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七年级英语期中提分卷（安徽专用，人教版2024 Units 1~4）-2024-2025学年下学期期中考试
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
注意事项：
1.全卷满分120分。考试时间为120分钟。试题包含选择题和非选择题。考生答题全部答在答题卡上, 答在本试卷上无效。
2.请认真核对监考教师在答题卡上所粘贴条形码的姓名、考试证号是否与本人相符合,再将自己的姓名、考试证号用0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡及本试卷上。
3.答选择题必须用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案。答非选择题必须用0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡的指定位置,在其他位置答题一律无效。
第一部分 听力（共四大题, 满分20分）
I. 短对话理解（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到五段对话.每段对话后有一个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项
1．When does Jim have to clean his room
A． B． C．
2．What subject did Tom do well in yesterday afternoon
A． B． C．
3．What does the girl say
A．They can’t take photos. B．They can’t make a noise. C．They must keep quiet.
4．Why can’t the girl go to the zoo tomorrow
A．She is ill. B．She must do housework. C．She has to do her homework.
5．Where are the girl and Mr. Smith now
A．In the gym. B．In the classroom. C．In the hall.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到两段对话.每段对话后有几个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、 B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项听对话，回答以下各小题。
6．Who is the girl’s dog from
A．Her uncle. B．Her cousin. C．Her aunt.
7．How old is the dog
A．2 months old. B．3 months old. C．4 months old.
听对话，回答以下各小题。
8．Where is the girl’s uniform
A．On the bed. B．On the desk. C．On the chair.
9．How do they go to the village
A．By bike. B．By school bus. C．On foot.
10．How long do they spend getting there
A．30 minutes. B．40 minutes. C．50 minutes.
III. 短文理解（共5 小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11．What does Han Lei like
A．Playing sports. B．making friends. C．Singing.
12．How long does Han Lei play sports with his friends after school
A．15 minutes. B．30 minutes. C．60 minutes.
13．When does Han Lei get home
A．At 4:45 P.Μ. B．At 5:15 P.M. C．At 5:45 P.M.
14．Who does Han Lei have dinner with
A．His parents. B．His grandma. C．His grandpa.
15．Is Han Lei a good boy
A．Yes, he is. B．No, he isn’t. C．We don’t know.
IV. 信息转换（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空填一词。短文读两遍。
My name is Bob. There are 16 people in my family— my father, my mother, and I.
My father likes vegetables and milk. My mother likes fruit and 17 . I like hamburgers.
We 18 like sports. My father’s favorite sport is soccer. He plays it every afternoon. Volleyball is my mother’s favorite sport. She plays it on 19 . I like tennis 20 . I often watch tennis games on TV.
第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题, 满分35分）
V. 单项填空（共 10 小题;每小题 1分, 满分 10分）
从每小题所给的A、 B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项.
21．Which word has the same sound as “nose”
A．dog B．some C．pot D．go
22．根据字典的指示词，“north”一词应该出现在字典的哪一页码范围内？
Pages Guide Words Pages Guide Words
45-46 get give 91-92 name need
99-100 note now 105-106 part pet
A．Pages 45-46 B．Pages 95-96 C．Pages 99-100 D．Pages 105-106
23．—What time is it now
—It’s ________ 12: 00. Let’s go to have lunch.
A．only B．already C．always D．really
24．My math teacher is kind and helpful. He always helps me ________ the difficult problems.
A．work out B．blow out C．act out D．get out
25．It’s easy for me to get up early ________ I always go to bed early.
A．and B．but C．because D．so
26．My parents are busy with their work, but they always get home before it’s ________ outside.
A．black B．dark C．late D．early
27．—Can Hellen paint this picture well
—Sure. She has a great ________ to draw.
A．hand B．feeling C．activity D．ability
28．—________ yogurt do you want
—Two bottles, please.
A．How long B．How old C．How many D．How much
29．We often get a useful ________ from our mistakes in our daily life.
A．problem B．lesson C．reason D．help
30．—Thank you for helping me.
—________
A．You are right! B．Good idea! C．You are welcome! D．Have fun!
VI. 完形填空（共10小题; 每小题2分, 满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
On the morning of every Tuesday, two of my kids get ready for school. They 31 carry a large bag with some clothes, a pair of shoes, lots of food and water, so there aren’t 32 books in it.
