. The second group read to toys like dogs. After 12 weeks, kids who read to the real animals showed better social skills. They also had fewer behavioral problems. “Animals can become a way of building a bridge for the social communication,” says Griffin, a child development expert at NIH. He adds that researchers are trying to better understand these effects and whom they might help.
While pets may bring many health advantages, an animal may not work for everyone. Recent studies suggest that living with pets at an early age may help protect young children from developing allergies (过敏), but for people who are allergic to certain animals, having pets in the home can do more harm than good.
Researchers will continue to explore the many effects of having a pet. They are trying to find out what’s working, what’s not working, and what’s safe.
12. When the author says “animals do this innately” in paragraph 2, he probably means ______.
A. animals learn from humans to do this B. animals teach people to stop doing it
C. animals are born to be able to do this D. animals learn to do this as humans do
13. What does the study about dogs in the classroom tell us
A. Reading to real dogs could help kids improve behavior.
B. Researchers brought dogs there to attract kids’ attention.
C Dogs have poorer social skills than the kids with ADHD.
D. Toy dogs work as well as real dogs in accompanying kids.
14. What can we learn about the researchers in the passage
A. They still have a long way to go in exploring pets’ effect.
B. They don’t doubt the safety of using animals in hospitals.
C. Berger helps patients to gain the ability to cure themselves.
D. Griffin doesn’t agree that dogs improve children’s reading.
15. What might be the best title for the passage
A. Pets’ Various Work B. The Power of Pets
C. Pets as Assistants in School D. Patients’ Call for Pets
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
七选五
Reading books can be a great way to pick up new vocabulary, see grammar in action and develop your understanding of a language.___16___For beginners, I would recommend starting with something short and simple. Avoid the classics, for they often use very old English words and can involve complex themes. Children's books are a great place to start.___17___.Dr Seuss writes his books in thyme and they are all very funny. Starting with something like this means you are more likely to finish the book and want to read more.___18___The book isn't too long and if you've seen the film it may be easier to follow. If you like reading about historical events, Anne Holm’s I am David is a good read. If you're not quite ready to read a full book, why not try Roald Dahl’s Revolting Rhymes ___19___Or, try a very short book like one from Roger Hargeaves's Mr Men and Little Miss series. Although they are intended for young children, they are a good way to pick up some more basic vocabulary.My final piece of advice would be to read something that interests you. Look at the short summary of the book on the back cover and see if it looks like something that you would enjoy. Think about the type that is in your own language and find one of that type in English.___20___.
A. Dr Seuss's books are guaranteed to make you laugh.
B. The key to success is choosing the right book for you.
C. Reading can bring you a lot of fun as well as knowledge.
D. For more advanced learners, you could try the Hobbit by J.R.R.Tolkien.
E. This way, you're more likely to enjoy reading, rather than see it as a headache.
F. How much you can understand a book depends on your vocabulary.
G. This book contains lots of short stories, based on fairy tales, all written in thyme.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15 小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
I remember to this day the feeling of the cold wind causing my ears to hurt. However, that didn’t ____21____ me at this time. It was Hogmanay and the bays of the town were carrying out the ____22____ of going from house to house on this special evening.
It is thought that the tradition came from the Vikings who were settlers in the Western Isles. Honestly, that wasn’t ____23____ to me. I was out and about having ____24____.
There were about 25 houses to visit in my town of North Boisdale. The start time was 19:00 and all the boys would ____25____ at one end of the town and begin to ____26____ each house. Each person had a pillowcase (枕头套) that would be filled with goodies (好吃东西) ____27____ from householders.
Outside each house one person would ask the man of the house for permission (许可) to ____28____. Once inside the house a candle would be lit by the oldest boy in the group and ____29____ the candle would be passed round all family members. After that, the mother of the house would bring out the _____30_____. Fruit, biscuits and of course sweets. On _____31_____ each house the oldest boy in the group would _____32_____ the family luck in the coming year.
After being to each house the pillowcases would be _____33_____ and heavy and it was at the last house that the fun began. The pillowcases would be _____34_____ and the goodies shared out equally.
The last house would also provide a small party that would, _____35_____ before midnight so all the boys were home before the bells.
