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2024~2025学年度第一学期期末教学质量检测
高二英语试题
注意事项：
1.本试题共10页，满分150分，时间120分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，监考员将答题卡按顺序收回，装袋整理；试题不回收。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does Tommy do
A. An astronaut. B. A salesman. C. A writer.
2. How many of the dresses does the woman have
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
3. How does Anna feel about chemistry
A. Worried. B. Confident. C. Hopeless.
4. When will the speakers see the film
A. At 6:30 p. m. B. At 7:00 p. m. C. At 8:00 p. m.
5. What does the man mean
A. He cannot help. B. He has lost his way. C. He is not interested.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How many times has Grace been to Fuzhou city
A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times.
7. What is Grace’s attitude towards outdoor water sports
A. Unclear. B. Indifferent. C. Favorable.
听第7段材料，回答第89题。
8. Why does the boy’s school have Language Day annually
A. To help students learn Chinese better.
B. To encourage students to make friends.
C. To promote the use of six languages.
9. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Old classmates. B. Neighbors. . Relatives.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What does Lily think of looking for a job
A. Exciting. B. Boring. C. Confusing.
11. What makes Lily worried about the sales position
A. Communicating with people. B. The high work-related stress. C. The long working hours.
12. What will Lily do to improve her competitiveness
A. Raise her confidence.
B. Ask for some advice from her professor.
C. Take training courses on customer service.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is troubling the woman
A. Noise in the dorm. B. Narrow space of the dorm. C. Bad relationships with her parents.
14. What advice does the man give her
A. Turn off the TV herself. B. Find a new apartment. C. Have a talk with her roommates.
15. How many people did the man use to live with
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
16. Which is NOT mentioned by the man
A. Interpersonal skills. B. Learning from each other. C. Personal space.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Why did Bob Dylan’s family move to the small town of Hibbing
A. Because his father got ill. B. Because it’s his hometown. C. Because he went there to learn music.
18. What kind of music did Bob Dylan play in high school
A. Folk music. B. Classical music. C. Popular rock and roll songs.
19. When did Bob Dylan move to New York City
A. At the age of 18. B. At the age of 20. C. At the age of 22.
20 What theme did Bob Dylan sing about in the 1960s
A. Peace and love. B. Beautiful sights and views. C. Problems and issues of the time.
第二部分：阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
NOBEL PRIZES 2024
The Nobel Prize in Physics 2024
John Hopfield; Geoffrey Hinton
“for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks”
John Hopfield created a structure that can store and reconstruct information and Geoffrey Hinton invented a method that can independently discover properties in data, which has become important for the large artificial neural networks now in use.
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024
David Baker
“for computational protein design”
Demis Hassabis; John Jumper
“for protein structure prediction”
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024 is about proteins. David Baker has succeeded with the almost impossible achievement of building entirely new kinds of proteins. Demis Hassabis and John Jumper have developed an AI model to solve a 50-year-old problem: predicting proteins’ complex strictures.
The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2024
Victor Ambros; Gary Ruvkun
“for the discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene regulation”
Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun discovered microRNA, a new class of tiny RNA molecules that play a crucial role in gene regulation. Their groundbreaking discovery in the small worm C. elegans revealed a completely new principle of gene regulation. This turned out to be essential for multicellular organisms, including humans.
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2024
Han Kang
“for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas directly and exposes the fragility (脆弱) of human life”
In all her works, Han Kang faces historical traumas and invisible sets of rules and each of her works exposes the fragility of human life. She has a unique awareness of the connections between body and soul, the living and the dead, and with her poetic and experimental style, Han Kang has become a creator in contemporary prose.
1. Who won the Nobel Prize in Physics 2024 for artificial neural networks
A. John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton. B. Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun.
C. Demis Hassabis and John Jumper. D. John Hopfield and John Jumper.
2. What is the focus of Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024
A Gene regulation. B. Machine learning.
