江西省多校联考2024-2025学年高一下学期3月月考英语试题(含答案)

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江西省多校联考2024-2025学年高一下学期3月月考英语试题(含答案)

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江西省多校联考2024-2025学年高一下学期3月月考
英语试卷
试卷共8页,67小题,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1. 考试范围:必修第一册~必修第二册Unit4。
2. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
3. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,请将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18 C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1.
What does the man suggest doing
A. Looking for the lost purse B. Giving the purse to the police. C. Waiting for the purse’s owner.
2.
When will the train start
A. At 9:00. B. At 9:10. C. At 9:15
3.
What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Waiter and customer. C. Teacher and student.
4.
What are the speakers talking about
A. Their summer holidays. B. Their first English class. C. The man’s English teacher.
5.
What is the weather like
A. Cold. B. Warm. C. Windy.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
6. What color shoes does the man want
A. White. B. Black. C. Red.
7. Why does the man choose football shoes
A. They are hard to get dirty. B. They are comfortable to wear. C. They are suitable for a match.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
8. Why will Jane come to the speakers’ city
A. To attend a party. B. To attend a meeting. C. To attend university.
9. How will the speakers pick Jane up
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By taxi.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
10. Who will give the lecture
A. Professor Wu. B. Mrs. Smith. C. Mary.
11. What’s the lecture about
A. Fire safety. B. Anxiety reduction. C. Environmental protection.
12. Where will the lecture be held
A. In the classroom. B. In the lecture hall. C. In the dining hall.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
13 What was the woman’s first destination
A. The Great Wall. B. An art museum. C. Some universities.
14. What was the man’s original plan
A. Going to Hangzhou. B. Visiting the Summer Palace. C. Helping look after his grandmother.
15. What happened to the man’s grandmother
A. She caught a cold. B. She got her feet hurt. C. She fell to the ground.
16. How long was the man’s grandmother in hospital
A. For 2 days. B. For 5 days. C. For 30 days.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。
17. What was the focus of the survey
A. What students use smart phones for.
B. How smart phones are popular with students.
C. What kinds of smart phones students use most.
18. What did the survey begin with
A. An interview. B. A heated debate C. A questionnaire.
19. How did Lucy feel at the agreement that students reached
A. Surprised. B. Satisfied. C. Upset.
20. What’s the opinion of the teachers
A. Students should use smart phones for study.
B. Smart phones should be forbidden in the school.
C Students should reduce the time of using smart phones.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Course Reserves
Course Reserves is a library service that supports instructors and students by providing digital and physical items for courses.
For Instructors
Organize readings by sections or by topic.
Link to affordable and accessible resources.
Request the purchase of resources not in the library collection.
Use “Discuss with the Library” to ask questions and get updates on your readings.
Things for Instructors to Know
Instructors can request any type of material to support teaching including items from our collection, free websites, and items that need to be purchased. If you require students to use physical items, you should indicate that when submitting your list.
Each semester, lists must be sent to the library (click My list is ready) in order for students to see the list. We first look for online access. If we cannot locate an item in digital format, then we may purchase the item in print.
We can license some streaming video and digitize physical media. We do not have access to commercial platforms such as Netflix.
Physical coursepacks and workbooks may not be placed on reserve.
Physical items are removed from library reserves at the end of each semester.
For Students
If your instructor put items on reserve, you can find a list in Canvas. Physical items, such as books or DVDs, can be checked out and used for 2 hours at a time.
Important Dates
In order to review and obtain material for your course, we ask that you submit your lists well in advance of the start of classes. Priority is given to requests submitted before the following dates:
Fall semester: August 15
Spring semester: December 1
Summer session: April 15
21. Where can instructors learn the update of readings
A. On Netflix. B. On Canvas.
C. On My list is ready. D. On Discuss with the Library.
22. What’s a rule for students to use physical items
A. Keep them for 2 hours once. B. Avoid using physical media
C. Put physical items on reserve. D. Remove physical items each semester.
23. What is the text
A. A blog post. B. A news report. C. An announcement. D. A book review.
B
At an age when children are busy climbing monkey bars and benches, 12-year-old Samya Maulik from Ahmedabad, Gujarat is busy conquering towering peaks. From completing the Everest Base Camp (EBC) trek (跋涉) at the age of nine to becoming the youngest person in the world to finish the tough Chadar Trek at eleven, Samya is a living testament to determination, perseverance, and a supportive family.
