重庆市巴渝学校2024-2025学年八年级下学期开学定时作业英语试题(含答案,含音频,无听力原文)

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重庆市巴渝学校2024-2025学年八年级下学期开学定时作业英语试题(含答案,含音频,无听力原文)

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重庆市巴渝学校2024-2025学年度(下)开学定时作业
八年级英语
(全卷共十个大题 满分:150分 考试时间:120分钟)
注意事项:
1. 试题的答案书写在答题卡上,不得在试卷上直接作答。
2. 作答前认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
3. 考试结束,由监考人员将试题和答题卡一并收回。
第Ⅰ卷 (共110分)
Ⅰ. 听力测试。(每小题1.5分共45分)
第一节 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. You’re right. B. It was great! C. Don’t worry.
2.A. I like it. B. Never. C. For 2 hours.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d love to.
4. A. Sounds good. B. It’s kind of you. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. No, I’m not. C. In the school.
第二节 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
6. A. /s rv/ B. / s ri s/ C. / s rv nt/
7. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
8. A. See the robot show. B. Study at home. C. Have a piano lesson.
9. A. 8:00 pm. B. 8:30 pm. C. 9:00 pm.
10. A. B. C.
第三节 听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听材料,回答各小题。
11. Who is Mr. White
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A singer.
12. What gift will they give to Mr. White
A. A thank-you letter. B. A photo book. C. A picture of Mr. White.
听材料,回答各小题。
13. What did the girl NOT want to do when she was little
A. Travel to the moon. B. Work in a zoo. C. Become a doctor.
14. How does the girl like the job as a doctor
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
15. What’s the main topic of the conversation
A. Dream jobs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节 听短文,根据短文内容完成表格,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Time with family
Activity Monkey Around: A new ____16____ show.
Place The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s ____17____.
Time Jake and his parents watched the show at ____18____ o’clock in the afternoon.
Feelings After watching the show, Jake thought it was a ____19____ experience. ____20____ time with family brought much joy and happiness to Jake.
听句子,选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每小题读两遍。
21_______ 22_______ 23 _______ 24 _______ 25 _______
B. C.
D. E.
听短文,根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。短文读两遍。
26. What time is the soccer game
A. At 12:40. B. At 1:40. C. At 3:40.
27. What does Susana need
A. A dress. B. A computer. C. A hat.
28. When is Mom’s birthday
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
29. Who will make a cake for mom’s birthday party
A. Kelly. B. Mick. C. Dad.
30. What is the speaker going to do after the soccer game
A. Send another message. B. Go to Kelly’s home. C. Make a phone call.
Ⅱ. 语法选择。 (每小题1分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
On my 35th birthday, I did something I always wanted to do. I got ____31____ the first skateboard (滑板). My friends thought I was crazy, but only I knew why.
Two years ago, I fell down from a 12-meter waterfall and broke my legs. I had to use a wheelchair first, then crutches (拐杖). ____32____, I could walk farther after training. Physical activities ____33____ really important to me. I danced a lot before, and I think skating is similar ____34____ it.
I tried to learn skating on my own. I didn’t know how to do it well. When I skated on the street, there were always people ____35____ me do that. I felt uneasy. I was afraid that people would laugh at me, so I didn’t practice often.
One day, my friend Monica and I met some very nice people from GRLSWIRL, ____36____ skateboarding club. So we joined the club. Everyone there gave me ____37____ when I had problems and felt happy when I did well.
Skating also helped with my PTSD (创伤后应激障碍). Falling is common in skating. Because of my accident, it was hard for me ____38____ falling. But as I learned from each fall and got up again, my PTSD got better. The more I skated, the ____39____ I felt in my body and mind. ____40____ I started skating at first, I never thought it would bring me into a new and exciting world.
31. A. me B. my C. myself
32. A. Luck B. Lucky C. Luckily
33. A. become B. became C. will become
34. A. to B. from C. in
35. A. watch B. watched C. watching
36. A. a B. the C. /
37. A. advice B. advise C. advice’s
38. A. accept B. to accept C. accepting
39. A. healthy B. more healthily C. healthier
40. A. Before B. When C. After
Ⅲ. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Do you often see people who take pictures of food for more than 10 minutes before eating How about those who beautify their selfie (自拍) so much that you can’t even 41 who they are There must be one or more like them in your social media (社交媒体). No matter what they choose to share, they share the best but the most unreal.
My friend Chen is such an example. Every time we went to a restaurant, she would not eat anything until all the dishes we 42 were on the table. Then, she would spend five minutes putting these dishes in order that she liked. Then the most important thing: taking 43 . After that, she would choose one of the pictures and click the filter (滤镜)app. The food finally looked 10 times 44 than it really was, but we had no chance to really enjoy it, because it all went cold. Actually, Chen’s real life is much less wonderful like that on the phone. For example, she dislikes to wash the dishes, so she 45 them in the kitchen for days.
