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2023-2024学年下学期期中教育学业质量监测
七年级英语试题卷
（试卷共四个部分，共5页；满分100分，考试用时120分钟）
第一部分 听力 （共四节， 满分30分）
第一节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5个句子，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。
第二节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5个句子，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。
6. A.Yes, he is. B. Yes, he can. C. Yes, he does.
7. A. No, I’m not. B. No, you aren’t. C. No, he isn’t.
8. A. English club. B. Lions. C. Bus.
9. A. Three kilometers. B. By train. C. 15 minutes.
10. A.Thank you. B.Good job. C. Sorry, I won’t.
第三节 （共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。
What time does the woman get up
A. 6:00. B.6:30. C. 6:10.
12. Why does Bob like pandas
A. Because they’re cute. B. Because they’re smart. C. Because they’re lazy.
13. What’s Mr. Green doing
A.He’s reading a book. B. He's reading a newspaper. C. He’s watching TV.
14. What can Linda do
A. Dance. B. Sing. C. Sing and dance.
15. Why is Mary late for school
A. She got up late. B. She was ill. C. She missed the bus.
第四节（共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面两段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个问题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
听第 1 段材料，回答第16、17小题。
16. What club does Lisa want to join
A. Music club. B. Art club C. Sports club.
17. What sports can Lisa do
A. Basketball. B. Soccer. C. Ping-pong ball.
听第2段材料, 回答第18~20小题。
18. How many students are there in Tony’s class
A. 54. B. 40. C. 45.
19. Who is Tony’s best friend
A. Tom. B. Mike. C. Jack.
20. What do Tony and his best friend like doing
A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Singing and dancing.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共二节, 满分20分 )
第一节：单项填空 (共10小题，每小题1分, 满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
21. Tom can’t play ________ chess, but he can play _______ guitar.
A. the; the B. /; the C. the ; / D. /; /
22. Alice is really good ________ playing games, so she is good ________ the children in the school and everyone loves her.
A. at；with B. at；for C. in；for D. in；with
23. —_______does it take you to get to school on foot
—About Twenty minutes.
A. How long B. How far C. How much D. How many
24. —Peter, do you like oranges________ bananas
—I like oranges.
A. but B. and C. or D. so
25. —How do you express “6:45”, Cindy
—Well. It’s________.
A.sixty forty - five B. six - four - five
C. a quarter to six D. a quarter to seven
26. —How do we save elephants They are in great danger.
—Don’t _______ many trees or buy things made of ivory.
A. think of B. cut down C. be from D. listen to
27. Cindy is ________ girl and she wants to be a teacher.
A. a 8-year-old B. an 8-years-old
C. an 8-year-old D. a 8 years old
28. It ________Han Mei thirty minutes ________ home every time.
A. take；walk B. takes；to walk C. take；to walk D. takes；walk
29. —Can she ______ a musician
—No, she can’t.
A. am B. is C. be D. are
30. Mike often ________ on Sunday. Now he ________ in the store.
A shops; shops B. shops; is shopping
C. shop; is shopping D. is shopping; is shopping
第二节 完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
I have a beautiful mother. She is very 31 every day. She 32 up at five o'clock. She brushes her 33 and takes a shower. Then she makes a delicious meal for my father and 34 . Then we eat breakfast 35 6:30. My father works in a hospital. He is busy, 36 . He can't take me to school, so my mother takes me to school. 37 takes us twenty minutes to get to school. I'm never late for school. 38 school, my mother comes to school to take me back home. She drives 39 . But I'm not afraid. She drives well. When we arrive home. She is busy with the housework till eight o'clock. She is very busy every day,but she is happy. I 40 my mother.
A. busy B. free C. lazy D. quiet
A. get B. gets C. getting D. to get
A. tooth B. tooths C. teeth D. toothes
A. me B. I C. my D. mine
A. in B.on C. of D. at
A. too B. also C. either D. as well
A.That B. This C. It D. They
A. after B. After C.before D. Before
A. quickly B. early C. differently D. slowly
A. talk B. love C. tell D. teach
第三部分 阅读理解 （共三节 满分30分）
第一节 根据短文内容，判断下列句子的正误(正确“T”，错误“F”) 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。（每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
Bill is a teacher. He goes to work from Monday to Friday every week. He usually gets up at six in the morning. After breakfast, he takes a bus to work. It's not far from his home to school, so it only takes him about 20 minutes. He is a P. E teacher. He often plays sports with his students. He has classes every day. Two are in the morning and two are in the afternoon. In the evening, he usually eats dinner at home and then he watches TV for about an hour. He thinks he has a happy life.
