资源简介

2025山东济南八年级英语下学期第一次月考测试卷
（满分150分 考试用时120分钟）
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．测试范围：Units 1~3，人教版八年级下册。
一、听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1． A．She can’t play the guitar. B．He doesn’t wear a suit. C．They didn’t buy anything.
2． A．Are you busy after school B．Is that your new teacher C．Have they seen the film
3． A．Jack is tall and thin. B．I watched a movie last night. C．Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
4． A．Who bought these apples B．What were you doing C．Why do you like rabbits
5． A．She didn’t do the dishes. B．It isn’t made of cotton. C．You can’t eat in class.
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6．What’s the relationship between the two speakers
A．Cook and customer. B．Teacher and student. C．Mother and son.
7．When will Sally have her birthday party this year
A．On June 1st. B．On June 2nd. C．On June 4th.
8．Where does the woman want to go
A．To the bus station. B．To the beach. C．To the library.
9．When does the train leave
A．At 7:30． B．At 8:00． C．At 8:30.
10．Which body language is rude in Australia
A．Shaking hands. B．Putting hands together. C．Making the “OK” sign.
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11．What did Li Ming do on vacation
A．He went to work. B．He visited his aunt and uncle. C．He visited his friends.
12．Did Li Ming like the food in Hong Kong
A．Yes, he did. B．No, he didn’t. C．We don’t know.
13．What was Li Ming’s best part of the trip
A．The food. B．The Dragon Boat Festival. C．The shopping.
14．What didn’t Li Ming like about Hong Kong
A．The traffic. B．The hot weather. C．The people.
15．When does Li Ming advise the girl to go to Hong Kong
A．Next January. B．Next June. C．Next October.
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16．Where does Peter live now
A．In the UK. B．In the USA． C．In China.
17．How far is it from Peter’s home to his workplace
A．5 kilometers. B．10 kilometers. C．15 kilometers.
18．How does Peter go to work
A．By bus or by taxi. B．By subway or by bus. C．By subway or by taxi.
19．What time does Peter usually arrive at the subway station
A．At 7: 00. B．At 7: 10. C．At 7: 15.
20．Why does Peter want to find a new house
A．Because his house is too far.
B．Because his house is too old.
C．Because his house is too small.
阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Outer Space Books for Kids
If you are a space fan, rocket lover, or future astronaut, these are some books that you must be interested in!
The Kids Book of the Night Sky by Ann Love & Jane Drake 4.3 ☆☆☆☆☆ Price: $10.8 Reading age: 8-12 years Number of pages: 144 The book provides beautiful short stories, activities and wonderful facts about the night sky. Kids can learn by doing interesting activities!
On the Moon by Anna Milbourne 4.6 ★★★★☆ Price: $9.9 Reading age: 2-4 years Number of pages: 24 The picture book introduces (介绍) young kids to the wideness of the universe, how far away the moon is and what space travel is through a story about a little girl. What Is the Moon Made Of : And Other Questions Kids Have About Space by Donna H Bowman 5.0 ★★★★★ Price: $9.4 Reading age: 5-7 years Number of pages: 24 How hot is the sun Why is Mars red Are there aliens (外星人) If you have questions about space, here are answers!
21．Who might be interested in Bowman’s book
A．Three-year-old Jim. B．Five-year-old Mary.
C．Eight-year-old Mark. D．Nine-year-old Betty.
22．What can kids learn by reading On the Moon
①How far away the moon is ②What space travel is
③How to become astronauts ④Why Mars is red
A．①② B．②③ C．③④ D．②④
23．If Mrs Black wants to buy The Kids Book of the Night Sky and On the Moon for her kids, she needs to pay ________.
A．$10.8 B．$19.3 C．$20.2 D．$20.7
24．From the reading, we can know that _______.
A．On the Moon tells a story about a Tittle alien
B．The Kids Book of the Night Sky is a picture book
C．Anna Milbourne is the writer of What Is the Moon Made Of
D．On the Moon and What Is the Moon Made Of both have 24 pages
25．Where can we find the reading above
A．In a geography magazine. B．In a travel guide.