Her father loves trekking and showed her photos of his previous treks. Inspired by her father, Samya took her first adventure in Manali at the young age of six. It was the beginning of a passion that would soon lead her to the Everest Base Camp at the tender age of nine. “That experience gave me the confidence to take on any challenge,” Samya said.
Trekking comes with its share of hardships. From dehydration (脱水) at EBC to the bitter cold of the Chadar Trek, Samya has faced it all. The main problem was eating raw or undercooked food. The water wasn’t purified, so they used purification tablets. But that made it taste bitter, so they added sugar to make it drinkable. Samya learned a lesson that pain was an integral part of success, so Samya’s determination and willpower remained unshaken.
Samya praises her parents for their solid support. Her father, who has been trekking for over 20 years, plays an important role in her preparation. “Every night, we would go walking as a family. We did exercises together. My father trains me and teaches the essentials of trekking,” she says. Her mother’s contribution is equally significant. “When I was small, my mother took me to yoga classes for my health and fitness. I’ve been doing yoga since I was five,” says Samya, who believes her yoga training has greatly enhanced her flexibility, breathing, and mental focus.
Looking ahead, Samya looks to complete the highest peaks on each continent. She is also currently training for the following big adventure: the Aconcagua trek in Argentina, the highest peak in South America. Alongside trekking, she has also developed a passion for weightlifting and dreams of competing in the Olympics one day.
24. What happened to Samya at the age of six
A. She started her first trekking. B. She began her yoga training.
C. She completed the EBC trek. D. She finished the Chadar Trek.
25. What did Samya mean in the fourth paragraph
A. Trekking needs detailed preparations. B. She appreciates her parents’ support
C. Her parents are strict with her training. D. Trekking is a tough experience for her.
26. What’s the following goal of Samya
A. Trek on each continent with her parents. B. Compete in the Olympics.
C Train for the weightlifting competition. D. Conquer the Aconcagua trek.
27. What’s the best title of the text
A. A Successful Attempt to Climb A Peak B. A Girl Conquering Peaks Successfully
C. An Accident Leading A Girl to Success D. A Climber Meeting Impossible Challenges
C
Whether you’ll be breaking ground on your first vegetable garden or you’re thinking of expanding an existing plot (小块土地), you have choices to make. The first decision concerns just how you’ll set up your garden.
Planting vegetables in an in-ground garden, often called a row garden, is a traditional way. The biggest benefit of this technique is that there is little initial cost. Plus, an in-ground garden typically needs to be watered less frequently than raised beds. However, this type of plot is generally more work to maintain. That’s because plants growing at ground level are more accessible to insects, pests or larger animals. Also, the row-garden soil is slower to warm up in spring and more subject to late frosts, meaning the season isn’t quite as long.
I became a raised bed gardener about 20 years ago. I’ve found raised beds to be far less work than my previous in-ground gardens. There are fewer weeds and the beds warm up early in spring, allowing for extra-early planting. Plus, raised beds allow me to plant intensively and maximize my square footage. There was the initial investment of materials and time needed to build and fill the beds.
Hugelkultur gardening is a traditional technique that embraces no-dig methods. This is a great way to grow vegetables as well as fruits like strawberries and blueberries. The bed itself is a pile of organic materials like branches and leaves and is covered with soil. It takes years for the bed to break down, and it creates a nutrient-rich environment for plants. It also holds water very well and requires no irrigation (灌溉) once established. Before building a hugelkultur garden, you’ll need to gather your materials and clear the area of weeds and stones.
