资源简介

2024~2025学年度第一学期大通县期末联考
高二英语
考生注意：
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间 120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围：外研版选择性必修第一册～选择性必修第二册。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At home. B. At a restaurant. C. In an office.
2.
Where does the man go windsurfing
A. On the lake. B. On the river. C. On the sea.
3.
What do the man’s parents usually eat for dinner
A. Noodles. B. Vegetables. C. Meat.
4.
What are the speakers talking about
A. Their trip. B. Their clothes. C. Their jobs.
5.
What will the speakers do next
A. Buy a T-shirt. B. Go to a party. C. See an app.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
6. When does the swimming class start
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
7. What does the man want the woman to do
A. Hurry up. B. Do her hair. C. Swim better.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
8. Why does the man talk to the woman
A. To make an invitation. B. To ask for advice. C. To express thanks.
9. What does the woman say about the Latin Quarter
A. It is far from Paris. B. It is a nice place to live in. C. It is a modern community.
10. What will the woman most likely continue talking about
A. Accommodation. B. The history of Paris. C. The advantage of taking the subway.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题
11. Why does the man make the phone call
A. To arrange an outing. B. To put off a meeting. C. To get some information.
12. Where is the man’s office
A. In Building 3. B. In Building 4. C. In the main building.
13. What does the man expect James Green to do before 1:30
A. Call back. B. Go to his office. C. Chair a meeting.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
14. What is the woman doing
A. Having a class. B. Working in the hospital. C. Sharing a piece of news.
15. What happened to Mario
A. He was late for school. B. He lost his fishing boat. C. He ran into trouble when swimming.
16. Which word can best describe the two brothers
A. Helpful. B. Lucky. C. Grateful.
17. What is the relationship between the speakers
A Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Strangers.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18. How did the speaker find a long flat ride at the very start
A. Easy. B. Boring. C. Tiring.
19. What can we learn about the speaker
A. He considers cycling as a task.
B. He is completely new to cycling.
C. He has made progress in riding uphill.
20. What does the speaker stress at the end of the speech
A. Tips on bicycling. B. Varieties of sports. C. Benefits of bicycling.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Never climbed before It doesn’t matter! Boulders Indoor Climbing Centre is a fantastic outing for the whole family that’s guaranteed to pack your day with fun and adventure! No experience is necessary.
Under the guidance of qualified instructors, you will step outside of your comfort zone in a safe and controlled environment. All equipment is provided — just bring your spirit of adventure and your willingness to challenge yourself! Boulders specializes in introducing people of all abilities into this vertical (垂直的) world in a fun, safe and inclusive way!
With climbing walls that reach between 4 to 12 metres in height, Boulders, whose task is to teach you all the skills required to climb safely, is designed to train the bravest explorer. You will learn how to move around the climbing wall in a safe manner, and how to differentiate between grades and varieties of techniques.
There’s even a café on site with free Wi-Fi, so send the children to climb and check in with the office while you’ re enjoying a cup of coffee! Boulders offers a wide range of climbing activities, including:
Climbing classes for children, families, students
Birthday parties for all ages
Children’s holiday activities
Soft play for children 7 years old and under
Climbing-Introduction courses
Opening hours: Mon. — Thur. 10:00 — 22:00
Fri. 10:00 — 21:00
Sat. — Sun. 10:00 — 18:00
Entry price: Adults 15 Child 10
Family pass: 38 Up to 4 persons.
21. Who are the potential customers of the climbing centre
A. Qualified instructors. B. People addicted to climbing outdoors.
C. Experienced climbers. D. Children interested in climbing indoors.
22. What can you learn in Boulders
A. The way to run a centre.
B. Skills required to safe climbing.
C. How to combine grades with techniques.
D. How to move around the climbing wall in a good manner.
23. How much should a couple with a child pay for the entry ticket at least
A. 25. B. 35. C. 38. D. 40.
B
Today marks the last day of the Social Media Detox, Brenton High’s fundraising campaign for new sports equipment. At the start of the detox, over 100 students had been persuaded to stop using social media, in ANY form, for seven days. This meant no messaging friends, no posting photos, no blogging — nothing. They were nervous. But could they do it
I lasted two days. The detox was more difficult to tolerate than I had expected. I felt like I had lost an arm! But on reflection, I can see how much of my time had been occupied with checking my phone. I’m now trying to spend less time online and more time picking up my hobbies.
— Anna, 17
I lasted four days. On Monday, our classmate and I spoke about what we did at the weekend — it felt strange not to already know what he had done. We would have posted pictures and updated our profiles. Doing the detox meant we had to talk and explain what we were doing and thinking! It made me realise the value of real contact that I had forgotten.