Many people care too much about 46 opinions and try too hard to please others. That’s why they are afraid to show their real life on the social media. In fact, what they are trying to show off is exactly 47 they don’t have in reality. But this will not make any difference to their real life, because they 48 follow the same old way of life.
49 they want to live an unreal life behind screens, they need try their best to make life more real and wonderful. Being more confident (自信), accepting 50 and trying their best to be better are much more meaningful than beautifying their life on social media.
41.A.speak B.talk C.say D.tell
42.A.ordered B.offered C.served D.gave
43.A.pictures B.menu C.dishes D.meals
44.A.bigger B.more delicious C.smaller D.less delicious
45.A.does B.enjoys C.leaves D.buys
46.A.their B.our C.others’ D.your
47.A.how B.what C.when D.where
48.A.seldom B.always C.sometimes D.never
49.A.When B.If C.Unless D.As
50.A.themselves B.ourselves C.yourselves D.yourself
Ⅳ.阅读理解。(51-53小题,每小题1分,54-69小题,每小题2分,共35分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Hi, foodies! Do you love snacks If you do, you are lucky to be in China. Here, you can enjoy countless kinds of snacks! Since it’s winter now, let me teach you how to make the most popular Chinese snack of this season—tanghulu!
First, buy a few kinds of fruit you like and wash the fruit carefully. Remember to buy some small ones. ____51____ Then, string (串) the fruit you washed with bamboo sticks. Be careful not to hurt yourself! Next, pour some sugar and water (2:1) into a pot. And put the pot on fire. ____52____ Finally, put the fruit into the pot and make it covered with the sugar and water mix. ____53____
That’s it! Not so hard, right You can try it in the coming holiday. If you succeed, remember to share the tanghulu with others!
A. B. C. D.
B
Life in the future will be different from life today. Between then and now many changes (改变) will happen. But what will the changes be
The population (人口) is growing fast. There will be more people in the world and most of them will live longer than people live puters will be much smaller and more useful, and there will be at least one in every room. People will work fewer hours than they do now and they will have more free time for sports, watching TV and travel. Traveling will be much cheaper and easier. And much more people will go to other countries for holidays.
There will be changes in our food, too. More land will be used for building new towns and houses for all the people. Then there will be less room for cows and sheep, so meat will be more expensive. Maybe no one will eat it every day. Instead they will eat more fruit and vegetables. Maybe people will be healthier. Work in the future will be different, too. Robots will do dangerous and hard work. Because of this, many people will not have enough work to do. This will be a big problem.
54.People will ______ in the future.
A.live longer B.become taller C.be heavier D.grow stronger
55.In the future people DON’T have to ______.
A.eat more meat B.work fast C.walk on foot D.work long hours
56.One big problem in the future is that ______.
A.many people will not be able to find work B.people have to work fast
C.robots will do all the work D.many people don’t have to work
57.What’s the best title (题目) of this passage
A.What Are Changes B.Life in the Future.
C.A Problem in the Future. D.Changes of Computers.
C
“Motasharefon bema' refatek'” is a greeting in Arabic (阿拉伯语). It means “Nice to meet you!” in English. You may find Arabic difficult to understand, but the following facts can be helpful in some ways.
Arabic is a language of over twenty countries across the Middle East and North Africa. It's also one of the six official languages of the UN. Now about 400 million people worldwide speak Arabic.
Arabic has different kinds. One of them is Modern Standard Arabic. It is taught at schools in all Arabic-speaking countries and used on TV or on radios. Colloquial Arabic is another kind which people in the Arab world usually use in their everyday life.
Arabian people write Arabic in two ways. For example, “” with the meaning of “Nice to meet you!” is common. In fact, they also write in Latin letters. “Motasharefon bema' mon written Arabic has eighteen different curves (曲线) and dots(). The curve () with one dot below is pronounced /b/, two on top is/t/, and three on top is / th/, while the curve () with two dots below is pronounced /y/.
Arabic has the “three-letter root” system (三母简式). Almost every Arabic word is based (基于) on a root of three letters. The meaning of each word has something to do with the root. If you take a root and add other letters to it, you can create many words. For example, “k-t-b” is a common root in Arabic. Some words from that root are kitab (“book”) and maktaba (“library”).
There are more facts about Arabic for you to explore (探索). You’ll find that learning about it helps open up a door to a different culture and provides a new way to see the world.
58. How many kinds of Arabic are mentioned(提及) in the passage
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
59. Which of the following is pronounced /b/ in Arabic
A. B. C. D.
60. What does the underlined root “k-t-b” in Paragraph 5 most probably mean
A. Cooking. B. Singing. C. Writing. D. Swimming.
61. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To let people know more about Arabic. B. To encourage people to visit Arab countries.