Perhaps the easiest way to get started in food gardening is to use pots, planters, window boxes and other types of containers. You can even upcycle items like buckets. The advantage of container gardening is that it turns any sunny space into a place to grow food. On the downside, there is an initial cost of containers. Plus pots dry out quicker than garden beds in the hot summer sun. You’ll need to pay very close attention to watering. It’s also important to fertilize (施肥) potted vegetables regularly.
28. Why does an in-ground garden need regular care
A. It suffers animal attack easily. B. It has a long planting season.
C. It is high in cost at the beginning. D. It is slow to warm up in winter.
29. What can we learn about the author
A. He spends a lot of money in gardening. B. He is a green hand in planting.
C. He is tired of eating vegetables. D. He has rich gardening experience.
30. What’s the advantage of a hugelkultur garden
A. High production is predictable B. Plants can grow in a nutritious environment.
C. The weed removing can be avoided. D. A warm environment is created for plants.
31. What’s important for a container garden
A. Using different containers. B. Drying the containers in time.
C. Providing enough water and nutrients. D. Covering the containers with blankets.
D
Last September, the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) took legal action against the company behind an AI writing tool and content producer called Rytr. The FTC accused Rytr of offering a service that could pollute the marketplace with fake (假的) reviews. The FTC, which banned the sale or purchase of fake reviews in 2024, said some of Rytr’s buyers used the tool to produce hundreds and perhaps thousands of reviews.
The Transparency Company is a technology company and public protection group that uses software to discover fake reviews. For a recently released report, the company examined 73 million reviews in three areas: home, legal and medical services. Nearly 14 percent of the reviews were likely fake. The company expressed a “high degree of confidence” that 2.3 million reviews were partly or entirely AI-produced.
False, or fake, reviews have long appeared on many popular websites across a wide range of industries, from e-commerce and travel to services such as home repairs, medical care and music lessons. Though some companies are giving users some ability to use AI, they already use special programs and investigative teams to find and eliminate fake reviews. The Coalition for Trusted Reviews, which Amazon, Trustpilot, Glassdoor, Tripadvisor, Expedia and launched last year, said that even though people may put AI to illegal use, the technology also presents “an opportunity to push back against those who seek to use reviews to mislead others”.
The FTC’s rule banning fake reviews, which took effect in October, permits the agency to fine businesses and individuals who take part in fake reviews. Tech companies hosting such reviews are protected from the punishment. This is because they are not legally responsible under U.S. law for the content that outsiders post on their websites.
“Their efforts so far are not nearly enough,” said Kay Dean, a former federal criminal investigator who runs a public protection group called Fake Review Watch. “If these tech companies are so committed to removing review on their platforms, why is it that I, one individual who works with no automation, can find hundreds or even thousands of fake reviews on any given day ”
32. What was Rytr charged with
A. Offering illegal writing tools. B. Letting out online users’ privacy.
C. Allowing users to produce fake contents. D. Misleading its users to buy fake products.
33. What did the recent report by the Transparency Company show
A. Online reviews cover many aspects. B. Most online reviews are fake or false.
C. Al is powerful to identify fake information. D. Many online reviews are likely produced by AI.
34. Which of the following can refer to the underlined word “eliminate” nin Para. 3
A. Add. B. Defend. C. Remove. D. Ignore.
35. What does Kay Dean think of the efforts by technology companies
A. A bit surprising. B. Far from satisfying.
C. Extremely helpful. D. Much too useless.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You might want to improve your personality if you just moved to a new school, got a new job, or simply because you want to be your best version of yourself. You can develop a good personality with the tips below!
Read something every day. ____36____ Keep up with the current news by reading a few articles on your phone. Or open a novel and read a chapter or two. This will help stimulate your mind and give you things to discuss with others.
____37____ From your readings, begin to form your own opinions about the current events of today. You might find that others will be debating the issue around you soon. So you’ll want to have something to contribute. Make sure you tell your points with grace and logic.