Then I take them to a nearby park in my car. This is where they are going to spend the day and 33 . Right, my boys go to a forest school once a week. It is from 8:30 a. m to 3:30 p. m. A group of kids study the forests, lakes and animals in 34 together.
I love the idea of the forest school, but I am still 35 about a few things at first. Would the teachers let the kids play freely Would my kids be safe outside Would they enjoy themselves
The fact is that my boys get used to the school life 36 . Most of the time, they plan their own play, make fires, 37 tall trees for fruit, and do many other interesting things. The teachers never tell them that their play is too high, too fast or too dangerous. They only follow the kids and 38 when something goes wrong.
When I pick the boys up at the end of the afternoon, their clothes and shoes look so dirty but on their faces. I can see that they are lively, happy and never want to 39 . In the forest school, they learn how to take care of themselves and get along well with nature. I think that is 40 . What’s your idea Please tell us.
31．A．all B．every C．each D．whole
32．A．some B．any C．many D．much
33．A．go camping B．do sports C．play games D．have lessons
34．A．spring B．nature C．classroom D．space
35．A．angry B．worried C．careful D．glad
36．A．usually B．luckily C．quickly D．slowly
37．A．climb B．plant C．grow D．see
38．A．wait B．laugh C．shout D．help
39．A．leave B．come C．stay D．go
40．A．important B．happy C．interesting D．amazing
VII. 补全对话（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Where do you want to go this Saturday, Linda
B: I want to go to the zoo after finishing my homework. 41
A: Sure! We can go there on Saturday afternoon.
B: OK. 42
A: Pandas. Because they’ re cute and interesting.
B: Oh, there are two pandas in the zoo. 43
A: OK. What animals do you like
B: Giraffes.
A: Really 44
B: Because they’re very beautiful. And they are friendly, too.
A: 45
B: Africa.
A．We can go to see them first.
B．What do you think of them
C．Where are the giraffes from
D．Why do you like them
E．Do you want to go there with me
F．Let’s go to the zoo.
G．What animals do you want to see, Tim
第三部分阅读（共两节, 满分40分）
VIII. 阅读理解（共20 小题; 每小题2分, 满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、 D四个选项中选出最佳选项.
A
Welcome to Ridgeway Academy ClubChildren can do sports, play fun games, make friends and learn new skills (技能) Time: 5 p.m.~7:30 p.m. (Monday～Friday) 3 p.m.~6 p.m. (Weekend) Address (地址): King Road, BIO Price: $30 a child (age from 8~14) /week If you want to know more, call 358-6344 or email info@.
46．When can children go to the club
A．At 6 p.m. on Tuesday. B．At 4 p.m. on Wednesday.
C．At 8 p.m. on Friday. D．At 6:30 p.m. on Saturday.
47．Who can join the club
A．6-year-old Alice. B．7-year-old Millie.
C．14-year-old Lucy. D．15-year-old Tina.
48．Mr Miller wants his children Tim and Simon to join the club. How much does he need to pay (支付) for the first three weeks
A．$30. B．$60. C．$180. D．$240.
B
The Macintosh family is in England. Mr Macintosh is a farmer. He has three people help him on the farm. They help him look after the animals. Mrs Macintosh is a teacher. She teaches maths. She can play the piano and the guitar.
Mr and Mrs Macintosh have one son and one daughter (女儿). Their son’s name is Tom and their daughter’s name is Fiona. Tom and Fiona like music very much. Tom can play the guitar and his sister, Fiona, the family plays and sings together after dinner in the evening. That is Mr Macintosh’s favourite family activity.
49．What subject does Mrs Macintosh teach
A．Maths. B．PE. C．Music. D．English.
50．When do Tom and Fiona go to the school music club
A．Every Monday. B．Every Wednesday.
C．Every Thursday. D．Every Sunday.
51．What does the underlined word “That” in the last paragraph refer to (指的是)
A．Playing the piano in the school.
B．Going to the school music club.
C．Playing the guitar.
D．Playing and singing together.
52．What can we know from the text
A．Tom has a family of four.
B．Mr Macintosh can’t sing well.
C．Mrs Macintosh can play the violin.
D．Fiona doesn’t like going to the music club.
C
Five years ago, my mother, gave birth to a brother for me when I was 8. I have learned a lot from getting along with him.