C．On a book selling website. D．On a school notice board.
B
Miss Green planned a class trip this year. On the day of the trip, all the students got on the bus early in the morning. They were excited.
There was a tunnel (隧道) on the way. The bus had to pass through it. When they arrived at the tunnel, they saw a sign that said, “The tunnel is 5 meters high.” The bus was almost 5 meters high. Because the bus driver had passed through the tunnel many times before, he thought the bus would pass without any problem. However, this time, halfway through the tunnel, the bus got stuck (卡住) and couldn’t move.
At that moment, a man passed by. “Last month, some workers paved (铺) this road, so the road level is a little higher now,” he said.
The students got off the bus. They tried to push (推) the bus, but it didn’t move. Then Tom said, “Why not let some air out of the tires (轮胎) Then the bus will be a little lower, and it will be able to pass through the tunnel safely.” Everyone thought Tom’s advice was brilliant and followed it. The bus finally came out of the tunnel.
It is the same in our life. We often get stuck and become unhappy because we want too many things. If we let go of some of them, it will be much easier for us to enjoy our life.
26．What do we know from Paragraph 1
A．How long the trip was. B．How the students went on the trip.
C．What subject Miss Green teaches. D．What the students think of Miss Green.
27．Why did the bus get stuck
A．Because the driver didn’t see the sign. B．Because the driver made a wrong turn.
C．Because the level of the road was higher. D．Because there was something wrong with the tires.
28．What does the underlined word “brilliant” in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese
A．奇怪的 B．巧妙的 C．类似的 D．公平的
29．What does the writer want to tell us by writing the passage
A．Best things in life are free. B．Better late than never.
C．Seeing is believing. D．Less is more.
30．What is the structure of the passage
(①= Paragraph 1,②-Paragraph 2…)
A．①/②③/④⑤ B．①②/③/④⑤ C．①②③④/⑤ D．①/②③④⑤
C
Today, people want to keep healthy through sports and exercise. But some of them have some wrong ideas about it.
“A plate of chicken is a good meal before games because it has much energy.”
In fact, the best meal before games should have carbohydrates (碳水化合物). Food like potatoes, bread, bananas are rich in it, but chicken and meat are not.
“The best time to exercise is early in the morning.”
No. Morning is a good time to exercise, but it may not be suitable for you. If an afternoon or evening is suitable for you, and you enjoy the feeling of getting healthier, you can choose any time to exercise. So there is no fixed time for you to exercise.
“If you drink water when you exercise, you’ll feel tired.”
The fact is that you must have some water during breaks (休息时间) when you exercise. And after exercising, you must have water. If you don’t drink water, then you may feel tired.
“Exercising every day is quite important.”
Wrong. Too much exercise is bad for your health. You need to give your body a day of rest.
31．According to the passage, we must drink water ________.
A．in the morning B．when you exercise
C．during breaks and after exercising D．when you feel tired
32．________ wrong ideas people have about sports and exercise are mentioned in the article.
A．Three B．Four C．Two D．Five
33．The underlined word “fixed” probably means ________ in Chinese.
A．important B．difficult C．unchangeable D．simple
34．Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A．Don’t drink water when you exercise, or you’ll feel tired.
B．Evening is the best time to exercise because it’s always cool.
C．You should eat enough meat because it can give you energy before games.
D．Exercising too much is not good for us.
35．Which of the following will be the best title (标题)
A．Results of sports and exercise B．Best time for sports and exercise
C．Reasons for sports and exercise D．Wrong ideas about sports and exercise
D
In our lives, we should often be ready for change that will help us unlock (释放) our self-improvement power. However, we don’t always understand it. We think of unlocking our self-improvement power only when everything gets worse.
When do we realize that we need to change diets When none of our shirts and jeans would fit us. When do we stop eating candies and chocolates When all of our teeth have fallen off.
