资源简介

德宏州2024—2025学年高三年级秋季学期期末教学质量统一监测
英语试卷
考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的姓名、学校、准考证号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，每题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.5 B. 9.18 C. 9.15
答案是 C。
1. What is “couscous”
A. A new hotel. B. A kind of food. C. A close relative.
2. How will the speakers go to the Sports Complex
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
3. What will the weather be like today
A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
4. In which city did the woman and John stay the longest
A. Vienna. B. Rome. C. Paris.
5. Why has the man come a long way to see the woman
A. To have an interview.
B. To ask about a lawyer.
C. To register an advertisement.
第二节 （共 15 小题；每小题 1.5分，满分22.5 分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When will the speakers have their picnic
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
7. Who will go to the market
A. Johnny’s mother. B. Lucy’s parents. C. Johnny and Lucy.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Where are the speakers
A. In a restaurant. B. In a bookstore. C. In a supermarket.
9. What does the man have to do now
A. Sign his name. B. Wait for his turn. C. Call his friend.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Brother and sister. C. Customer and shop assistant.
11. What do we know about the man
A. He is very poor.
B. He hates shopping.
C. He often comes to the store.
12. Which dress does the woman like
A. The red one. B. The blue one. C. The white one.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does the man think of visiting art galleries
A. Costly. B. Worthwhile. C. Disappointing.
14. Where did the woman go recently
A. To Washington. B. To Seoul. C. To Paris.
15. How old is the woman now
A. 22 years old. B. 26 years old. C. 28 years old.
16. What art gallery does the man want to visit again
A. Musée d’Orsay. B. Centre Pompidou. C. The National Gallery of Art.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is Perelman
A. A researcher. B. A doctor. C. A reporter.
18. With whom do babies feel the most comfortable
A. Strange adults. B. Babysitters. C. Other babies.
19. How may babies react to unfamiliar babies
A. They may start to cry.
B. They may show much fear.
C. They may touch each other.
20. What may the study lead to
A. Much more parenting time with babies.
B. An increase in family-based day care centers.
C. A greater demand for experienced babysitters.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中选出最佳选项。
A
Guided tours in the British Museum
Around the world in 70 minutes tour
Explore some of the most famous objects on display at the Museum. See the details of the characterful Lewis Chessmen, surprise yourself at the ancient texts on the world-famous Rosetta Stone and get closer to more highlights from the collection.
Time:11:30—12:40, 13 Feb. 2024—29 May. 2024
Price: 14 (Adults and children aged 12+)
Life and death in ancient Egypt
Discover how people lived and died in ancient Egypt, and explore their hopes for the afterlife. From statues and models of daily life to wall paintings, investigate what tombs and burial goods tell us about the lives of ancient Egyptians.
Time:9:00—10:00, 13 Feb. 2024—18 Dec. 2024
Price: 33; 30 (students, disabled visitors); 16.50 (Ages 5—15 years); free for under 5
An introduction to China
Gain an insight into the development of Chinese history and culture from 5,000 BC to the present day. Appreciate the exhibits featuring Tang-dynasty tomb figures and Ming-dynasty blue-and-white porcelain.
Time: 9:00—10:00, 19 Feb. 2024—17 Dec. 2024
Price: 33; 30 (students, disabled visitors); 16.50 (Ages 5—15 years); free for under 5
An introduction to ancient Greece
Start from the rise of the Greek city states to the empire of Alexander the Great. Enjoy some of the highlights of the collection, including sculptures from the Parthenon and the Mausoleum of Halikarnassos, regarded as one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World.
