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2024-2025学年第二学期分宜县初中学校联考九年级英语测试卷
一、听力理解（本大题共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，共 20 分）
A) 请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有 10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What does the boy want to be in the future 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. A scientist. B. An engineer. C. An astronaut.
2. How often does Bella clean her room 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
3. Where does the conversation probably take place 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. In a bookstore. B. In a restaurant. C. In a hospital.
4. Who likes pop music 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Sarah. B. Julia. C. Jason.
5. What does the girl mean 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Good friends should help each other.
B. Good friends can like different things.
C. Good friends seldom get angry with each other.
B）请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听对话，回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. Which animal does Sam like best
A. The monkey. B. The panda. C. The tiger.
7 How will they get to the zoo
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By subway.
请听对话，回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. How old is George’s mom
A. 38 years old. B. 40 years old. C. 42 years old.
9. What gift does Sally plan to give to her aunt
A. A dress. B. A handbag. C. A cake.
请听对话，回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
10. What did Kelly do last night
A. She read a book. B. She wrote her homework. C. She watched a game.
11. Why did the boy feel excited
A. Because his school won at last.
B. Because he was praised by his teacher.
C Because he was chosen to be a player.
12. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A basketball player. B. A basketball game. C. A basketball coach.
请听对话，回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
13. What’s the possible relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Mother and son. C. Classmates.
14. What does Emma think of being an animal doctor
A. Boring but helpful. B. Exciting but dangerous. C. Helpful and interesting.
15. What can we get from the conversation
A. Barry’s uncle is a pilot.
B. Emma wants to be a zookeeper.
C. Barry thinks being a pilot is exciting.
C)
请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过 3 个单词。听独白前你将有 50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
16. The class will visit the Science Museum on ________.
17. The first floor is about ________ in ancient times.
18. The third floor is about the ________.
19. Students could ask the ________ for help.
20. Students should hand in their report on ________.
二、单项填空（本大题共 8 小题，每小题 1 分，共 8 分）
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. —What’s the ________ of your success
—Never give up and believe in yourself.
A. pleasure B. secret C. chance D. problem
22. —What do you think of his speech
—I think it was wonderful enough, but some people think it was so ________.
A. boring B. interesting C. fantastic D. exciting
23. —I have to be off right now.
—What a pity! I ________ you could stay a little longer with us.
A. thought B. am thinking C. think D. was thinking
24. Let’s take some photos after the ceremony. I ________ my new camera.
A. bring B. have brought C. had brought D. was bringing
25. —It’s said that the astronaut Deng Qingming will come to give us a speech next month.
—Yes. We all ________ him and hope to see him soon.
A. spread B. admire C. treat D. hate
26. How lucky we are! We got home a few minutes early. The rain is ________ now.
A. heavier B. heaviest C. lighter D. lightest
27. It’s reported that a new school ________ in our hometown soon.
A. was built B. will build C. will be built D. is built
28. —What is our head teacher like, do you know
—Oh, he is very kind ________ he looks very serious.
A. because B. though C. if D. when
三、完形填空（本大题共 26 小题，每小题 1 分，共 26 分）
Superfoods are foods that are full of nutrients (营养素). They are ___29___ for health . Blueberries, chia seeds (奇亚籽) ___30___ green tea are all superfoods. Some researches show that a eating ___31___ with many superfoods can prevent illness.
Superfoods can be part of ___32___ daily meals. Many people like blueberries for ___33___ in the morning, as they are sweet and tasty. They can be a part of a ___34___ or we can eat them alone. These small round blueberries came from North America, but now they are grown ___35___ in more areas. Blueberries have a lot of vitamins which help the body stay ___36___. The United States is the biggest nation that ___37___ blueberries. It grows 690 million pounds of the fruit every year.
One healthy seed is chia seeds from Mexico. It has a lot of fiber (纤维素), which gives us ___38___ and makes us feel full. You can add chia seeds to cakes. Just one spoon of these seeds have 10％ of our daily protein (蛋白质) needs. Runners eat food full ___39___ chia seeds to help them run for longer. Chia seeds help our blood stay health yand lower the ___40___ of brain illnesses. We can eat these seeds all year round.
There are many ways to enjoy superfoods in drinks. Green tea is a healthy superfood. Chinese people ___41___ about half of the green tea in the world. Studies show green tea is good for your heart. It also helps you remember things and ___42___ stress. Some people don’t like green tea, as they think it doesn’t tastes ___43___. Other people like this taste. Many families drink green tea.
It’s important to eat healthily. We can’t live just on superfoods, but they are good to eat and drink.