C. Protein design and prediction. D. MicroRNA discovery.
3. What can be known from the text
A. MicroRNA plays a crucial role in machine learning.
B. David Baker has succeeded in building an AI model to predict proteins.
C. Geoffrey Hinton created a structure that can store and reconstruct information.
D. Han Kang’s works mainly explore historical traumas and the weakness of human life.
B
“All seven people have been rescued from a stricken cable car high above a remote Pakistan valley,” a spokesman for the state-run emergency services said.
Pakistani authorities said army commandos (突击队), with the help of civilians, made the final rescues after an operation lasting hours. Floodlights were installed and a ground-based operation reached the remaining two people late on Tuesday more than 12 hours after their cable car was damaged, leaving it hanging unsteadily at an angle.
A helicopter had earlier plucked two children to safety before darkness. High winds meant the air rescue had to be called off. Rescuers used the cable, keeping the cable car from plunging (突然向下冲) into the valley as a zip line, to rescue three more children. Relatives of those trapped prayed while watching the operation and anxious crowds gathered on both sides of the valley, which is in a mountainous area of Battagram, about 125 miles north of Islamabad.
Several military helicopters had flown sorties earlier in the day and an airman was lowered by a set of bands to deliver food, water and mandos could be seen on local TV trying to lower themselves on ropes from the helicopters to the cable car. An expert confirmed that the rescue was delicate because the wind created by the helicopters’ blades could further weaken cables holding the car up in the sky.
The children trapped were teenage boys studying at the government high school. The school is located in a mountainous area and there are no safe crossings, so it’s common to use the chairlift. People who live in the northern mountainous regions of Pakistan often use chairlifts for transport from one village to another. In 2017,10 people were killed when a chairlift cable broke, sending passengers plunging into a valley in a mountain hamlet near the capital, Islamabad.
4. What is the main idea of Paragraph 1 and 2
A. The result of the rescue. B. The underlying accident in the rescue.
C The following settlement of the rescue. D. The background information of the valley.
5. How was the rescue conducted by army commandos and civilians
A. By cable car. B. By floodlights. C. By helicopter. D. By a zip line.
6. Why did the air rescue has to be called off
A. Because the air rescue staff were incompetent.
B. Because the cable was left hanging at a dangerous angle.
C. Because the weather condition was tough with heavy rain.
D. Because the wind created by the helicopters’ blades is strong.
7. In which column of the website can we read this passage
A. Life Philosophy. B. Social News. C. Business Insight. D. Book Reviews.
C
Every year, travelers head to South America to be amazed at the vast glaciers, huge open skies and high mountains. But at Omora Ethnobotanical Park on Tierra del Fuego, visitors are encouraged to think small.
Tierra del Fuego, a remote island at the tip of South America, might offer little in terms of animals and trees, but when it comes to bryophytes (苔藓植物), it is among the richest corners of the planet. In the area that covers less than 0.01% of the Earth’s land surface, more than 5% of the world’s bryophyte species is found.
On entering the park, you’re given a magnifying lens (放大镜). Guided by plant experts, you are invited to get down on your hands and knees to explore the little-known world of Tierra del Fuego’s “miniature forests” — the bryophytes that cover the rocks and trees. Focus is key: as you tiptoe through the park, it is easy to miss or even step on them.
I wondered how interesting mosses could be. But when I got up close they started to come to life. Shapes and colours appeared that were not visible to the naked eye. One plant was bright yellow, while another was green with a bright red tip like a little hat.
One of the strangest plants is Old Man’s Beard, which looks like thin noodles and hangs off the trees in webs. According to my guide Lily Lewis, it plays an important role in the growth of the forest, capturing nutrients (营养) and salts blown in on the ocean wind.
Old Man’s Beard is extremely vulnerable to pollution, and has all but disappeared across much of the planet. But in Tierra del Fuego, where the air and rain are among the cleanest on the planet, it grows wildly.
“The hand lens is your entry point into the world of the miniature forests,” Lewis said. “Looking through a lens reminds you that there are other viewpoints from which we can see the world.”