Time: 9:00—10:00, 24 Feb. 2024—26 Jun. 2024
Price: 33; 30 (students, disabled visitors); 16.50 (Ages 5—15 years); free for under 5
21. What can people do in the tour of “Life and death in ancient Egypt”
A. Explore ancient tombs and burial goods.
B. Witness the development of the country.
C. Visit most famous galleries of the country.
D. Appreciate sculptures from the Parthenon.
22. When can you enjoy the exhibits related to Tang-dynasty tomb figures
A. At 9:00, 17 Feb. B. At 9:30, 18 Dec. C. At 12:00, 6 Jun. D. At 9:00, 19 Feb.
23. How much should a couple with a child aged 4 pay for “An introduction to Ancient Greece”
A. 33. B. 66. C. 49.5. D. 82.5.
B
Having spent more than a decade on the dance floor, ROME—Niccolo Filippi, a 23-year-old Italian dance performer, recently decided to explore Chinese culture and its traditional dance forms and believes that this experience will not only boost his career, but also broaden his horizons beyond the world of dance.
His interest in diversifying his skills grew after he stumbled upon a short video of traditional Chinese-styled dance on YouTube. “I saw it as an art that combines tradition and modernity, which was mostly the reason why I liked it,” says Filippi.
Ever since, he has been closely following Chinese dance performers and watching numerous videos to learn more about the traditional style that he admires. Then Filippi’s chance came when he was invited to perform for a Chinese New Year celebration. He has since fully committed himself to the art form, learning several pieces and putting his newfound passion into practice.
“The biggest difference that I found is the change of mood and emotional expressions among dances,” says Filippi, adding that he needed to shift from the dynamic moves of hip-hop to the graceful and fluid movements of Chinese dance. Despite various obstacles, Filippi’s efforts have not gone unnoticed. Two of his friends shared videos of his performances on social media, and the response was overwhelming. One video garnered 500,000 views, while the other received 200,000 views.
Filippi believes that learning about different cultures is priceless, and he sees it as a means of personal growth. “I like to think of a person as a book,” he says. “Embracing different traditions and cultures, such as Chinese culture and many others, is like adding new chapters to my book, making it more diverse and wonderful.”
24. What is the main reason why Filippi falls in love with traditional Chinese dance
A. Its potential to boost his career.
B. Its rich emotional expressions.
C. Its mix of traditional and modern elements.
D. Its true reflection of his elegant personality.
25. How does the author explain the popularity of Filippi’s videos
A. By listing numbers. B. By giving an example.
C. By sharing a story. D. By making a comparison.
26. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Filippi thinks little of learning from other cultures.
B. Accepting various cultures boosts personal growth.
C. People prefer to write down their past experiences.
D. A book with chapters on traditions is more wonderful.
27. What is the main idea of the passage
A. Chinese-styled dance videos go viral on social media.
B. An Italian’s dance journey towards specialization starts.
C. Filippi’s desire for Chinese culture extends beyond dance.
D. An Italian dancer shows passion for Chinese-styled dance.
C
A new study provides the earliest known evidence of amputation—the medical term for cutting off a part of a person’s body. Around 31,000 years ago, a young adult had his left foot and part of his left leg removed in what is modern-day Indonesia, the study suggests.
Scientists say the ancient surgery was performed when the person was a child—and that the individual went on to live for years. It suggests that humans were carrying out medical operations much earlier than scientists had thought.
Tim Maloney, the study’s lead researcher, said that researchers were exploring a cave in Borneo, a rainforest area known for ancient rock art, when they came across the person’s burial.
Although much of the skeleton (骨骼) remained, it was missing its left foot and the lower part of its left leg, Maloney explained. After examining the remains, the researchers concluded the foot bones were not missing from the burial or lost in an accident. Instead, the bones had been carefully removed. The remaining leg bone showed a clean cut that healed over, Maloney said. There were no signs of infection, which would be expected if the child had gotten its leg bitten off by a creature like a crocodile. And there were also no signs of a crushing fracture (粉碎性骨折), which would have been expected if the leg had been cut off in an accident.
The child appears to have lived for around six to nine more years after losing the limb, eventually dying from unknown causes as a young adult, researchers said.
The evidence suggests that the ancient people knew enough about medicine to perform the surgery without fatal blood loss or infection. Researchers do not know what kind of tool was used to perform the surgery, or how infection was prevented. But they believe that a sharp stone tool may have made the cut, and some of the plant life in the area could have been used for medical treatment.