29. A. good B. rich C. heavy D. harmful
30. A. after B. though C. and D. but
31. A. time B. place C. habit D. course
32. A. his B. our C. its D. their
33. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner D. supper
34. A. soup B. dish C. service D. custom
35. A. finally B. widely C. really D. exactly
36. A. hungry B. quiet C. healthy D. crazy
37. A. orders B. enjoys C. offers D. grows
38. A. energy B. courage C. life D. peace
39. A. like B. with C. of D. among
40. A. hope B. risk C. plan D. interest
41. A. sell B. buy C. lend D. drink
42. A. leave out B. cut down C. put on D. look for
43. A. cold B. warm C. sweet D. hot
选词填空。
difficult finally courage explain believe great although solve discussion feeling make
Undoubtedly, encouragement and praise from others are needed by everyone. For one thing, it is encouragement that brings us ____44____ to keep struggling. For another, praise is exactly something that makes us ____45____ in ourselves. Therefore, they can ____46____ a huge difference to us.
What happened to me last year definitely（明确地）proved this. There was a math competition held by my math teacher and it required us to work out a（n） ____47____ math problem.
Asked to solve it in a short time, we were divided into different groups. At first, we had a heated（激烈的） ____48____ about it. However, none of us could come up with an idea about how ____49____ it. Suddenly, an idea jumped out of my mind and I ____50____ it to them. Surprisingly, they praised me for my ____51____ idea and encouraged me to keep on working on it, which provided me with strong belief and confidence to use my method to work it out. ____52____, my team won first prize and they cheered for what I did. A strong ____53____ of satisfaction and pride filled my heart.
____54____ one year has passed, it is their warm and powerful words that bring me belief and energy to keep on fighting.
四、阅读理解（本大题共 23 小题，每小题 2 分，共 46 分）
A) 请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Mr. Lin has been in Britain for two days on vacation. Here is his room card with some information about his hotel.
Welcome to Garden Hotel Room Number: 704 *Please give the room card back to the hotel when you checkout. Address: 154 Garden Road, London, UK Tel: +44-20-78362400 Price: $560 (2 nights) Room: l single bed Tips: *Famous Places: City Library, Garden cinema Happy Shopping Mall *Transportation： BusGarden Hotel StopNo.14, No 31UndergroundGarden Hotel StationCity Line
55. How can Mr. Lin get to Garden Hotel
A. By taking Bus No.13. B. By taking the plane. C. By taking Bus No.14. D. By taking the train.
56. If Mr. Lin needs to stay three nights, he might pay ______ in total.
A. $280 B. $560 C. $840 D. $1,120
57. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE
A Smoking is allowed in Garden Hotel.
B. Mr. Lin can take the room card home.
C. Garden Hotel is in the capital of the UK.
D. Parking is not allowed in Garden Hotel.
B
“Without music, life would be a mistake,” famous German philosopher (哲学家) Friendrich Nietzsche said over a century ago. Music is a big part of our lives. But in recent years, some US schools have cut music classes to control budgets (预算).
For example, Chicago public schools hurt arts education when it fired (解雇) over 1,000 teachers. Among them, 10 percent of the teachers taught art or music, according to The Washington Times. In fact, this is not just a problem in the US. In other countries, such as China and the UK, music classes are not thought to be as important as the ones like science, math and history. That’s partly because music is not seen as a very important life skill, and it isn’t tested. Many students are busy with schoolwork, so parents and students choose to focus on subjects that are tested more often.
However, learning music is beneficial (有益的) in many ways. When playing music, you need different abilities to work together. It is not as simple as it looks, according to Kenneth Guilmartin of Music Together, an early childhood music development program. For example, when playing the piano, people see music notes and decode (解码) them in their brains. They also use their fingers to make sounds. You need to deal with all these things at the same time.
Music has a special connection with science as well. You can see that many scientists are good at playing music: Einstein played the violin, and German physicist Max Planck was talented in playing the piano.
58. Some schools in the US cut music class because ________.
A. students weren’t interested B. music was too hard to learn
C. there weren’t enough music teachers D. the school wanted to save money
59. In Paragraph 2, what does the underlined word “them” refer to
A. Public schools. B. Fired teachers.
C. Parents in Chicago. D. Students in Chicago.
60. How many scientists who are good at playing music are mentioned in this passage
A. One. B. Two C. Three. D. Four.
61. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 3
A. Different abilities are needed to work together while we are playing music.
B. Playing the piano needs people to use fingers to make sounds.
C. Decoding music notes is needed while we are playing music.
D. Playing the piano needs people to see music notes.
62. What’s the writer’s opinion according to this passage
A. Music is as simple as it looks.
B. Music classes should be cut in some schools.
C. Music plays a big role in our lives.
D. Music isn’t important for us anymore.
C
So far, China has successfully sent a large number of satellites (卫星) and spaceships into space. Space scientists have been greatly inspired (赋予灵感) by the old stories and ancient famous people when giving them names.