21. A. trouble B. interest C. fit D. harm
22. A. test B. service C. tradition D. program
23. A. new B. possible C. wise D. important
24. A. success B. experience C. fun D. help
25. A. show off B. look around C. run away D. meet up
26. A. visit B. clean C. find D. fill
27. A. bought B. received C. stolen D. sent
28. A. enter B. shout C. hide D. stop
29. A. still B. again C. even D. then
30. A. bags B. gifts C. pictures D. candles
31. A. searching B. leaving C. painting D. protecting
32. A. give B. remind C. lend D. wish
33. A. safe B. full C. warm D. open
34. A. discovered B. remembered C. emptied D. accepted
35. A. begin B. finish C. continue D. change
第Ⅱ卷(满分55分)
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
When Jack was a small boy, he was once asked to give a speech about “A Big Challenge in My Life. ” To talk before the whole class, he was ___36___ (terrible) shy the moment he thought of so many eyes staring at him. He had no other choice but ___37___ (agree), though. First Jack was to draft the speech, ___38___ was just a piece of cake for him because he was a good writer. Because it was not allowed to read from the paper, he ___39___ (have) to give the speech ___40___ his memory and in front of such a big audience!
Gradually he found himself back, ___41___ (give) out his speech without much difficulty. After what seemed to be a hundred years, he found the audience applauding. He made ___42___ ! From then on, his fear of talking before a large audience disappeared. Actually with his confidence ___43___ (build) up, Jack now turns out to be a great speaker. As we know, the ___44___ (great) difficulty we meet on our way to success, the more likely we will be to achieve our ____45____ (goal).
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Leo对汉语很感兴趣，他来信向你咨询有关学习汉语的建议。请用英语给他写一封回信，内容包括：
(1)提出建议并说明理由；
(2)表达期望。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Leo,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
David and George were best friends at school. They sat together in the same school classroom, shared sandwiches during lunch breaks, and had countless adventures together,
As George’s birthday approached, David noticed something that concerned him. It was George’s shoes, the soles (鞋底) of which were nearly worn through. They were no longer as comfortable as they should be, and David could tell that George needed a new pair of shoes and he decided to do something special for his friend on his birthday.
David’s thoughtful plan started with a conversation with his mum. He explained how much he cared for his friend George and how he wanted to gift him a pair of shoes for his birthday.
His mum, a kind and wise woman, agreed that it was a wonderful idea. She also wanted to teach David an important lesson about earning and giving. So, they discussed a plan together. “David,” his mum said, “I think it’s a lovely idea to buy shoes for George. But how about this I can give you some money for doing extra housework around the house. You can earn the money you need to buy the shoes. What do you think “David’s eyes lit up, and he smiled widely. “That’s a great idea, Mum! I want to do it. ”
David became a whirlwind (旋风) of activity around the house. He swept the floor, watered the plants, washed the clothes, and even helped his mum with the dishes. His determination to earn enough money for George’s gift shone through his every action.
As days turned into weeks, David saved penny by penny. His mum was impressed by his hard work. She knew that her son’s surprise for George would not only make his friend happy but would also teach David the joy of giving.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Finally, George’s birthday came and David invited George to his home celebration.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
George was so moved by the gift he received.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025年1月葫芦岛市普通高中期末考试
高一英语 参考答案
第Ⅰ卷(三部分，共95分)
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
1-5 ACBAB 6-10 BCBCA 11-15 CAABC 16-20 ABABC
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. A 18. D 19. G 20. E
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15 小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B
第Ⅱ卷(满分55分)
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. terribly
37. to agree
38. which 39. had
40. from 41. giving
42 it 43. built
44. greater
45. goals
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Leo,
I’m very delighted to know that you would like to learn Chinese and I prefer to tell you something about how to learn Chinese on your own.
First of all, Some Chinese dramas, such as Home With Kid, can be recommended to enhance your listening ability. Secondly, when watching the drama, you can put down some useful expressions. Last but not the least, the most important part is that you need to speak out after learning. Only in this way can you learn Chinese well.
I hope those suggestions can give you some support and you can achieve your goal as you expect.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】范文
Finally, George’s birthday came and David invited George to his home for a celebration. David led George to the living room. “George,” David said, “I have a surprise for you.” George was a little confused. David took out a present wrapped in shiny paper. He handed it to George, saying, “Happy Birthday, my friend!” George was filled with curiosity as he carefully unwrapped the gift. The surprise and happiness on his face were evident as he saw the new pair of shoes. David explained, “I wanted to get you something special for your birthday, and I saved up money to buy these shoes for you.”
George was so moved by the gift he received. He couldn’t imagine how long it took David to save the money to buy the gift. His eyes were filled with excited tears, and he gave David a big hug, “You’re an angel, David! Thanks!” David was also so happy that George liked the gift. For George, the shoes David had given him weren’t just a pair of shoes; they were a symbol of their friendship. The two friends shared a heart-warming moment, and their friendship grew even stronger. They knew that the joy of giving and the warmth of true friendship were the best gifts of all.

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