“The discovery of this early surgery rewrites the history of human medical knowledge and developments,” Maloney said at a press conference.
What can we know about the ancient surgery
A. It was discovered by accident.
B. It was later than scientists had thought.
C. Researchers have completely understood it.
D. The young adult died soon after receiving surgery.
29. What did the researchers discover in the research
A. The kid didn’t survive the surgery.
B. They found the reason for the child’s injury.
C. The surgery was conducted with proper medical treatment.
D. The kid suffered from severe infection due to a crocodile bite.
30. What does the underlined word limb in paragraph 5 refer to
A. Living environment. B. Family and relatives.
C. One of the unknown causes. D. Left foot and part of his left leg.
31. What’s Maloney’s attitude towards the discovery of the ancient surgery
A. Indifferent. B. Positive. C. Critical. D. Doubtful.
D
British sculptor Jason Taylor has made it his mission to use his talent to conserve our ecosystems by creating underwater museums. Over the years, the environmentalist has put over 1,100 massive artworks underwater worldwide. On January 28, 2021, Taylor launched his latest work—the Cannes Underwater Eco-Museum.
“The main goal was to bring attention to the fact that our oceans need our help,” Taylor told Dezeen. “Ocean ecology has been destroyed by human activities in the Mediterranean over the past few decades, and it is not obvious what is taking place when observing the sea from afar.”
The Cannes Underwater Eco-Museum contains 6 sculptures featuring local residents of various ages. They range from Maurice, an 80-year-old fisherman, to Anouk, a 9-year-old student. Towering over 6 feet and weighing 10 tons, the faces are sectioned (分割) into two parts, with the outer part like a mask. The mask indicates that the world’s oceans appear powerful and unbeatable from the surface but house an ecosystem that is extremely fragile to careless human activities.
Though the waters surrounding the sculptures now appear a clear blue, the seabed was filled with old boat engines, pipes, and other human-made trash when the project began about four years ago. Besides removing the trash, Taylor also restored the area’s seagrass. Just one square meter of the seagrass can generate up to 10 liters of oxygen daily. The seagrass also helps prevent coastal erosion (侵蚀) and provides habitats for many ocean creatures.
“The idea of creating an underwater museum was to draw more people underwater and develop a sense of care and protection,” Taylor told Dezeen. “If we threw unwanted waste near a forest, there would be a public protest. But this is happening every day in our surrounding waters and it largely goes unnoticed.”
32. What are the underwater museums intended to do？
A. To make huge profits. B. To show Jason Taylor’s talent.
C. To raise awareness of protecting the ocean. D. To draw attention to endangered sea animals.
33. Why does the outer part of the sculptures look like a mask？
A. To popularize the features of the locals.
B. To remind people to protect themselves.
C. To reflect people’s protection of the ocean.
D. To stress the sensitiveness of the ecosystem.
34. What’s Paragraph 4 mainly about？
A. How the project was started. B. How the seagrass was restored.
C. What recovery effort the project made. D. Why the surroundings were improved.
35. What can we infer from what Jason Taylor said in the last paragraph？
A. The situation of the ocean is easily ignored.
B. The destruction caused to the ocean is noticeable.
C. Forests play a more important role in ecosystems.
D. People have zero tolerance to damage done to nature.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It has been shown that watching English movie trailers (预告片) can improve your English vocabulary and thinking skills. 36
The first step is to find them. Go to YouTube and do a search for something like “official trailer”. Several film trailers will appear. You can choose some that look interesting. 37
These films are usually humorous and relatable. To find animated films, try doing a search for something like “animated official trailer”.
Make sure the video you choose offers closed captions (字幕), which you will use later.
38 It may be listed as “CC” or something else. Keep in mind that trailers more than five or seven years old may not offer closed captions on YouTube. So choose newer videos.
Next, watch the video at a normal speed without closed captions. Try to understand what the story is about overall. Then watch it again to seek more details. 39 It will give you an idea of whether the dialogue is too fast or difficult for your skill level.