Since thousands of years ago, Chinese people have dreamed of going to the moon. Chang’e Flies to the Moon is one of the most popular stories. As you can see, China’s first man-made satellite to circle around the moon was named Chang’e I. More interestingly, the moon rover (巡视器) was named after the Jade Rabbit, who is the partner of Chang’e in the story. These old stories carry people’s best wishes and dreams. With the development of science and technology, our scientists have made them come true.
Kua Fu Runs After the Sun is another story to show how much ancient Chinese people wanted to know about the unknown world. Now, Kua Fu is going with the scientists to “visit” the sun, because we have a space project called KuaFu Mission.
Besides the ancient stories, space scientists also get ideas from ancient famous people. For example, Mozi, an ancient scientist, discovered that light travels in a straight line over 2, 000 years ago. His discovery made space study take a big step at that time. So, China’s first quantum (量子) science satellite was named Mozi, making China the first country in the world to achieve quantum communication between satellites and the ground.
From such simple things as giving names to the satellites, we can see how great our traditional culture is and what influence it has on our modern science and technology.
63. In China, space scientists get ideas from ________ when naming satellites.
①old stories ②traditional projects
③ancient famous people ④ popular inventions
A. ①② B. ①③ C. ②④ D. ③④
64. What do we know about Chang’e I according to the passage
A. It moves around the moon. B. It protects the Jade Rabbit.
C. It “visits” the sun with the scientists. D. It is the world’s first man-made satellite.
65. How does the writer support his opinion in Paragraph 4
A. By listing numbers. B. By comparing facts.
C. By giving an example. D. By reporting a result.
66. Which is the right structure of the passage
(①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…)
A. B.
C. D.
67. What’s the writer’s main purpose of writing the passage
A. To spread the traditional Chinese culture.
B. To explain how our scientists develop the space industry.
C. To introduce the achievements in our science and technology.
D. To tell how traditional Chinese culture influences our space science.
D
February 29 is a special date that only happens once every four years. This day is known as a leap day, and the year with this extra day is a leap year. But what are leap years, why do we need them, and how did this idea start
A leap year has 366 days, one more than the usual 365. According to the Gregorian calendar, which most countries use today, a leap year happens every four years. This extra day is February 29, a date that doesn’t exist (存在) in other years. Generally, any year that can be evenly divided by four is a leap year, like 2020 and 2024. However, there are special cases for certain century years, which end in double zeros, such as 1900.
The term “leap” is used because from March in a leap year, each date moves forward by an extra day from the last year. For example, March 1 in 2027 will fall on a Monday, but in the following leap year 2028, it will be on a Wednesday. Other calendar systems, such as the Hebrew, Islamic, Chinese, and Ethiopian, also include leap years, but they don’t happen every four years and don’t always match up with the Gregorian leap years.
Leap years are necessary to keep our calendar matching the Earth’s trips around the sun. The Earth takes about 365 days, 5 hours, 48minutes, and 46 seconds to go around the sun once—that’s more than a calendar year. If we didn’t add a day for this extra time, our calendar would slowly drift away (偏离) from the solar year. ________. For example, without leap years, after about 700 years, summer in the Northern Hemisphere (北半球) would begin in December instead of June.
68. Which of the following years is a leap year
A. 1900. B. 1999 C. 2014. D. 2220.
69. Why do we have leap years
A. To celebrate a unique holiday every four years.
B. To match the calendar with the Earth’s orbit around the sun.
C. To allow February to have more days than other months.
D. To follow ancient traditions from the Hebrew calendar.
70. Choose the best sentence to fill in the blank “________” in Paragraph 4.
A. Leap years include an extra month to balance the seasons.
B. Over time, this would make the seasons start at different times.
C. Without leap years, the time it takes for a full moon cycle would change.
D. Without the extra day, each season would start a day earlier than the last.
71. What can we know from the passage
A. Not all calendars have leap years.
B. The Gregorian calendar is mainly used in Europe.
C. Using leap years can help change the timing of the seasons.
D. It takes more than 365 days for the Earth to go around the sun once.
72. What would be the best title for the passage
A. The Development of the Calendar: A Historical View
B. February’s Special Date: Celebrating the Leap Day
C. The World’s Calendars: A Comparison of Systems
D. Why We Add a Day: The Science Behind Leap Years
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
National parks are popular with visitors. However, a handful of visitors break national park rules, which leads to them getting hurt. And they aren’t the only victims (受害者) — the environment, animals, and park infrastructure (基础设施) often take the biggest hit. It doesn’t have to be this way! ___73___
Never be close to wildlife
___74___ But the real problem isn’t that they’ll hurt you. While it’s always good to protect your personal safety in national parks, you will probably hurt the wildlife you are so curious about. You can love the wildlife without entering its space.