— Devon, 16
I managed the whole week! At first, I really felt I was missing out. Then, instead of messaging my friend, I went around to her house. Without our phones, we had a proper conversation for over two hours. Without being distracted by messages from other people, it felt so good!
— Cindy, 18
I did all seven days, too! To be honest, I didn’t find the detox too difficult, but I did give my phone to my father to avoid giving in! My brother thought I should make full use of the time without my phone; so he took me to check out our local sports centre. An hour’s sport each day left me tired out and sent me early to bed. The detox made me healthier!
— George, 16
The detox raised a total of $1,632.82 for new school sports equipment! Well done, everyone who took part! After reading the posts on this forum, it seems that something rather than money has also been raised through the detox. Awareness of just how much we rely on social media can help us step away from it and communicate with each other better.
24. How long was the Social Media Detox held
A. Four days. B. Five days. C. Six days. D. Seven days.
25. What does doing the detox mean to Devon
A. Relax and enjoy the weekend.
B. Post pictures and update profiles.
C. Don’t worry about doing homework.
D. Talk and explain what they were doing and thinking.
26. Who takes exercise every day in the seven days
A. Anna. B. Cindy. C. George. D. Devon.
27. What benefit did the participants get from the Social Media Detox
A. It helped students learn how to best communicate using social media.
B. It made students realise how much time they had been spending on social media.
C. It made students want to spend even more time on social media.
D. It encouraged students to raise more money for school sports equipment.
C
How would you like to spend six months living on an island and looking after the Great Barrier Reef The working hours are flexible and accommodation is provided. Key duties include exploring the islands of the reef and finding out what the area has to offer. You’ll need to report back via weekly blogs, photo diaries and video updates. You’ll also be asked to promote the islands through newspapers, magazines and TV interviews.
This call for an island caretaker attracted interest from all over the world. It was actually a very clever means to highlight the importance of the Great Barrier Reef and the need to protect it.
Located off the coast of North-east Australia, the Great Barrier Reef is the largest living thing on the planet. About the size of Japan, it even can be seen from outer space. More than25 million years old, the Great Barrier Reef is made up of living coral growing on dead coral. It is host to many species of birds and sea creatures. But this unique and delicate place is now under threat from pollution and climate change.
Eventually, the job was offered to Ben Southall from the UK. Ben did a lot during his time as an island caretaker. In addition to blogging, taking photos and writing articles about the reef, he made a number of appearances on television to argue in favour of its defence. He also worked as a presenter for the National Geographic Channel, before going on to write a book about his experiences. Ben later joked that the job should have been advertised not as the “best”, but the “busiest job in the world”!
Whether it was a genuine job offer or an eye-catching marketing event isn’t really important. The most important thing was that people all over the world became aware of the beauty of the ocean in the area. What’s more, they came to understand the delicate balance that the environment exists in and what can, and must, be done to protect the reef. That way, it will remain a safe habitat for wildlife, as well as a dream destination for the millions of tourists who visit it each year.
28. What is paragraph 1
A. A weekly blog. B. An advertisement.
C. A website. D. A short story.
29. What’s the deep purpose of the call for a caretaker
A. To protect the Great Barrier Reef. B. To build the Great Barrier Reef more beautifully.
C. To provide an educational program on marine life. D. To attract more tourists to travel in Australia.
30. What problem was the Great Barrier Reef faced with
A. Lack of tourists. B. Natural disaster.
C. Pollution and climate change. D. Disappearing of the islands.
31. What is the text mainly about
A. The best job in the world. B. An English island caretaker—— Ben Southall.
C. Why the Great Barrier Reef is under threat. D. How to take care of the Great Barrier Reef.
D
According to Carol Henger, an urban ecologist at Fordham University, around 20-30 coyotes (郊狼) live in New York City, which was first reported by the New York Times.
According to the journal, coyotes have been spotted wandering (游荡的) areas of NYC as early as 1994, with proof of breeding groups first established in 2016. NYC wasn’t originally home to coyotes, as most of the species came from the Great Plains and Southwest.
Dr. Henger estimates a total of 20 — 30 coyotes are now residing in the city. Many of the coyotes currently living in the city can actually be traced back to the original group that first arrived in the Bronx, so they truly are multi-generational New Yorkers.
The curious creatures can cover as much as 10 miles of open space per day — picture the route from Wall Street to the top of Central Park.
So where are they living in NYC Well, according to Urban Coyote Research, urban coyotes like to keep their distance from humans, choosing habitats (栖息地) in parks or wooded patches.