Most of us will learn about unlocking our self-improvement power only when the whole world falls apart. We think and feel this way because it is not easy to change. However, change becomes more painful when we pay no attention to it.
Change will happen, like it or hate it. At one point or another, we are all going to finally unlock our self-improvement power, not because the world says so, but because we realize it’s good for ourselves.
Happy people don’t just accept change; they welcome it. Unlocking our self-improvement power means unlocking ourselves out of the box of thought that is just the way we are. It is such a poor excuse for people who fear change.
Jane always tells everyone that she is afraid of being around groups of people. Over the years, that is what Jane has believed. Every time a great crowd comes, she steps back and locks herself up in a room. Jane not only believes in her story, but lives it!
If we look at things in a different way, we might have greater fun. Doing exercise three times a week would lead to a healthier life. Reading books every day would build up knowledge. And only when we are enjoying the whole process (过程) of unlocking our self-improvement power, will we realize that we can take things light and become happy.
36．What’s the writing purpose of Paragraph 1
A．To tell a story. B．To solve a problem.
C．To give an example. D．To ask a question.
37．What advice might be given to help solve Jane’s problem
A．Always believe in herself. B．Get on with people in a friendly way.
C．Unlock herself out of the box of thought. D．Count the days until she is fully improved.
38．We should put the following sentence at the end of ________.
We see the warning signs when things get difficult.
A．Paragraph 2 B．Paragraph 3 C．Paragraph 4 D．Paragraph 5
39．Which of the statements is NOT true according to the passage
A．It’s not easy for people to make a change.
B．People will unlock their self-improvement power when they realize it is helpful.
C．Unlocking self-improvement powers means changing the usual way to think of oneself.
D．People can’t have fun when they see things differently.
40．Which would be the best title for the passage
A．Is It Important to Take Things Light
B．Is It Necessary to Believe in Yourselves
C．To Hold on to The Last Moment or to Give Up
D．To Unlock Ourselves out of the Box of Thought or to Stay in It
阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are you looking forward to starting senior high school 41 Don’t worry, though! I’m here to tell you what you should do on your first day of high school.
First, make sure you get a good sleep the night before. 42 When you wake up in the morning, have a healthy breakfast to fuel (给……提供能量) your brain.
Next, choose clothes that make you feel comfortable and confident. It could be something that shows your style, like a cool T-shirt, jeans or a dress. Of course, if there is a dress code (规范) in your school, remember to follow it.
When you arrive at school, find your classroom. Don’t be afraid to ask for directions if you need them. Once you’re in your classroom, introduce yourself to your teacher and classmates. 43 And you should pay attention to some information about the school, classes, and rules. Take notes if you need to remember something.
At lunchtime, find a place to sit and enjoy your meal. Look for friendly faces and start a conversation. 44 You might find some lifelong friends on your first day.
45 There are still a few months for you to get prepared. I’m sure you’ll fit in!
A．If you put in more effort, you’ll make it.
B．I can’t believe how fast the time went by!
C．It’s a great way to start building relationships.
D．Anyway, high school is a new start for everyone.
E．You need to be well-rested and ready for the big day.
F．It’s an exciting time, but you might also feel nervous.
G．High school is a chance to meet new people and make friends.
四、补全对话（5分）
阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: I’m always feeling tired these days, Jane. I am so worried.
B: You have spent all your time on your study.
A: I agree. Do you have any advice
B: But I don’t know what movies are on now.
A: Let me see. I’m afraid there are not any good movies recently.
B: OK.
A: I like to go out and see something different.
B: Let’s go to the new museum. My dad told me it’s big and modern, and there are lots of high-tech products on show.
A: I’m interested in science and technology.
B: We can go and see now, but we may get home late.
A: You are right, my friend.
B: Then let’s give them a call right now.
46．A．It takes time. B．You must be sad.
C．You need to relax. D．It may be boring.
47．A．How about going to the cinema B．Can you talk with our teachers
C．Do you want to listen to music D．Why not do exercise outside
48．A．What’s the matter B．What do you like
C．What can you do D．What are you doing
49．A．That sounds great. B．I have no idea.