Practice a fun hobby. The most fun and enjoyable people aren’t the ones locked up at home watching Netflix all day! ____38____ Finding something that you enjoy can help connect you to others while also arousing your interest. For instance you might try horseback riding, swimming, or joining a fitness class. New addictions can help test the limits of your comfort zone and help you to grow. ____39____
Do something just for you daily. The people with the best personalities are usually those who are the happiest. ____40____ You might choose to play basketball, get some ice cream, watch a movie, or go to dinner with a friend. When you’re feeling crabby (易怒的) throughout your day, improve your mood by watching a funny video or searching for funny pictures.
A. Mind your opinion.
B. Develop your views.
C. So make sure to try out new hobbies as well.
D. Make yourself happy by doing something fun for you.
E. Spend time each week connecting with those closest to you.
F. Instead, they’re out and into doing fun and productive things.
G. A part of improving your personality is expanding your knowledge.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Yesterday a longtime friend we hadn’t seen for many years visited us. She recently lost her husband of over 40 years old. Feeling painful about the ____41____, she usually locked herself in her house. ____42____ she grew up in a beachfront community not far from us, we ____43____ to invite her to visit it. Several days later, we ____44____ her call, asking us to take a drive there. She was ____45____ to see the house where she was brought up.
After we arrived at the ____46____, we took some pictures. She decided to ring the bell and see if anyone might be at home. Mixed ____47____ were seen from her face. A smile crossed her face, maybe because she was ____48____ her childhood or she was thinking about her family. She looked uneasy, maybe because she was ____49____ she would be refused to enter the house.
____50____, the owner was indeed there, a truly lovely woman who had ____51____ the home from my friend’s parents in cash almost 50 years ago. She was so ____52____ as to invite my friend in and showed her around the house. They seemed to talk there and when they came out my friend introduced us to her. She was so warm and it was like having a ____53____ with an old friend. And as we were ____54____, she told me to drop by again. Beyond our expectation, the experience started a friendship between them and led my friend to ____55____ from her great sorrow.
41. A. future B. attack C. event D. threat
42. A. Now that B. In case C. On condition that D. Even though
43. A. agreed B. preferred C. attempted D. failed
44. A. received B. made C. fixed D. updated
45. A. upset B. embarrassed C. confident D. eager
46. A. reserve B. location C. gallery D. stream
47. A. plans B. emotions C. functions D. applications
48. A. breaking away from B. keeping track of C. making fun of D. looking back on
49. A. disappointed B. alarmed C. puzzled D. concerned
50. A. Immediately B. Particularly C. Luckily D. Possibly
51. A. visited B. bought C. borrowed D. observed
52. A. familiar B. careful C. rich D. kind
53. A. look B. chat C. taste D. break
54. A. parting B. talking C. meeting D. adapting
55. A. recover B. suffer C. result D. defend
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Rice noodles play a key role in the daily lives of people in Guangxi Zhuang autonomous region and Southeast Asia. In Guangxi, these noodles are ____56____ important part of meals, enjoyed for breakfast or as quick dinners throughout the day. In Southeast Asia, rice noodles make up daily dining, ____57____ (offer) a number of delicious choices.
Guangxi rice noodles, as well ____58____ Southeast Asian rice noodles, are made from rice as their main ingredient, resulting in a shared foundation despite different production ____59____ (approach). Besides, they can be prepared through boiling, stir-frying, ____60____ blanching (焯) which mainly depends on diverse tastes and personal preferences.
However, they are different in production. Guangxi rice noodles ____61____ (press) first and finally they come in round and flat forms. For example, Nanning’s noodle is made up of wet rice flour. Indonesian dishes such as Sambal Terasi feature shrimp paste and chili, while Thai rice noodles ____62____ (typical) feature lemongrass and kaffir lime leaves.