C. To tell stories from Arab countries. D. To advise people to save Arabic.
D
Every afternoon, as they were coming from school, the children used to go and play in the Giant’s garden.
It was a large lovely garden, with soft green grass, beautiful flowers and twelve peach-trees. The birds sat on the trees and sang so sweetly that the children used to stop their games to listen to them. “How happy we are here!” they cried to each other.
One day the Giant came back and saw the children playing in the garden.
“What are you doing here ” he cried in a very unfriendly voice, and the children ran away.
“My own garden is my own garden,” said the Giant, “I will allow nobody to play in it but myself.” So he built a high wall all round it.
He was a very selfish (自私的) Giant.
The poor children had nowhere to play. They had to wander (徘徊) round the high wall and talk about the beautiful garden inside. “How happy we were there,” they said to each other.
Months later, “I cannot understand why the Spring is so late in coming,” said the Selfish Giant as he sat at the window and looked out at his cold white garden; “I hope there will be a change in the weather.”
__▲__ The Autumn gave golden fruit to every garden, but to the Giant’s garden she gave none. So it was always Winter there.
One morning the Giant was lying awake in bed when he heard some lovely music. It was so long since he had heard a bird sing in his garden. He jumped out of bed and looked out.
What did he see
Through a little hole in the wall the children had crept (爬) in, and they were sitting in the branches (枝头) of the trees. The birds were flying about and the flowers were looking up through the green grass and laughing.
The Giant’s heart melted (融化). “Now I know why the Spring would not come here,” he said; “I will knock down the wall and my garden shall be the children’s playground for ever and ever.”
62.How did the Giant feel when he saw the children playing in his garden for the first time
A.Happy. B.Scared. C.Friendly. D.Angry
63.Which sentence can be put in the “__▲__”
A.But the Spring never came, nor the Summer. B.The Giant stayed with his friend for seven years.
C.Anyone can understand that. D.His garden was always full of flowers.
64.What can we infer from the story
A.The children used to go and play in the Giant’s garden after school.
B.The Spring came to the Giant’s garden after the children ran away.
C.The children felt very sad when the Giant stopped them from playing in the garden.
D.The children crept into the garden and played games with birds and flowers there.
65.Which of the following old sayings shows a similar idea to the story
A.Respect (尊重) yourself, or no one else will respect you.
B.Stars only appear in the darkness.
C.The roses in her hand, the flavor (香味) in mine.
D.Be honest with yourself so that others cannot force you.
E
①Have you ever played with another dog around your dog or played with a different dog when you’re taking a walk Many dogs don’t like it when they’ re not the center of their owners’ attention(关注). Whether it’s a new baby or the cute little dog next door, there’s a good point that your dog doesn’t want to share your love with anyone else. Some people may think that jealousy is a human-only feeling. But it’s not true.
②A few years ago, researchers at the University of California, San Diego, found that dogs showed jealous actions when their owners showed love to another dog.
③For the study, researchers watched videos of interactions(互动)between 36 dogs and their owners in their homes. Researchers let the owners pay no attention to their dogs but play with a robot dog which looked like a real dog. Owners talked to it sweetly and shared everything with it.
④About 60% of the dogs would touch or push(推)their owners when they were playing with the robot dog. About one-third of the dogs tried to get between the owner and the robot dog and some even barked(大叫)at “the other dog”.
⑤“Our study shows that dogs not only show jealous actions but also try to break up the relationship between the owner and a competitor,” said Professor(教授)Christine Harris, one of the researchers.
⑥So your dog might act differently when he’s trying to get your attention and may be experiencing feelings of jealousy. For example, he may get your attention by licking(舔)you or he may suddenly run into the bathroom to get attention or even to show sadness. So if you have more than one pet, be sure to give them the same attention so that any of them will not feel forgotten.
66.How does the writer start the topic
A.By listing the numbers. B.By telling some facts.
C.By comparaing two dogs. D.By showing an example.
67.What is the meaning of the word jealous in the second paragraph
A.难过的. B.伤心的. C.嫉妒的. D.失望的.
68.Which of the following statement is TRUE
A.Researchers believe that jealousy is a human-only feeling.
B.Dogs feel jealous only when their owners play with other dogs.
C.You should give your pets the same love to make them feel unforgotten.
D.Researchers studied the interactions between 36 robot dogs and their owners.
69.If we put the passage into three parts, which is the best structure
A. B.
C. D.
Ⅴ.口语应用。(每小题1分,共5分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对
应题目的答案标号涂黑。
: Hi, Raccoon! Are you helping with the New Year’s party preparations
: Yes! ____70____
: What’s on our to-do list
: Well, Bear is making honey cakes. And I need to hang lights in the trees.