After he was born, I almost became a babysitter (保姆). When he was crying, I would carry him everywhere around the house and make faces and sing songs to amuse him. What I liked to do best was to feed him when looking after him. How cute he was when he tasted his favorite food!
I have got happiness from sharing. Before my brother was born, I was the only child in my family. I could get what I wanted from my parents and get my parents’ whole love. But now, every time I get something good, I will share it with him. I remembered the year when he was three, he was interested in Rubik’s Cubes (魔方). I bought one for him with my lucky money as a birthday gift. When he got the toy, he was so happy that he laughed, hugged me and said, “Brother, I love you!”
Spending these years together with my family has taught me what responsibility (责任) means, what unselfishness (无私) means and what friendship means.
53．What does the underlined word “amuse” in the second paragraph (段落) mean
A．照顾 B．陪伴 C．逗乐 D．治愈
54．Which of the following didn’t the writer do when he looked after his younger brother
A．Carrying him everywhere. B．Feeding him his favorite food.
C．Telling funny stories to him. D．Making faces and singing to him.
55．How old was the writer when he bought a Rubik’s Cube for his younger brother
A．3. B．8. C．11. D．13.
56．What can we learn about the writer according to the text
A．The writer always shares good things with his brother.
B．The writer buys a birthday gift for his brother every year.
C．The writer used his brother’s lucky money to buy the gift.
D．The writer didn’t have a good relationship with his brother.
D
Some boys and girls don’t like English. They think it’s difficult. But in fact, it isn’t so difficult to learn English well. Here is what you can do.
Listen carefully in class. The English teacher knows so much. When you listen carefully, you can know much, too. So be a careful student in class and listen carefully.
Ask your classmates for help. Your English teacher isn’t always with you. When you find an English problem, please ask your classmates after class. A good classmate is a good friend. He or she must be happy to help you.
Practise it every day. Do you want to be good at English It takes time. You can’t learn it well in a day. So practise it every day and then you’ll find it so easy. English is a useful subject. Let’s do our best to learn it well.
57．What does the writer think of English
A．Difficult. B．Easy. C．Useful. D．Fun.
58．What can’t you do to learn English well
A．Be careful and listen carefully in class. B．Ask your classmates for help.
C．Practise English every day D．Play much with friends after class.
59．What’s the main idea of the passage
A．English is a useful subject. B．Why some students don’t like English.
C．How we can learn English well. D．Why we need to learn English well.
60．Who is the passage for
A．Students. B．Parents. C．Friends. D．Teachers.
第二节 阅读下面短文, 并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）.
Today, I got to celebrate New Year’s Eve in China. It is so different from what I’m used to! The Streets were full of red decorations, which I learned are a sign of good luck for the new year. I also saw a dragon dance for the first time. It was amazing to see the long, colourful dragon moving through the streets. My Chinese friends also took me to a cinema. We watched a new year movie together. It was fun and touching.
In the evening, we had a big dinner with lots of different food. We ate niangao and many other interesting food. It is a time for families and friends to get together and celebrate.
When midnight came, young people went to the street, singing and dancing to the music. Hundreds of colourful balloons were released. It was a beautiful way to welcome the new year.
I’m so glad I got to experience all these wonderful activities. It made me appreciate (欣赏) how special New Year celebrations can be. The best news has come, Chinese Spring Festival was successfully inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list on Dec. 4, 2024. Congratulations to Chinese People!
61．What do the red decorations represent (代表) in China’s New Year celebration (不超过2个词)
62．What did the writer eat in the New Year dinner (不超过6个词)
63．What did young people do when midnight came (不超过11个词)
64．What did the writer think of New Year celebration activities in China (不超过2个词)
65．When was Spring Festival successfully inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list (不超过4个词)
第四部分 写（共两大题, 满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示, 完成下列单词的拼写, 使句意明确, 语言通顺.
66．Make sure you have the c (正确的) address (地址) before you send the package (包裹).
67．I live in a small t (小镇) and it’s quiet and beautiful.
68．We often play c (象棋) in the park on weekends.
69．Don’t t (触摸) the hot stove or you might get burned (烧伤).
70．He tripped and f (跌落) down the stairs yesterday.