Specifically in NYC, Dr. Henger discovered coyote feces (粪便) mainly around green spaces in the Bronx and areas throughout Queens over a 10-year span, shares the New York Times. In recent years, NYC has also seen coyotes wandering in Central Park.
As for diet, urban coyotes had a more species-rich diet than the non-urban coyotes. From plants to rabbits, human leftovers to rodents rats, urban coyotes actually have quite a diverse diet. And though only a limited number of rats were traced in urban coyote feces according to Dr. Henger, at least something’s out there dealing with them until the city hires a rat catcher!
32. What does the text suggest about the coyotes’ habitats
A. They are native to NYC.
B. They were first discovered in Central Park.
C. They often change habitats throughout their lives.
D. They originally came from the Great Plains and Southwest.
33. What does the underlined word “residing” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Sleeping. B. Hiding. C. Living. D. Visiting.
34. What can be known about urban coyotes
A. They are unfamiliar with NYC. B. They can wander up to 10 miles in a day.
C. They prefer to live in populated urban areas. D. They have a limited diet consisting of only plants.
35. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The varied diet of urban coyotes. B. Safety tips on living with coyotes.
C. Coyotes’ daily movements in NYC. D. The arrival and settlement of coyotes.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Is there a right or wrong way on how to view art Whether we admit it or not, we’ve all had that moment of uncertainty while viewing art. However, that you’re not an expert doesn’t mean you can’t understand art. ____36____.
Determine the basics
When you first see an artwork, identify some basic information about it. Try to determine its medium (材料). If it’s a painting, see if you can figure out the type of paint used. ____37____. These observations can build a foundation for better understanding.
____38____
Artists are masters of drawing attention. They usually have a plan for how your vision should move across the artwork. Taking note of what you notice first is a useful way to begin your experience. For example, it is said that Renaissance artists would refer to their paintings as “machines”. Their intention was to allow viewers to move their eyes smoothly through the work of art with clarity (清晰) and balance.
Do some homework
You don’t need a background in art to appreciate it, but having some knowledge doesn’t hurt, either. If a work of art catches your attention, do a little research, read an exhibition’s catalogue (目录) or speak to the art team. ____39____.
Feel the artwork
____40____. Is the artwork artful or dramatic How does it affect your feelings Do you feel sad, happy or angry These questions require immediate reactions. They can be subjective, but they are worth considering, because art is about the artist communicating and expressing ideas.
A. Notice your eye movements
B Spend some time with artists
C. All these can deepen your appreciation
D. Recognize your feelings as you first view the art
E. You can also identify the artist and when it was created
F. Try these tips next time you’re viewing art, and they might help you
G. You’d be surprised by the knowledge you can acquire when interpreting art
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Yoshie Minamidani is a survivor of the 7.6 magnitude earthquake. It ____41____ Wajima in Ishikawa Prefecture and nearby regions on New Year’s Day, leaving at least 202 people ____42____, scores missing and buildings in ruins — including Minamidani’s seafood store.
Minamidani could hardly ____43____ when she first saw the entire store burned down by a fire. Many in Wajima, including Minamidani, found their homes too ____44____ to live in. Now Minamidani is staying in a nearby house with her husband, two children, and other relatives who have ____45____ their homes.
Minamidani counts herself ____46____. She was in the car with her family, on their way to a temple to celebrate New Year’s Day, when the big quake hit. None of them were injured.
Minamidani first opened her store three decades ago when she was 17. She ____47____ that business connects people. Customers come to her ____48____ not just for the fish, but to ____49____ her — so she always keeps smiling.
She has already _____50_____ others in Wajima to rent a place in nearby Kanazawa where they can _____51_____ their fish businesses together. They may have to use _____52_____ caught in other ports, as Wajima’s port and the boats there were _____53_____ damaged — more time is needed before they can go back out to _____54_____. Some in Wajima have _____55_____ and are leaving, but she is staying and will bring Wajima back, Minamidani said.
41. A. stopped B. created C. benefitted D. shook
42. A. proud B. guilty C. dead D. grateful
43. A. speak B. refuse C. study D. escape
44. A. outdated B. far C. small D. damaged
45. A. built B. lost C. bought D. visited
46. A. lucky B. kind C. honest D. careful
47. A. predicts B. believes C. promises D. worries
48. A. backyard B. office C. apartment D. store
49. A. charge B. represent C. see D. understand
50. A. beaten B. joined C. allowed D. ordered
51. A. restart B. replace C. remember D. recommend
52. A. fruits B. meat C. vegetables D. fish
53. A. secretly B. badly C. partly D. possibly
54. A. school B. bed C. sea D. dinner
55. A. checked out B. waken up C. given up D. lain down
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Little Prince was written and illustrated by the French writer during World War Ⅱ. This children’s fantasy book is also enjoyed ___56___ adults.