8. Which title best describes Tierra del Fuego
A. A top destination for hiking lovers. B. A unique place for rare species.
C. A wonderland for tiny plants. D. A remote land with modern buildings.
9 What quality is highly valued while exploring Omora Ethnobotanical Park
A. Curiosity and creativity. B. Calmness and attentiveness.
C. Quickness and confidence. D. Determination and courage.
10. Which can best replace the underlined word “vulnerable"
A. Sensitive. B. Adaptable. C. Beneficial. D. Resistant.
11. What does this passage mainly talk about
A. The eco-tourism in Tierra del Fuego. B. The disadvantages of bryophytes.
C. The smallest island in South America. D. A tiny forest on the tip of the world.
D
While AI can beat us at chess, driving cars, and even composing music, making us laugh seems to be its final boundary.
My musical comedy, Artificially Intelligent, was inspired by the time I asked AI to write me a show based on my life, and it gave me some madly terrible results. I performed some of its materials in the show, and I even made AI write a song for an audience member live on the spot, and it was always funny in its terribleness. It generated songs telling the audience member who is a doctor to hit the eyes of her co-worker who she is always arguing with. However, this wasn’t independent thinking; we had to feed AI as much information as possible to get any results from it. When it comes to actually getting AI to craft jokes on its own, it can’t.
The problem with AI and comedy is its lack of human nuance (细微差别) for humor. AI might be able to create a joke structure, but it does not have the ability to pull from personal experience. It lacks a point of view, situational awareness, context, and cultural awareness needed for good comedy. Irony (讽刺), a complex form of human communication, is hard for AI because of its reliance on context, tone, and cultural knowledge. Unlike humans, AI can’t infer meaning beyond clear statements. Irony involves saying one thing but meaning another, relying on shared context, but AI only processes text and can’t pick up audio and visual cues for irony. AI must signal it’s making a joke.
As of now, though AI has made impressive progress in some areas, it is absolutely not funny, but in the future theoretically yes. When technology advances to the point where robots are walking around with free will and independent thinking, experiencing life and potentially even emotions, they would theoretically begin to have enough viewpoints to create comedy, or an activity that voices their experience of being an AI. However, this would create its own culture and would only be relatable to other AIs.
The truth is that audience is really enjoying the AI-generated material in my show, even if the joke is bad. But — technically — does that make it funny
12. How does the author illustrate AI’s limitation in making jokes in Paragraph 2
A. By providing data. B. By giving an example.
C. By showing a survey result. D. By making a comparison.
13. What does the author try to explain in Paragraph 3
A. What AI jokes are made up of. B. How AI understands the meaning of irony.
C. Why AI fails to create a good joke actually. D. Whether AI can learn from funny experiences.
14. What does the author think of AI in the future
A. It will relate its culture to humans. B. It will teach itself the theory of comedy.
C. It will be free to express others’ feelings. D. It will develop its own culture of humor.
15. Which can be a suitable title for this passage
A. Will AI ever be funny B. Is AI going to learn to laugh
C. Is AI the future of entertainment D. Will AI be the pioneer in new fields
第二节（共5小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
While the key to success in both personal and professional relationships lies in your ability to communicate well, it’s not the words that you use but your nonverbal cues or “body language” that speak the loudest. Body language is the use of physical behavior, expressions, and mannerisms to communicate nonverbally, often done instinctively rather than consciously. ___16___.
Facial expressions. The human face is extremely expressive. ___17___. And facial expressions are universal. The facial expressions for happiness, sadness, anger, surprise, fear, and disgust are the same across cultures.
Body movement and posture. Consider how your perceptions (看法) of people are affected by the way they sit, walk, stand, or hold their head. ___18___. This type of nonverbal communication includes your posture and your unnoticeable movements.