X. 书面表达（共1小题; 满分20分）
71．你所在的班级将举办英语演讲比赛，请根据思维导图，以“How to Be Happy”为主题，写一篇60词左右的演讲稿。开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
要求：1.短文应条理清楚、行文连贯、段落分明；
2.短文中不能出现真实的姓名、学校、地名等信息；
3.短文应包括全部信息，可围绕主题适当发挥。
Good morning, everybody!
Today I want to talk about “How to Be Happy”. The following are my suggestions.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s what I want to share with you. Thank you.
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《七年级英语期中提分卷（安徽专用，人教版2024 Units 1~4）-2024-2025学年下学期期中考试》参考答案
1．C
【原文】W: Do your parents make many rules for you, Jim
M: Yes. I can’t watch TV on Fridays. I must clean my room on Saturday.
2．A
【原文】M: Yesterday afternoon, Tom did well in the math exam.
W: He must be very happy about it.
3．A
【原文】M: Look at these old things. Let’s take photos.
W: Sorry, we can’t take photos here.
4．C
【原文】M: Hi, Kate. Helen and I want to go to the zoo tomorrow. Would you like to come
W: Well, Peter. I’m afraid I can’t. I have some homework to do.
5．B
【原文】M: Don’t fight in the classroom, Lily. Please follow the school rules.
W: Sorry, Mr. Smith.
6．C 7．B
【原文】M: Is this dog your new pet, Emma
W: Yes, it is my birthday gift from my aunt.
M: It is so small.
W: Yes, it is only 3 months old.
M: It is really cute. Can I play with it
W: Of course.
8．C 9．B 10．A
【原文】W: Dad, where is my school uniform It isn’t on my bed.
M: It’s on the chair. Do you need to wear it now
W: Yes. We’ll have a school trip to the village. We must wear the uniform.
M: Well, will you go to the village by bike
W: No. We’ll take the school bus there.
M: How long does it take to get there
W: It takes us thirty minutes to get there.
M: OK. Have a good time.
11．C 12．B 13．B 14．A 15．A
【原文】
Han Lei is my best friend. He likes singing. He is good at making friends. Every day, he gets up at six. He often plays sports for half an hour with his friends after school. He gets home at a quarter past five in the afternoon. He has dinner with his parents. In the evening, he does his homework and watches TV. He goes to bed at about nine o’clock. He’s a good boy. Do you want to be his friend
16．three/3 17．eggs 18．all 19．weekends 20．best
【原文】
My name is bob. There are three people in my family, my father, my mother and I. My father likes vegetables and milk. My mother likes fruit and eggs. I like hamburgers. We all like sports. My father’s favorite sport is soccer. He plays it every afternoon. Volleyball is my mother’s favourite sport. She plays it on weekends. I like tennis best. I often watch tennis games on TV.
21．D
【详解】句意：哪个单词的发音与“nose”相同？
考查元音字母的发音。nose/n z/；dog/d ɡ/；some/s m, s m/；pot/p t/；go/ɡ /。根据音标可知go和nose中的o发音都为/ /。故选D。
22．B
【详解】句意：根据词典上的指示词，“north”一词应该出现在哪一个页码范围内？
考查常识。根据提示词get和give在45到46页，name和need在91到92页，note和now在99到100页，part和pet在105到106页。结合常识可知，英语词典中单词是按英语字母顺序排列的，因此north中的r应在note中t之前，同时o在need中e的后面，因此north应该在95-96页。故选B。
23．B
【详解】句意：——现在几点了？——已经12点了。让我们去吃午饭吧。
考查副词辨析。only仅仅；already已经；always总是；really真正地。根据“It’s…12: 00. Let’s go to have lunch.”可知，此处指“已经12点了”，already符合题意。故选B。