41. Bill works five days a week.
42. Bill goes to work by bike.
43. Bill has five classes a day.
44. Bill usually watches TV after dinner.
45. Bill likes his life.
第二节 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出正确答案，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。（每小题1分，共15分）
A
Hi, I’m a middle school student. I’m Judy. In my class there are thirty-eight students. How do they go to school every day Seventeen of them take the bus because they live far from the school. Six students walk. They think walking is good exercise. Fifteen students ride their bikes to school because they like riding bikes very much and their homes are not far from the school. No one goes to school by car. How do you go to school Haha, I’m one of the fifteen.
46. There are_________ students in Judy’s class.
A. 29 B. 30 C. 38 D. 45
47. Six students think _________ is good exercise.
A. running B. walking C. swimming D. riding
48. _________ students ride their bikes to school.
A.17 B.50 C. 10 D. 15
49. Judy goes to school _________.
A. on foot B. by bike C. by bus D. by car
50. No one gets to school _________.
A. by bus B. by bike C. on foot D. by car
B
Hi, boys and girls! Welcome to our museum (博物馆). It’s free. You don’t have to give money. But we have some rules for you. Please remember them and do what I say. First, don’t have food or drink here. You may make our museum dirty. Second, you can take photos here, but don’t touch (触摸) the things here. Third, keep quiet in the museum. Don’t talk loudly. Fourth, the museum is not open (开门) after five o’clock in the afternoon. Please leave before five. Have a good time here! Thank you.
51. There are some rules for a _______.
A. store B. park C. school D. museum
52. What’s the Chinese meaning of the word “free” in the article
A. 免费的 B. 迅速的 C. 高兴的 D. 自由的
53. Students can _______in the museum.
A. have food and drink B. take photos
C. touch the things D. talk loudly
54. Students can stay in the museum_______.
A. all day B. before 5:00 a.m.
C. before 5:00 p.m. D. after 5:00 p.m.
55. We can learn from the article (文章)that_______.
A. students don’t want to pay any money.
B. the museum has five rules for the students.
C. the speaker who tells the students the rules is a teacher.
D. the speaker hopes the students have a good time.
C
My name is Kate. There are many rules in my life. I think these rules are important for me. At home, I can't play computer games for more than（超过） half an hour. I think it is good for my study because I can have more time to study. I must make the bed after I get up. And I must clean my room every day. So my bedroom is always clean and tidy. My mother says keeping room tidy is good for my health.
I study at Fuxing Middle School. At our school, we also have some rules. We can't be late for school. So we must arrive at school on time. We must get to school before half past seven in the morning. We need to wear the school uniform every day. In the class, we have to be quiet. We can't listen to music. We can't eat in the class. We must eat in the dining hall. After class, we can't run in the hallways.
Do you have rules in your life Tell me about it.
What does Kate think of the rules in her life
A. Strict. B. Important. C. Terrible. D. Interesting.
What time can Kate arrive at school according to the passage
At7:35 a.m. B. At 7:40 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m. D. At 7:25 a.m.
58.How long can Kate play computer games according to this passage
A. One and a half hours. B. One hour.
C. Thirty-five minutes. D. Thirty minutes.
59. What can we know from the passage
A. Kate is a tidy girl.
B. Kate never follows the school rules.
Kate doesn't like playing computer games.
Kate has to be quiet at home.
Which can be the title for the passage(文章)？
A. Rules in Kate’s Life. B. Kate’s School Life .
C. Rules at Kate’s Home. D. Kate’s Tidy Room.
第三节 根据短文内容，选出能填入空白的最佳选项.其中有两项是多余的。并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
Hello, friends. I'm Harry. 61 There are many clubs in my school. Students can have great fun in these clubs. I love music. 62 So I join the music club. The club has activities(活动) on Tuesday and Thursday. 63 We have the same interest. I'm always very happy to talk to my friends. Besides（除...之外） music, I can play chess well. 64 The chess club also has activities two days a week. A music festival is in the next month. All the students in the music club to prepare（准备) for it. 65 . So I'm very busy these days. But I think my school is really interesting.