Gestures. You may wave, point, or use your hands when arguing or speaking energetically, often expressing yourself with gestures without thinking. However, the meaning of some gestures can be very different across cultures. ___19___, for example, usually conveys a positive message in English-speaking countries, it’s considered offensive in countries such as Germany, Russia, and Brazil. So, it’s important to be careful of using gestures so as to avoid misinterpretation.
Space. Have you ever felt uneasy during a talk because the other person was standing too close ___20___, although that need differs depending on the culture, the situation, and the closeness of the relationship. You can use it to communicate many different nonverbal messages, including signals of closeness and affection or aggression.
A. The way you move and carry yourself communicates a wealth of information
B. There are many different types of nonverbal communication or body language
C. While the “OK” sign made with the hand
D. It is able to convey countless emotions without saying a word
E. Do you still remember the most embarrassed moment you have ever experienced
F. Everyone should pay more attention to physical behavior in a formal occasion
G. We all have a need for physical space
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
JongMay Urbonya is an American lady full of surprises: she is fluent in Mandarin, fond of hanfu and Chinese dance. She was born in China and ___21___ there until the age of six. It was in those years that the seeds of love for Chinese culture were ___22___ in JongMay Urbonya’s heart.
Even while moving back to the U.S., Urbonya’s parents used Chinese TV dramas to ___23___ her Chinese language abilities. The seeds of passion brought her back to China in 2011, ___24___ Chinese dance in Beijing Normal University.
“When I was a kid, I had a ___25___ of being “princess”. I often covered my shoulder with a blanket, pretending I was an ancient Chinese princess,” she said. A chance to ___26___ that dream occurred in 2020, when a TV show had Urbonya visit a hanfu, festival. “Hanfu has ___27___ appeal and is winning recognition in the world. After I ___28___ experienced hanfu culture, I realized that it was a new-found way to ___29___ Chinese history to the present,” she said.
She recalled that 10 years ago when she was in college, _____30_____ hanfu was not a common sight. At that time, she could only _____31_____ custom-made hanfu in a few stores. “If I had worn hanfu walking down the street, people would _____32_____ ask curiously in their hearts, ‘Why is this _____33_____ wearing an ancient Chinese outfit on the street ’” Now, she has included hanfu in her everyday outfit and is able to purchase different _____34_____ of hanfu online. “I’m really happy to be a hanfu culture enthusiast, and I hope to make it more _____35_____ to those outside of China,” she said.
21. A. secured B. flew C. lived D. adopted
22. A. banned B. controlled C. planted D. swung
23. A. keep up B. give up C. look up D. stay up
24. A. tackling B. studying C. comprising D. appealing
25. A. tone B. component C. crisis D. dream
26. A. achieve B. appreciate C. imagine D. establish
27. A. wide B. tiny C. internal D. identical
28. A. heavily B. easily C. fully D. hardly
29. A. cease B. bring C. wander D. vary
30. A. grabbing B. handling C. linking D. wearing
31. A. cast B. buy C. consist D. involve
32. A. luckily B. difficultly C. recently D. probably
33. A. professor B. foreigner C. educator D. journalist
34. A. aspects B. models C. visions D. styles
35. A. reliable B. comfortable C. accessible D. reasonable
第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Recently, over 130 students and teachers from 19 universities embarked on a two-day trip to Zhenjiang, a city in Jiangsu. During the two-day event, they immersed themselves in China’s agricultural history and learned about ____36____ (it) modern farming techniques.
For Anne Lauren Beer from Britain, a 22-year-old student at Xi’an Jiaotong-Liverpool University ____37____ Suzhou, the trip provided a glimpse into the charm of contemporary rural China. At ____38____ “smart” mushroom planting base, Beer witnessed how 5G technology ____39____ (enable) the automated control of optimal mushroom-growing conditions.
The students were also invited to pick and cook mushrooms on-site, ____40____ (enjoy) the flavor when it was at its freshest. “I’m not usually a fan of mushrooms and sometimes find them unappealing, but these ones were ____41____ (extreme) good. It was hard not to love them,” Beer said.