24．A
【详解】句意：我的数学老师是善良和乐于助人的，他总是帮我解决难题。
考查动词短语。work out解决；blow out吹灭、熄灭；act out表演；get out出去。根据“He always helps me ... the difficult problems.”可知，是指数学老师帮助解决难题。故选A。
25．C
【详解】句意：对我来说早起很容易，因为我总是早早上床睡觉。
考查连词辨析。and并且；but但是；because因为；so因此。根据“I always go to bed early”可知，空处解释了自己能早起的原因，应该用because引导原因状语从句。故选C。
26．B
【详解】句意：我父母忙于工作，但他们总是在天黑前到家。
考查形容词辨析。black黑色的；dark黑暗的；late晚的；early早的。根据“My parents are busy with their work, but they always get home before it’s … outside.”可知，此处指的是天黑，应用dark，故选B。
27．D
【详解】句意：——海伦能把这幅画画得好吗？——当然。她有很强的绘画能力。
考查名词辨析。hand手；feeling感觉；activity活动；ability能力。根据“Can Hellen paint this picture well ”及“Sure.”可知，海伦能把这幅画画好，说明她很有绘画能力，D项符合。故选D。
28．D
【详解】句意：——你想要多少酸奶？——请来两瓶。
考查特殊疑问句。how long多长时间；how old多大年纪；how many多少；how much多少、多少钱。根据“Two bottles”可知两瓶是酸奶的数量，且yogurt是不可数名词，故用how much询问数量。故选D。
29．B
【详解】句意：我们经常从日常生活中的错误中得到有益的教训。
考查名词辨析。problem问题；lesson教训；reason理由；help帮助。根据“from our mistakes in our daily life”可知，此处指从错误中吸取有益的教训。故选B。
30．C
【详解】句意：——谢谢你帮我。——不客气！
考查情景交际。You are right你说得对；Good idea好主意；You are welcome不客气；Have fun玩得高兴。根据“Thank you for helping me.”可知，此处回应对方的感谢，应说不客气。故选C。
31．C 32．B 33．D 34．B 35．B 36．C 37．A 38．D 39．A 40．A
【原文】本文讲述了作者的两个孩子每周去森林学校上课一天，通过与大自然的接触和实践活动，孩子在玩耍中学习和成长。
31．句意：他们每个人都背着一个大包，里面有一些衣服、一双鞋、很多食物和水，但是里面没有书。
all所有的；every每个；each每个；whole整个的。根据“They ... carry a large bag”可知，两个孩子每人背一个包，every是形容词，不符合语境；此处用代词each作主语They的同位语。故选C。
32．句意：他们每个人都背着一个大包，里面有一些衣服、一双鞋、很多食物和水，但是里面没有书。
some一些，表肯定；any任何，表否定；many很多，修饰可数名词；much大量的，修饰不可数名词。根据“In the forest school, they learn how to take care of themselves and get along well with nature.”和下文森林学校的活动可知，孩子们的书包里没有书，故选B。
33．句意：这里就是他们度过一天和上课的地方。
go camping露营；do sports做运动；play games做游戏；have lessons上课。根据“On the morning of every Tuesday, two of my kids get ready for school.”可知，两个孩子去森林里上课。故选D。
34．句意：一群孩子们在大自然中探索森林、湖泊和动物。
spring春天；nature大自然；classroom教室；space空间。根据“study the forests, lakes and animals”可知，孩子们是在大自然中学习，故选B。
35．句意：我喜欢森林学校的理念，但起初我仍然担心一些事情。
angry生气的；worried担心的；careful小心的；glad高兴的。根据“Would the teachers let the kids play freely Would my kids be safe outside Would they have a good time ”可知，作者一开始对森林学校这种形式是担心的。故选B。
36．句意：事实是我的孩子们很快就习惯了学校生活。
usually通常；luckily幸运地；quickly快速地；slowly缓慢地。根据“Most of the time, they plan their own play”和“The fact is that my boys get used to the school life ”可知，作者的孩子们很快就习惯了森林学校的生活。故选C。
37．句意：大多数时候，他们计划自己的活动、生火、爬高树摘水果，做很多有趣的事情。
climb爬；plant种植；grow生长；see看见。根据“make fires,...tall trees for fruit, and do many other interesting things.”可以推测是爬树摘水果。故选A。
38．句意：当出现问题时，他们才跟随孩子们并提供帮助。
wait等待；laugh笑；shout喊叫；help帮助。根据“when something goes wrong.”可知，教师在出现问题时提供帮助，故选D。
39．句意：我可以看到他们是活泼的，快乐的，而且永远不想离开。
leave离开；come来；stay停留；go去。根据“they are lively, happy”可知，孩子们在森林里上课很开心，推测他们不想离开。故选A。
40．句意：我认为那很重要。
important重要的；happy开心的；interesting有趣的；amazing神奇的。根据“In the forest school, they learn how to take care of themselves and get along well with nature.”可知，作者认为孩子们在森林学校学到的东西很重要。故选A。
41．E 42．G 43．A 44．D 45．C
【导语】本对话围绕琳达和蒂姆周末去动物园的计划展开。他们讨论了各自喜欢的动物，并分享了对熊猫和长颈鹿的看法。