A. I'm a middle school student.
B. Playing chess is my favorite.
C. So I join the chess club, too.
D. I can sing and dance very well.
E. I make many friends in the club.
F. I want to join the English club.
G. And next week, there is a chess game for me to join in.
第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分）
第一节 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。（每小题1分，满5分）
66. Some__________are reading books in the library ( child )
67. Please come and show__________ ( we ) your new pen.
l68. I often practice__________ ( draw ) some pictures on weekends
They need help at the old __________ (people ) home.
70. It’s important for us_____________( learn ) English well.
第二节 将下列 句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
71.The girl can .(敲鼓)
72.I believe(相信)my dream can .(实现)
73. You must finish your homework . (准时)
74. Bob usually at eight o’clock in the evening.(做作业)
75. Lucy has a nice , she likes it very much. (智能手机)
第三节 书面表达（满分10分）
根据以下提示，以“Lisa’s School Day”为题写一篇短文，并谈谈感受。
提示：7:30坐公共汽车去学校，8:00开始上午的课，一直到11:50，12:00吃午饭，边吃边与朋友聊天。下午2:00到4:00是上课时间，4:30开始课外活动（after-school activities）。5:30回家，6:00在家做作业。
要求：1. 语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁，词数不少于80个；
文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计。
书面表达必须写在答题卡上，写在本卷上无效。
2023—2024下学期期中教育学业质量监测
七年级英语参考答案
听力部分
1-5 BACAB 6--10 BAABA 11--15 BABAC 16--20 CBCBC
笔试部分
英语知识运用
单项填空
21--25 BAACD 26--30 BCBCB
完形填空
31--35 ABCAD 36--40 ACBAB
阅读理解
41--45 TFFTT
46-50 CBDBD 51--55 DABCD 56--60 BDDAA
第三节 61-65 ADECG
写作
第一节
children 67. us 68. drawing
people’s 70. to learn
第二节
play the drums 72. come true 73. on time
74. does his homework 75. smart phone
第三节 作文（略）2023-2024学年下学期期中教育学业质量监测
答题卡【七年级】
学校：
班级：
姓名：
考号：
谁考证号
注意事项：
1,答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证
号码填写清楚，将条形码准确粘贴在条形
贴条形码区
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
D
D
码区域内。


2选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂且按正确填
2
2
2
2
2
2
涂方式填涂：■非选择题必须使用0.5亳
3
3
3
3
3
米黑色字迹的签字笔书写，字体工整，笔
4
迹清晰。
团
3.请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内
6
6
6
6
6
作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在
缺考口
草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
9
9
.听力部分。
(30分)（每小题1.5分：共30分）
1
A]B]C
6
A]B]C]
11AB
16 A]B]C
2A四Bg
7 [A][B]C]
12AB
17 [A][B]C]
3A四Bg
8 A]BC
13A BIC
18 B
4A I网
9A 0Ia
14A g
19A
5 A]]
10A BI
15 A]B]C]
20 A BC]
二选择题部分。
(共45个小题，共50分)(41-45小题、61-65小题，每小题1.5分：其余每小题1分)
21A]
260)
31A四网四
36A幻团g四
41 四
46A幻四C
22A BIgD
27ABC四D
32 A]BC]D
37 A B]C]D]
42卫回
47 AB]CD]
23AB网D
28ABC四D
33BI D
38ABC网D
43 E□
48ABC网D
24A B 网D
29D34B D
39A 网D
44 E回
49ABC网D
25A B回D
30ABCD35B D
40A BC D45卫
50A回@D
51B D
56B c四D
61BCDE FG
52A B@D
57AB C D
62 ABCDEF□G@
53 B D
58A幻B 四D
63AB四D回E回F□@
54A BgD
59ABC D
64AB DE国F□@
55A B D
60AB 四D
65A BIgD国F四④
三、
写作部分。（共11个小题，共20分）
第一节根据句意，用括号所给词的适当形式填空。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
67
68
69
第二节将括号中所给的汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当形式。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
71.
72
73
74
75
0001
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