40 Find the “CC” setting at the bottom of the video and click the captions. This can help you in several ways. You can confirm whether you understand the dialogue in your first viewing, make clearer any dialogue you do not understand, and connect the sound of words with their spellings. You can also write down a few of the new words in a notebook or on your mobile phone.
A. They may sound a little strange at a slower speed.
B. With this method, you are testing your English skills.
C. Then watch the video again, this time with closed captions.
D. You can find the closed caption mark at the bottom of the video.
E. Besides, try using your notebook as you learn English in your everyday life.
F. Now let’s talk about steps you can take to get the most out of watching them.
G. Animated films can be an especially good choice to practice English for all ages.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
完型填空（共15题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答案纸上将该项涂黑。
Mick Polly, who lives with his teenage daughter Carolina in a house, is known as the bike man. Over the past five years, Mick has repaired and 41 hundreds of bicycles for needy kids.
One day, a 13-year-old boy with a broken bike walked by Mick’s house. “I was working in my 42 and he asked if I could fix it,” says Mick, now 53. Mick asked friends on Facebook if they had the 43 part. The town’s former police chief saw the 44 and donated two used bicycles. Mick took parts from each to buy a new set of wheels for the boy. Soon after, Mick, who 45 a toy business, repaired a bike for the boy’s brother and built one for his sister.
46 spread, and within the year, he had fixed up dozens of bikes for local kids whose parents couldn’t 47 to buy new ones. “People always 48 their bikes, once something goes wrong with their bicycles,” says Mick. He 49 the bikes and bike parts in his garage.
To date, the bike man has repaired hundreds of cycles and 50 nearly 700 newly built bikes. They’re free but the kids must 51 to two things. “They’ve kept in mind whoever is
52 them, and they’ve got to study hard at school. If a kid’s 53 are low, Mick requires a teacher’s note, saying that they’re doing their best,” Mick says.
Mick also hopes that the 54 will get kids off the couch. “When I was growing up, we all rode our bikes. 55 these kids can get some exercise,” Mick says.
41. A. purchased B. built C. invented D. found
42. A. market B. grocery C. office D. garage
43. A. missing B. challenging C. best-selling D. developing
44. A. reality B. email C. post D. accident
45. A. obtains B. desires C. protects D. owns
46. A. Word B. Voice C. Report D. Rumor
47. A. refuse B. promise C. afford D. pretend
48. A. evaluate B. guarantee C. accumulate D. desert
49. A. creates B. hides C. sells D. stores
50. A. stayed away B. given away C. put away D. got away
51. A. contribute B. turn C. agree D. lead
52. A. helping B. teaching C. opposing D. ignoring
53. A. heights B. positions C. grades D. spirits
54. A. bikes B. schools C. textbooks D. cars
55. A. Fortunately B. Hopefully C. Eventually D. Frankly
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Zheng Chao, who grew up in Jiaoyao village, a high-altitude 56 (mountain) area with poor land, was raised by tea. His family, which has been growing tea 57 three generations, used to have trouble putting food on the table, 58 now he earns 70,000 yuan a year just from selling tea.
In 2024, Kuang and seven other young people in the village set up a tea cooperative. With the support of the economic cooperative in their village, they 59 (efficient) integrated the resources of the tea industry, and carried out the model of unified planting, fertilization, processing and sales, attempting 60 (achieve) high quality and a good flavor. An old house in the village 61 (transform) into a tea processing and exhibition workshop, while the house
62 (face) the green mountain and the tea garden became a separate tea tasting room.
Last year, the cooperative assigned 60 percent of its expected 63 (earning) to the shareholders in the village. When Mao Huayan, Kuang’s wife, 64 (receive) her bonus of 1,097 yuan, she felt like a child getting “lucky” money during the Spring Festival. More important was the industrial development 65 helped them to accumulate wealth.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
你校上周开展了一次有关历史古迹保护的研学活动。活动过后，同学们对保护历史古迹有了更深的认识。请你写一篇短文向英文报Teen Times投稿，要点如下：
1．活动简介；
2．研学收获。
参考词汇：研学活动learning activity，历史古迹historic sites
注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
A Remarkable Learning Experience
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My father was sixty-five. Though he had planned on retiring at sixty, he was still working hard. For him, raising four children—especially now that my mother had stopped working and was at home full time—meant he couldn’t afford to retire. It also meant he failed to achieve anything he promised my mom. “Sweetheart,” he’d say, “I’m going to take you on a cruise (乘船游览).” He still told her that, and only these days he added, “as soon as the kids are out of college.”