In ingredients and seasonings (调料), Guangxi rice noodles are served with broken meat, cilantro, snow peas, beans, and flowers. Various seasonings such as chili oil and vinegar are added ____63____ (ensure) good flavors. However, Vietnamese rice noodles include beef slices, bean sprouts, cilantro, and a clear flavorful broth.
What’s more, rooted in the local and regional culture, Guilin rice noodles stand for the area’s unique traditions, featuring a ____64____ (strike) taste of vinegar and pepper. _____65_____ (inspire) by Chinese and Indian cuisines, Thai rice noodles offer a unique local flavor.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华,为了迎接即将到来的学校篮球赛,你想邀请Mike本周日下午去体育馆和篮球队一起练习,现在请你写封邮件邀请他。内容包括:
1. 写信目的;
2. 相关事项(练习时间、地点、目的)。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Mike,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I loved being a teacher, but for years I had worked as a librarian. However, the timing was never right for me to go back to school. Finally, the time came and I received my media specialist degree. But my biggest challenge was yet to come. I wanted to find a job as a media specialist in a nearby elementary school, but those positions were hard to get.
The new school year started. As the months passed from August to December without any job prospects, my optimism and faith began to fail. To stay positive, I listened repeatedly to several uplifting songs in the car on my commute to my son’s school and my job. In the beginning of January that school year, I saw a job posted online for a media specialist position, but it was on the opposite side of town from where my son was attending school. My mind was filled with questions.
How would I get my son to school if my job was on the other side of town and I had to work an hour earlier than his school started Should I still apply I knew I had to have faith, so I applied for the job, but I didn’t hear anything for weeks. I played my uplifting music so much that my son, who knew the words, would sing along. I tried to stay positive.
Yet, by the end of January, I started to doubt myself. After cooking dinner, I decided to take a shower, grade a few papers, and go to bed. I felt defeated and wanted to give up believing. Nevertheless, while I was in the shower, I wondered if I would find a job as a media specialist. I got out of the shower and as I dried off, I looked at the mirror and saw a symbol on the glass. It looked like a word which a finger had drawn on the mirror.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
I stared at the symbol for a few seconds, trying to find out what it looked like.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The call was from the school to which I had applied, requesting an interview.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
江西省多校联考2024-2025学年高一下学期3月月考
英语试卷 参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18 C. 9.15.
答案是C。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】A
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. A 11. B 12. C
【13~16题答案】
【答案】13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B
【17~20题答案】
【答案】17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. A 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. A 25. B 26. D 27. B
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. A 29. D 30. B 31. C
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32 C 33. D 34. C 35. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. G 37. B 38. F 39. C 40. D
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. C 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. A
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. an 57. offering
58. as 59. approaches
60. or 61. are pressed
62. typically
63. to ensure
64. striking
65. Inspired
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【66题答案】
【答案】Dear Mike,
With the school basketball match approaching, I’m writing to invite you to practice playing basketball with me.
As we know, the match is a golden chance to show our skills and represent our class. To ensure we perform at our best and win the match, I think it’s a good idea to practice before the big day. If it’s convenient to you, can we meet in the gym this Sunday afternoon I believe with your participation in the practice, our team will enhance cooperation and increase the chance of winning the game.
If you have any other ideas, feel free to tell me. Looking forward to your early reply!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【67题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
I stared at the symbol for a few seconds, trying to find out what it looked like. Then I ran into my bedroom, grabbed a pencil and a piece of paper and drew them out before it disappeared. Looking at it carefully, I suddenly found out that the exact symbol seemed like the word “Faith”. In an instant it seemed as if a heavy load had been lifted from my shoulders. Smiling at the word, I made a decision to restore my confidence. Unexpected, I received a call several days later.
The call was from the school to which I had applied, requesting an interview. With faith in myself, I managed to calm myself and make careful preparations for the interview. As it turned out, not only did I perform well in the interview but also I got the media specialist position I had dreamed of. From the experience, I woke up to the fact that whatever happened to me, I would never lose heart. It was having confidence in myself that ensured I achieved final success.

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