Never ignore (忽视) signs
When you get into the park, you should keep your eyes on the road and pay attention to signs. ___75___ For example, don’t walk on the plants, keep pets off the camping ground, and keep away from the water...
___76___
National parks still have a lot of undeveloped places. That’s why it’s important to always be prepared. You should bring food and water with you. Even if it’s a sunny, warm day, don’t forget to bring clothes.
Never leave anything
National parks are shared spaces for all to enjoy. Don’t leave empty bottles or food package (包装盒) in your camping area. These things may hurt animals. ___77___
National parks protect wildlife and forests. It’s our duty to follow the rules and protect national parks.
A. Never come unprepared.
B. Never visit undeveloped places.
C. Do bring a bag to pack your waste.
D. There are a lot of signs to tell some basic rules.
E. Everyone is interested in visiting national parks.
F. You can make national parks better if you follow the rules.
G. Although wild animals look very cute, they are very dangerous.
五、补全对话（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整。一空一句。
(Mike and Amy are talking about learning English. M=Mike, A=Amy.)
M: Can you help me practice English
A: Certainly! ____78____
M: I’d like to improve my speaking skills. Any suggestions
A: Sure! You can try recording yourself speaking and listen back for areas of improvement. ____79____
M: Those are great ideas! How can I build my vocabulary
A: To achieve that, try reading English books or articles that interest you. ____80____
M: I see. What about improving my grammar
A: Improving grammar takes practice. ____81____
M: Thank you for the advice! I will work on these methods.
A: You’re welcome! ____82____
A. Who can I practice speaking with
B. What skills would you like to improve
C. Your teacher will be happy to see your progress!
D. Best of luck with your English learning journey!
E. Look up new words and try using them in your own sentences.
F. Besides, watching English movies or TV shows can be helpful.
G. Study grammar rules and do exercises help you understand better.
六、书面表达。（15分）
83. 曾子曰：“吾日三省吾身：为人谋而不忠乎？与朋友交而不信乎？传不习乎？”习近平总书记在演讲中多次引用这句话，告诫青少年要勇于面对自己的缺点，在学习中求真务实。怎样成为更好的自己？请你根据以下内容提示，以“How to be a better teenager ”为题，用英语写一篇演讲稿，在毕业典礼上发言。
内容提示：1.养成健康的生活习惯。
2.学习有计划、有行动。
3.友善待人。
4.培养良好的兴趣爱好，参加志愿活动。
写作要求：1.内容必须包括所给要点，并适当发挥一至两点。
2.语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范。
3.文中不能出现考生的真实姓名、校名和地名。
4.不少于 90 词。（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
参考词汇：培养爱好 take up hobbies 志愿活动 volunteer activity
How to be a better teenager
Hello, everyone! Today I’d like to share my ideas about how to be a better teenager.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!
2024-2025学年第二学期分宜县初中学校联考九年级英语测试卷
一、听力理解（本大题共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，共 20 分）
A) 请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有 10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】B
B）请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6 B 7. C
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. C
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. B 11. A 12. B
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. C 14. C 15. A
C)
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. May 6th
17. technology
18. future life
19. guide 20. Monday
二、单项填空（本大题共 8 小题，每小题 1 分，共 8 分）
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21题答案】
【答案】B
【22题答案】
【答案】A
【23题答案】
【答案】A
【24题答案】
【答案】B
【25题答案】
【答案】B
【26题答案】
【答案】A
【27题答案】
【答案】C
【28题答案】
【答案】B
三、完形填空（本大题共 26 小题，每小题 1 分，共 26 分）
【29~43题答案】
【答案】29. A 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. D 42. B 43. C
【44~54题答案】
【答案】44. courage
45. believe
46. make 47. difficult
48. discussion
49. to solve
50. explained
51. great 52. Finally
53. feeling
54. Although
四、阅读理解（本大题共 23 小题，每小题 2 分，共 46 分）
A) 请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【55~57题答案】
【答案】55. C 56. C 57. C
B
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58 D 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. C
C
【63~67题答案】
【答案】63. B 64. A 65. C 66. A 67. D
D
【68~72题答案】
【答案】68. D 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D
【73~77题答案】
【答案】73. F 74. G 75. D 76. A 77. C
五、补全对话（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
【78~82题答案】
【答案】78. B 79. F 80. E 81. G 82. D
六、书面表达。（15分）
【83题答案】
【答案】例文
How to be a better teenager
Hello, everyone! Today I’d like to share my ideas about how to be a better teenager.
First of all, we should develop healthy living habits. We can run for half an hour every day to keep healthy. What’s more, we should make a study plan and take action to achieve it. The more knowledge we learn, the brighter future we will have. And we had better be friendly to others. When others need help, we should try our best to help them. Finally, it is good to develop good hobbies and take part in voluntary activities, such as cleaning the city park.
In a word, if we try our best, we will become better and better.
Thank you!

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