C．It would be boring. D．You may be tired.
50．A．That will make things difficult. B．We can take a taxi to come back.
C．We are not allowed to do that. D．We’d better tell our parents first.
五、完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
This spring I tried out for the Youth Baseball Team. Finally, I got a 51 , saying “Mike Davis: sometimes backup (后补的) outfielder (外野手), possibly left”.
The position didn’t sound so 52 and I was a little upset.
The next day before the first game, Coach pointed to the 53 of us. “Mike Davis and Emily Hall, go to the outfield (外场). Practice!”
We practiced but failed a lot. Then Emily and I stood there 54 the games. Unluckily, our team lost the first two games.
At home, I asked my brother, “Do you think Coach will put me in a 55 ” He thought for a while and shook his head. “It probably will 56 happen.”
That night in bed, I thought about Coach’s words to us, “If you do your best, you’ll see 57 .”
I started practicing every day at home. When I practiced at the field, Coach looked at me as if trying to 58 who I was.
In the final game, Emily was called in to play. I was there alone, feeling really 59 . I’d tried my best but 60 had noticed.
It seemed unfair, but why should I stop after all this practice With a struggle (挣扎) in my mind, I stood up and 61 practicing. I felt myself improved.
In the second round of the game, one player got 62 and had to leave, Coach shouted at me: “Sometimes backup outfielder, possibly left: 63 THE FIELD!”
I tried all my best to play along with my teammates. Finally, the game was over and we 64 !
After the game, the coaches from other teams asked me. “What 65 do you play ”
“I’m the sometimes backup outfielder, possibly left” I replied proudly.
51．A．reply B．report C．sign D．gift
52．A．easy B．strange C．funny D．important
53．A．one B．two C．three D．four
54．A．missing B．holding C．watching D．competing
55．A．game B．practice C．test D．journey
56．A．always B．still C．usually D．never
57．A．talents B．problems C．results D．truths
58．A．remember B．imagine C．explain D．guess
59．A．excited B．sad C．tired D．surprised
60．A．everybody B．somebody C．nobody D．anybody
61．A．kept on B．tried out C．put off D．turned down
62．A．hurt B．lost C．burned D．dressed
63．A．BY B．ON C．OFF D．OUTSIDE
64．A．agreed B．changed C．left D．won
65．A．sports B．position C．game D．joke
六、阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
One night my 15-year-old son Tommy fought with his brother Kevin. Later, Kevin went upstairs with 66 sad look on his face. I didn’t think it was a big problem.
About 20 minutes later, while I 67 (walk) upstairs, I heard Kevin crying in his room. I knocked on the door and asked, “Kevin, do you want to talk ”
There was no answer, I tried again. Still, nothing happened.
So, I took a piece of paper and wrote, “If you don’t want to talk, we can write notes to each other.” Then I slipped (使滑动) 68 under the door.
An hour later, a note slipped out. As I read it, I began 69 (cry). It said, “Nobody in this family loves me. I am not the youngest nor the oldest, and I am not 70 (smart). Tommy thinks I am too weak, 71 Dad wishes he had another Kevin better at basketball. You’re never around to even notice me.”
He was right about my part. Feeling sorry for him, I wrote back, “Kevin, I do love you, and everyone in this family 72 (love) you.”
I could hear him crying 73 (silent). Half an hour later, a note with “Thanks” came out.
I wrote back, “For what ”
He returned, “Not giving me 74 ”.
Since then, I have learned that each family member is of great 75 (importance). When one of us notices that the other is unhappy, we’ll smile and say, “Write it on paper.”
七、书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76．A: What should Mary do
B:
77．A:
B: No, you can’t. You have a math test tomorrow.
78．A:
B: The Changjiang River.
79．A:
B: He was playing the piano at 5:00 yesterday afternoon.
80．A:
B: It’s 21196.18 kilometers. It is considered as one of the great wonders of the world.