I knew that putting all of us kids through college probably meant it was going to be a while before my father achieved his dream of going away with my mother on a cruise—though it didn’t stop him from cutting out ads about cruise vacations! It was cute, but it was kind of sad, too. I remember my grandmother always wanted to go to Nova Scotia. My grandfather would always say, “We’ll go next year, sweetheart.” Then she died. My grandmother never got to see Nova Scotia. I just didn’t want my parents to wait until it was too late.
I decided to save up my money to send my parents on a cruise even if it was a short three-day cruise. My friends said to me, “Get real! Saving up for a cruise is something you will never be able to do.” But I didn’t believe that. It was not like I could send them around the world or anything, but I didn’t think my putting together the money for a short trip was an impossible goal. I was determined that just as my parents had made my dreams come true for all these years from my first bicycle to my first soccer camp—I was going to do all I could to make their dream of going on a cruise come true.
注意：续写词数应为150左右。
I started doing odd jobs (零工) and yard work around the neighborhood.
One year later, I finally saved up enough money!德宏州2024—2025学年高三年级秋季学期期末教学质量统一监测
英语参考答案
第一部分：听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1—5 BBCCA 6—10 CAABA 11—15 BCBAC 16—20 AACCB
第二部分：阅读理解（每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21—25 ADBCA 26—30 BDACD 31—35 BCDCA 36—40 FGDBC
第三部分：语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节：完形填空（每小题1分，满分15分）
41—45 BDACD 46—50 ACDDB 51—55 CACAB
第二节：语法填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
mountainous 57. for 58. but 59. efficiently 60. to achieve
61. was transformed 62 .facing 63. earnings 64. received 65. that/which
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文（满分15分）
Possible version
A Remarkable Learning Experience
A learning activity was held by our school last week, which made a crucial impact on awakening students’ passion for conserving historic sites.
In the beginning, with the purpose of appreciating the charm of ancient architectures in person, we took field trips to some historic sites. Furthermore, some vivid lectures on the challenges and opportunities, which come with preserving these sites, were delivered by specialists. Finally, immersing ourselves in a heated discussion concerning the significance of preserving the historic sites, we were offered valuable insights into protecting cultural heritage.
It is those various activities that serve as reminders that history is not merely about the past but also shapes our future. This realization inspires us to become advocates for the preservation of historic treasures.
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
略
应用文写作评分原则
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15）：完全完成了试题规定的任务。
1．覆盖所有内容要点。
2．应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
3．语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
4．有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12）：完全完成了试题规定的任务。
1．虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2．应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3．语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
4．应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9）：基本完成了试题规定的任务。
1．虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2．应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3．语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
4．应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6）：未适当完成试题规定的任务。
1．漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
2．语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
3．有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
4．较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1～3）：未完成试题规定的任务。
1．明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
2．语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
3．较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
4．缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯，信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
读后续写评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和对所标出的关键词的应用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6．如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（21～25）
—与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
—内容丰富。
—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16～20）
—与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
—内容比较丰富。
—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11～15）
—与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了若干有关内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6～10）
—与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了一些有关内容。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1～5）
—与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
—产出内容较少。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力原文
第一节
(Text 1)
M: You should try this. My aunt cooked it.
W: Hmm...delicious. What is it
M: It’s called “couscous”. It’s made from wheat. There’s some meat on top of it.
(Text 2)
M: Do you think we should take the subway to the sports Complex
W: I think we’d better take a bus.
M: Are you kidding There’s no bus in that direction. Let’s take a taxi.