41．根据“I want to go to the zoo after finishing my homework.”可知，琳达想去动物园，A回答“Sure!”表示同意，因此问句应该是邀请A一起去。选项E“你想和我一起去吗？”符合语境，故选E。
42．根据“A: Pandas. Because they’re cute and interesting.”可知，A在回答自己喜欢的动物，因此上文应该是询问A想看什么动物。选项G“蒂姆，你想看什么动物？”符合，故选G。
43．根据“Oh, there are two pandas in the zoo.”可知，B提到动物园里有两只熊猫，并且A下一句表示“OK”，因此此处应表示可以先去看熊猫。选项A“我们可以先去看它们。”符合，故选A。
44．根据“Because they’re very beautiful. And they are friendly, too.”可知，B在解释喜欢长颈鹿的原因，因此上句应是询问原因。选项D“你为什么喜欢它们？”符合，故选D。
45．根据“Africa.”可知，B在回答长颈鹿的来源，因此上句应是询问长颈鹿来自哪里。选项C“长颈鹿来自哪里？”符合，故选C。
46．A 47．C 48．C
【导语】本文是一则广告，主要介绍了为儿童提供运动、游戏、交友和学习新技能的活动的Ridgeway Academy 俱乐部的信息。
46．细节理解题。根据“Time: 5 p.m.~7:30 p.m. (Monday～Friday) 3 p.m.~6 p.m. (Weekend)”可知，孩子们去俱乐部的时间是周一到周五每天下午五点到七点半，以及周末的三点到六点。故选A。
47．细节理解题。根据“age from 8～14”可知，八岁到十四岁的儿童可以参加该俱乐部。故选C。
48．细节理解题。根据“$30 a child (age from 8～14) /week”可知，每个孩子每周30美元，故两个孩子三周要交180美元。故选C。
49．A 50．B 51．D 52．A
【导语】本文介绍了麦金托什先生一家四口的基本信息和幸福的农场生活。
49．细节理解题。根据“Mrs Macintosh is a teacher. She teaches maths.”可知，麦金托什夫人教数学。故选A。
50．细节理解题。根据“Tom and Fiona go to the school music club every Wednesday.”可知，汤姆和菲奥娜每个星期三都去学校音乐俱乐部。故选B。
51．词义猜测题。根据“Sometimes, the family plays and sings together after dinner in the evening. That is Mr Macintosh’s favourite family activity.”可知，that指的是全家一起玩耍和唱歌。故选D。
52．细节理解题。根据“Mr and Mrs Macintosh have one son and one daughter.”可知，Tom一家有四口人。故选A。
53．C 54．C 55．D 56．A
【导语】本文介绍了作者在弟弟出生后，积极照顾他并分享快乐，同时也从中学到了责任、无私与友谊的意义。
53．词句猜测题。根据“When he was crying, I would carry him everywhere around the house and make faces and sing songs to amuse him.”可知，当他哭的时候，我会抱着他满屋子转，做鬼脸和唱歌来让他开心。因此，amuse在此处的意思是“逗乐”。故选C。
54．细节理解题。根据“When he was crying, I would carry him everywhere around the house and make faces and sing songs to amuse him. What I liked to do best was to feed him when looking after him.”可知，作者在照顾弟弟时，会抱着他满屋子转，做鬼脸和唱歌，以及最喜欢做的事是喂他。但原文并未提及作者给弟弟讲有趣的故事。故选C。
55．推理判断题。根据“Before my brother was born, I was the only child in my family.…I remembered the year when he was three, he was interested in Rubik’s Cubes. I bought one for him with my lucky money as a birthday gift.”可知，在弟弟出生前，作者是独生子，作者记得弟弟三岁那年对魔方感兴趣，作者用压岁钱给他买了一个作为生日礼物。由此可以推断出，当弟弟三岁时，作者应该是8岁加上3年，即11岁再加上2年，所以作者给弟弟买魔方时应该是13岁。故选D。
56．细节理解题。根据“But now, every time I get something good, I will share it with him.”可知，现在每次作者得到好东西时，都会和弟弟分享。故选A。
57．C 58．D 59．C 60．A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了学好英语的方法。
57．细节理解题。根据最后一段“English is a useful subject.”可知，作者认为英语是有用的。故选C。
58．细节理解题。根据“Listen carefully in class.”、“Ask your classmates for help.”和“Practise it every day.”可知，认真听讲、向同学求助、每天练习，均为有效学习英语的方法，没有提到“放学后和朋友玩的多”这一方式。故选D。
59．主旨大意题。结合文中内容，尤其是“But in fact, it isn’t so difficult to learn English well. Here is what you can do…”可知，文章主要介绍如何学好英语。故选C。
60．推理判断题。由文章开头的“Some boys and girls don’t like English...Here is what you can do”可推知，文章是写给学生的。故选A。
61．Good luck. 62．Niangao and many other interesting food. 63．They went to the street, singing and dancing to the music. 64．Special. 65．On Dec. 4, 2024.