: I can help! ____71____ What about the music
: Birds’ band is playing. ____72____
: Perfect! ___73____
: Apple juice is good! And we need to make space for Deer’s dance floor.
: I’ll clear the leaves. ____74____
: Let’s meet tomorrow morning at eight. Don’t forget your party hat!
A. How about the drinks B. I’m in the planning group for the party. C. Do I need to bring a music player D. When do we start E. I am good at climbing! F. They are practicing really hard this week. G. No one wants to have cheese burgers.
第Ⅱ卷(共40分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(75-76题,每小题2分,77-78题3分,共10分)
60 years apart
A 10-year-old boy and a 70-year-old man sat down, asking and answering each other questions about age. This is their talk.(Q means question and A means answer)
The man Q: What is bad about being young
The boy A: Well, going to school. You get lots of homework. But it’s also fun to play with friends there. Q: What is bad about being old
The man A: Not being able to do things you could do when you were young. Your body gets stiff (僵硬的). It hurts sometimes. And you might get sick more often. Q: In your imagination (想象), what is great about being old
The boy A: I can buy things I want. Oh, I can also get married (结婚), haha. Q: From your experience, what is great about being young
The man A: You are passionate (热情) about everything in life. It helps you enjoy each day better. And you are more creative because you are more open to new ideas. Q: Do you want to fall in love(爱上)with anyone
The boy A: I’m not sure what falling in love is. I love my mom. She really cares about me. Q: Did you love anyone
The man A: Yes, my wife. Unluckily, she died last year. Oh, don’t cry little boy. That’s life. But you have more time to spend with your family. That’s another great thing about being young.
Then they were asked to give each other 2 pieces of advice
The boy ①Smile more. You look too serious so kids might not want to be friends with you. Smile can also bring you good luck and make you face each day more bravely. ② 78 .
The man ①Read more books. Reading helps you learn new things and let you see a bigger world. It’s also a way to relax yourself. ②Love other people. If you love others, they will love you back.
75. Does the boy think it’s fun to play with friends at school
__________________________________
76. Why does the boy love his mom
__________________________________
77. According to their talk, what are the great things about being young
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
78. If you are the boy, give one piece of advice to the man and tell the reason(s). Write at least 20 words.
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ.完成句子。(79-82小题每空1分,83小题2分,共10分)
根据所给提示,完成句子。每空一词,含缩略词。
79. He cut the turkey into pieces. (改为否定句)
He ________ ________ the turkey into pieces.
80.My grandparents will fly back to Changchun in 30 days. (对划线部分提问)
______ ______ will your grandparents fly back to Changchun
81. Jack got a letter from his family yesterday. (改为同义句)
Jack ________ ________ his family yesterday.
82.只有在雨停止后,他们才会离开。(完成译句)
They ________ leave until the rain ________.
83. is, Tina, outgoing, me, than, more (连词成句)
_________________________________________________________.
Ⅸ.书面表达。(满分20分)
梦想从仰望星空开始,由脚踏实地实现。2025年的新学期即将开始,每个人都应该立下自己的flag。新的一学期,你有什么期待和计划吗?你想成为什么样的自己?请谈谈你的新学期计划以及实现方式。
参考要点:
要求:
1.词数:80-120词左右;
2.不能出现本人的真实姓名和班级等信息;
3.可适当发挥。
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________2024-2025学年八年级英语下学期开学定时作业
参考答案
Ⅰ. 听力测试。(每小题1.5分,共30分)
1-5 BBCCA 6-10BCCAC 11-15 ABCCA
16 music 17 town 18 four 19 wonderful 20 Spending
21-25 ECBAD 26-30 BACAC
Ⅱ. 语法选择。(每小题1分,共10分)
31-25 CCBAC 36-40 AABCA
Ⅲ. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
41-45 DAABC 46-50 CBBCA
IV.阅读理解(51-53小题,每小题1分,54-69小题,每小题2分,共35分)
51-53 DAC 54-57 ADAB
58-61 ABCA 62-65 DACC
66-69 DCCB
V.口语应用(每小题1分,共5分)
60-64 BEFAD
VI.任务型阅读(第65-67题每题2分,第68题3分,共9分)
65. Yes.
66. Because she really cares about him.
67. Being passionate about everything, enjoying each day better, being more creative and having more time with family.
68. Enjoy nature more. Being close to nature can improve your mood and health. Sharing experiences in nature with kids can also develop connections between different generations.
Ⅶ.完成句子。(79-82小题每空1分,83小题每题2分,共10分)
79.didn’t cut 80.How soon 81.heard from 82.won’t stops
83.Tina is more outgoing than me.
Ⅸ.书面表达。(满分20分)

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