第二节 写作（25分）
我国北方多地遭遇了洪水袭击，为了帮助受灾的人们，某国际学校打算发起一次捐赠活动。假设你是学校广播站的广播员， 请你根据以下思维导图内容提示写一篇英语短文，将这次活动的相关事项及时通知大家。
一场捐赠活动
活动主题我们学校将举办一场捐赠活动 活动的内容1. 捐赠钱和衣物 2. …… 呼吁1. 呼吁学生们参与活动 2. ……
注意：1. 可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
2. 不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和学生的真实姓名。
3. 语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
一、听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 AABAC 6-10 CACCC 11-15 BABBB 16-20 CBBBA
二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
21．B 22．A 23．D 24．D 25．C
B
26．B 27．C 28．B 29．D 30．C
C
31．C 32．B 33．C 34．D 35．D
D
36．B 37．C 38．A 39．D 40．D
三、阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
41．F 42．E 43．C 44．G 45．D
四、补全对话（5分）
46．C 47．A 48．B 49．A 50．D
五、完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
51．A 52．D 53．B 54．C 55．A 56．D 57．C 58．D 59．B 60．C
61．A 62．A 63．B 64．D 65．B
六、阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66．a 67．was walking 68．it 69．to cry 70．the smartest
71．and 72．loves 73．silently 74．up 75．importance
七、书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
76．She should take her temperature.
77．Can I go to the movie
78．What’s the longest river in Asia
79．What was he doing at 5:00 yesterday afternoon
80．How long is the Great Wall
第二节 写作（25分）
例文：
Boys and girls, a big flood happened in some areas in the north of China. Our school is going to hold a donation activity to help the people who lost their homes.
The activity will be held on the school playground from 3:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. this Friday. You can give away some money and clothes. But you shouldn’t bring food because it isn’t easy to keep fresh. What’s more, you can also give away some school things to the students there so that they can continue to study and do their homework. This is very helpful.
A small act of kindness can make a big difference. I hope that everyone can join in this activity.2025山东济南八年级英语下学期第一次月考测试卷
答题卡
(
注意事项
1
．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
2
．请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的
[
条码粘贴处
]
的方框内
。
3
．选择题必须
使用
2B
铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用
0.5
mm
黑
色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整
。
4
．请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
5
．保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
6
．
填涂样例
正确
[
■
]
错误
[
--
][
√
] [
×
]
缺考标记
违纪标记
以上标记由监考人员用
2B
铅笔填涂！
条
码
粘
贴
处
准考证号
：
姓
名
：
__________________________________________
1
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
2
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
3
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
4
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
5.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ]
6
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
7
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
8
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
9
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
10.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ]
11
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
12
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
13
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
14
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
15
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
1
6
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ]
1
7
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
1
8
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
19
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
20
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
21
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
22
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
23
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
24
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
25
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
26
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
27
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
28
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
29
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
30
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
31
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
32
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
33
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
34
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
36
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
41
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ][
E
][
F
][
G
]
42
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
[
E
][
F
][
G
]
43
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
[
E
][
F
][
G
]
44
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
[
E
][
F
][
G
]
45
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
[
E
][
F
][
G
]
46
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
47
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
48
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
49
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
50
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
51
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
52
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
53
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
54
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
55
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
56
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
7
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
8
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5
9
.
[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
60
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
61
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
62
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
63
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
64
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
65
.
[
A ]
[ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
选择题
(
请用
2B
铅笔填涂
)
)
(
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
六、
阅读填空
（共
10
小题；每小题
1.5
分，满分
15
分）
66
.
_____________
67
.
_____________
68
.
_____________
69
.
_____________
70
.
_____________
71
.
_____________
72
.
_____________
73
.
_____________
74
.
_____________
75
.
_____________
七、书面表达（共两节，满分
35
分）
第一节
情境运用
（
10
分）
7
6
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
7
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
8
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
7
9
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
80
.
___________________________________________________________________
_______________
第二节
写作
（
25
分）
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
非选择题
(
请在各试题的答题区内作答
)
)

展开更多......

收起↑