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了作者在中国庆祝除夕的经历。
61．根据“The Streets were full of red decorations, which I learned are a sign of good luck for the new year.”可知，在中国红色装饰代表好运。故填Good luck.
62．根据“In the evening, we had a big dinner with lots of different food. We ate niangao and many other interesting food.”可知，作者吃了年糕和很多其他食物。故填Niangao and many other interesting food.
63．根据“When midnight came, young people went to the street, singing and dancing to the music.”可知，当午夜到来时，年轻人走上街头，随着音乐又唱又跳。故填They went to the street, singing and dancing to the music.
64．根据“It made me appreciate how special New Year celebrations can be.”可知，作者认为春节的庆祝方式很特别。故填Special.
65．根据“Chinese Spring Festival was successfully inscribed on the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list on Dec. 4, 2024.”可知，中国的春节于2024年12月4日成功被列入联合国教科文组织非物质文化遗产名录。故填On Dec. 4, 2024.
66．(c)orrect
【详解】句意：在你发送包裹之前，确保你有正确的地址。“正确的”用correct，形容词，作定语，修饰名词address。故填(c)orrect。
67．(t)own
【详解】句意：我住在一个小镇上，这里安静而美丽。“小镇”用town，可数名词，位于a后，用单数名词作宾语。故填(t)own。
68．(c)hess
【详解】句意：周末，我们经常在公园里下象棋。“象棋”用chess，不可数名词，作宾语。play chess“下象棋”。故填(c)hess。
69．(t)ouch
【详解】句意：不要触摸热炉子，否则你可能会被烧伤。此句为祈使句的否定形式，空处位于Don’t后，填动词原形；touch“触摸”，动词。故填(t)ouch。
70．(f)ell
【详解】句意：他昨天绊倒并从楼梯上跌落下来。根据“yesterday”可知，此句时态为一般过去时。空处与tripped为并列谓语，填动词过去式。“跌落”用fall，动词，过去式为fell。故填(f)ell。
71．例文
Good morning, everybody!
Today I want to talk about “How to Be Happy”. The following are my suggestions.
First of all, it’s important to keep healthy. Without good health, we will have nothing. So we should form good life habits, eat good food and try our best to take exercise every day. Next, we should have some hobbies. When we have hobbies, we can spend our free time doing things we like. And our life will be busy but meaningful. Finally, I think happiness springs from helping others. When we help those in trouble, we must know what we can do and who we can help. I believe that if we do so, we can have a happy life.
That’s what I want to share with you. Thank you!
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇演讲稿；
②时态：时态为“一般现在时”；
③提示：根据思维导图进行写作，可适当发挥，注意条理清楚，表述完整。
[写作步骤]
第一步，引出主题，表达给出自己的建议；
第二步，根据思维导图具体介绍快乐的方法；
第三步，书写结语，表达感谢。
[亮点词汇]
①form good life habits养成良好的生活习惯
②in trouble处于困境中
③try one’s best to do sth尽某人最大努力做某事
[高分句型]
①When we have hobbies, we can spend our free time doing things we like. (when引导时间状语从句)
②I believe that if we do so, we can have a happy life. (that引导宾语从句；if引导条件状语从句)
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