W: Up to you!
(Text 3)
W: Look, the sky is almost dark!
M: Oh, the weather forecast is quite accurate. It’s said that it would rain heavily today.
W: Yes, the weather in summer is so changeable. It was still a sunny day yesterday.
(Text 4)
M: Where did you and John go on vacation
W: We spent four days in Vienna, one week in Paris, and five days in Rome and we had a two-day delay in Geneva before we went to Italy.
(Text 5)
W: Well, Mr. Li. It’s early and you’ve come a long way just for an interview.
M: Yes. I read your advertisement in the newspaper and my aunt said this is a good company and since I’d like to be a lawyer someday, we thought the job would give me a new start.
第二节
(Text 6)
M: Lucy, do you want to come for a picnic in the park this Saturday
W: Oh, I’m sorry, but I’m going to see my grandparents. They live far away from my home. We could go on Sunday, though.
M: OK. That’s a deal. I’ll ask my mum to get some things for the picnic at the market on Saturday morning.
W: That’s great. Thanks, Johnny!
(Text 7)
M: We’d like a table for 4, please.
W: Have you made a booking
M: No, we haven’t.
W: I’m afraid there’ll be about a ten- to fifteen-minute wait.
M: That’s OK. Oh, by the way, we prefer a table by the window.
W: In that case, you’ll probably have to wait longer.
M: It doesn’t matter.
W: OK. I’ll call you when the table is ready. Your name, please
M: It’s Montague, M-o-n-t-a-g-u-e. Could we look at the menu while we are waiting
W: Certainly! Here you are.
(Text 8)
M: What do you think of this clothing store
W: I love it! The only problem is that it’s extremely expensive.
M: Don’t worry. I’ve decided that for your birthday. I’m going to take you shopping for a new dress here.
W: Really The last time we did that was before our wedding. I thought you hated shopping.
M: I do hate shopping and that’s why you should appreciate this gift!
W: That’s really nice of you! Let’s go in and try some things on.
M: How about this red dress I think it would really suit you.
W: I don’t think this color is quite right for me. Do they have the same dress in white in size 8
M: Let’s see... They’ve got one in blue, pink, black... and white. Here you are.
W: This is perfect!
(Text 9)
W: Sam, it seems you really love visiting art galleries.
M: That’s true. I think art galleries provide the perfect background to admire and appreciate works of art by great artists of different times across the globe.
W: I agree. Visiting an art gallery can not only be fun but also exciting as you experience the first-hand look of many amazing masterpieces altogether.
M: So do you like visiting art galleries, too
W: Yes. I just came back from Washington the other day. I visited the National Gallery of Art there. It has one of the biggest collections of masterworks in the world. So have you also visited it
M: Yes. It’s amazing. So, what other art galleries did you visit
W: I visited Centre Pompidou when I was in Paris last year and the National Museum of Korea in Seoul when I was 22 years old. Though it was 6 years ago, I remember that experience very well.
M: Didn’t you visit Musée d’Orsay when you were in Paris
W: No. I didn’t have a long stay in the city. But I look forward to visiting it. I bet you must have visited it.
M: You’re right. It’s one of the world’s richest, greatest and most exciting art galleries. I can’t wait to revisit it.
(Text 10)
M: Recently a five-year study was conducted by the Center for Childhood Development in Los Angeles, California, regarding the way babies react to different types of people. The findings of the study suggest that babies seem to be more comfortable around other babies than they are with strange adults. The results confirm the ideas of Dr. Richard Perelman, who has written many books about raising children with his research team. Dr. Perelman supports the findings of the study and adds that it is a sound idea to keep children with other children, as in a day care center, than to have children cared for by a babysitter. According to the results of the study, some babies seem to show fear of strange adults, but they are likely to reach out to try to touch an unfamiliar baby. Two of the children in the study were especially close. It was reported that if the two children were separated for any reason, they would start to cry. The only way to satisfy them was to allow them to be together. If the findings are true, it may lead to an increase in the use of family-oriented day care centers where children can spend more time with each other.

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