As an environmental science student, Beer observed that modern agriculture in China retains the benefits of ____42____ (tradition) practices while emphasizing environmental conservation. At an organic farm, she saw how local farmers had adapted traditions to incorporate sustainable practices, such as avoiding pesticides and ensuring crop health through diverse ____43____ (seed) and technical methods.
Angelina Lisovenko, ____44____ is a 20-year-old Russian student at Jiangsu University, gained new insights into Chinese agricultural traditions and she pointed out the significance of agriculture in both Russian ____45____ Chinese cultures and economies.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假如你是李华，你校英文报正在开展以“A Bite of My Hometown”为题的征文活动，请你写一篇短文投稿，向同学们介绍一道家乡美食。内容包括：
1. 这道美食的做法；
2. 鼓励大家亲自尝试。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
A Bite of My Hometown
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
“You don’t have to come, you know,” Lee whispered angrily.
A few months ago, Dad had suggested taking Lee and his friends on a day trip to the Rocky Mountain National Park. It was meant to be boys only, but then Father decided at the last minute to take Frankie along. Now she was baggage— her brother’s unwanted baggage.
Dad said, “Listen up. You need to take responsibility for your own equipment.” Frankie and the boys dutifully checked their equipment. Frankie looked at Dad’s kit. There was a compass, a survival blanket, first-aid kit, extra water, matches, and more.
By the time they reached the parking lot, it was mid-morning and there were few people around. Frankie and her dad studied the map while the boys hung around.
It was raining lightly when they set out — the boys racing ahead, followed by Dad and Frankie. The trail stretched before them, disappearing into the forest like a path in a fairy tale.
They climbed steadily, the day brightening around them. All around, there was nothing but trees, the bright-blue sky overhead, and glimpses of the magnificent Mummy Ranges.
When they reached an alpine meadow (高山草甸), Dad announced it was lunchtime. Frankie took off her backpack and gazed at the vastness of the landscape surrounding her.
After lunch, Frankie followed behind, determined to put some distance between herself and the boys. Frankie watched Adam climb up the rock, closely followed by Lee and Damien. Dad carefully pulled himself up after the boys, but as he went to stand up, the corner of the rock broke into pieces, and he lost his balance. Although he fell only a short distance, he landed awkwardly and hard. Frankie heard the air go out of him before he prepared another breath to yell.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150 左右;
2，请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“Dad fell!” Frankie shouted, her voice edged with tears.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Not too much later, Lee and Adam were back with a park keeper.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年度第一学期期末教学质量检测
高二英语试题 参考答案
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.C
第二部分：阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. A 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
第二节（共5小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. G
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. C
第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. its
37. in 38. a
39. enabled
40. enjoying
41. extremely
42. traditional
43. seeds 44. who
45. and
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】参考范文：
A Bite of My Hometown
When it comes to the delicious food in my hometown, I strongly recommend making dumplings, as they symbolize reunion and fortune.
Dumplings are super easy to make. First, make fillings by mixing your favorite ingredients like meat and vegetables. Then, fill the dumpling wrappers with the mixture and stick their edges together. Last, boil the dumplings and serve them with vinegar.
You are welcome to try your hand at making dumplings, which is a fun and easy way to make delicious food.
第二节（满（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】“Dad fell!” Frankie shouted, her voice edged with tears. Lee and his friends heard the cry and hurriedly came back to Frankie and his father. Dad could hardly breathe normally and lost his strength to move any little. Seeing that, Lee gave first aid quickly, with the help of his friends. But Dad remained motionless as if he had been planted on the ground. Without hesitation, Frankie left the scene, heading for the foot of the hill.
Not too much later, Lee and Adam were back with a park keeper. The keeper checked Dad’s situation and quickly called 911. A few minutes later, 4 medical workers came here, with a stretcher to carry Dad to the ambulance already waiting there. Dad was rescued and everyone breathed a sigh of relief and went home. Lee felt so proud of Frankie’s bravery, wit and calmness as well as so ashamed of not wanting her to go with them at beginning.

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