It tells ___57___ story about a pilot who has crashed in the desert. While he is trying to fix his aeroplane a little prince comes to him. ___58___ (visit) from another planet, the little prince recounts his adventures to the pilot, and the two become ___59___ (friend). The book talks about the importance of looking beneath the surface of things ___60___ (uncover) their real meanings. I like it because it’s simple, and yet it really made me think a lot about life and death, love and responsibility, friendship and ___61___ (lonely). One of the most memorable characters in the book is a rose, ___62___ the little prince fell in love with. Many years ago, really I ___63___ (touch) by the line — “It’s the time you spent on your rose that makes your rose so important.” — because it shows how we form special bonds with others by caring ___64___ taking responsibility for them.
____65____ (personal), I think this is a touching book that everyone should read, whatever their age.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华,你校英语俱乐部将举办主题为“How Music Can Change a Person’s Life”的演讲比赛。请你写一篇演讲稿参赛，内容包括：
1.音乐的作用；
2.音乐对你生活的影响；
3.呼吁大家多听好音乐。
注意：1.写作词数应为 80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Hello, everyone,
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!
第二节 （满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I lost all my hair at age two due to alopecia (脱发症). All I wanted growing up was to fit in. So I wore a wig (假发). However, my classmates still found out my secret. They made fun of me, saying, “Lindsay has no hair.”
Sports became my escape, and I was fortunate to have inborn athletic ability. I would race home every day and play basketball in my backyard for hours. I never thought about my bald (光秃的) head during these moments, but rather who I wanted to become and what I wanted to achieve.
I started to gain recognition from others. I became known as the girl who was good at basketball, not just as the girl who didn’t have hair. I was still laughed at by some classmates, but it began to bother me less. I put all my time and energy into basketball and becoming the best player I could be.
I had a great high-school career, breaking countless school records, and received a scholarship to play in college. It was a dream come true. However, I still wasn’t okay with my alopecia and rarely talked about it. I continued to wear my wig all the time, no matter the weather or what I was doing. It was my security and way to hide from the world.
College is a huge transition. I remember the first time when I built up the courage to tell an amazing friend in college about my alopecia. She was called Jennifer who was good at running. When I told her about my alopecia, she comforted me that even without hair, I was a great girl. It was the first time that I had felt accepted by a person of my age.
After that, we supported each other and often ran together. She offered me some advice on running. With her guidance and help, I wanted to realize my dream of running marathons. I trained hard and made great progress. Jennifer advised me to run my first marathon without a wig. I wanted to do this but I was hesitant.
注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Two weeks later, I started my first marathon.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When the crowd saw two bald girls competing, they screamed(尖叫)in surprise.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年度第一学期大通县期末联考
高二英语 参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. A
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B 10. C
【11~13题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. A 13. A
【14~17题答案】
【答案】14. C 15. C 16. A 17. B
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. A 19. C 20. C
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. D 25. D 26. C 27. B
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. F 37. E 38. A 39. C 40. D
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. D 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. C
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. by 57. a
58. Visiting##Having visited
59. friends
60. to uncover
61. loneliness
62. which 63. was touched
64. and 65. Personally
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
【66题答案】
【答案】Hello, everyone,
Today I am very glad to have the opportunity to make this presentation. I shall be speaking about “How Music Can Change a Person’s Life”.
As we all know, music performs an important role in our daily life. It enables us to feel relaxed both mentally and physically, giving us energy. When I’m in trouble, music can lift up my spirits and inspire me to overcome difficulties. The traditional Chinese music is my favourite, which sounds peaceful and touches my soul. Every time I feel tired or anxious, classical music helps me calm down.
I hope all of you will somehow begin to treasure music and make it a part of your life.
Thank you!
第二节 （满分25分）
【67题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Two weeks later, I started my first marathon. On the day of the competition, I saw Jennifer wearing a hat. When I approached her, I found that she had already shaved off her hair. I was surprised and moved. I knew she was encouraging me in this way. I hugged her, with tears welling up in my eyes. At the beginning of the competition, she took off her hat and I took off my wig. We smiled at each other and ran towards the finish line.
When the crowd saw two bald girls competing, they screamed(尖叫)in surprise. We ignored the voices of others and just strove to run forward. As I crossed the finish line, I threw myself at Jennifer to express my gratitude. “You did it!” she congratulated me. Meanwhile, the audience at the finish line gave us warm applause. For the first time, I felt I was brave, strong and beautiful. I felt like I finally found myself, a person who no longer needed a wig.

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