2025年江西省南昌市中考一模英语试题(含答案及音频,无听力原文)

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2025年江西省南昌市中考一模英语试题(含答案及音频,无听力原文)

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南昌市2025年初三年级第一次调研检测试卷
英语
说明:
1.本试题卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答,答在试题卷或其它位置无效。
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When is Alan’s birthday 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. On April 5th. B. On June 15th. C. On August 10th.
2. How does Tom feel 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Tired. B. Down. C. Hungry.
3. What subject is Bill good at 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. English. B. History. C. Biology.
4. Who might Mike ask for advice 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. His friends. B. His teacher. C. His parents.
5. What does the man mean 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. The woman needs to have a break.
B. The woman needs some medicine.
C. He will check the woman carefully.
请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. What club does the girl want to join
A. The art club. B. The music club. C. The swimming club.
7. When is the club meeting
A. On Monday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. How does Tom go to school
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By subway.
9. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Classmates. B. Mother and son. C. Student and teacher.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. How many people will enjoy the dinner
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
11. What does the man order to eat
A. Some beef. B. The hamburger. C. The chicken salad.
12. What do we know about the man’s order
A. He orders no drinks. B. He orders one fruit pizza. C. The order will be there in 15 minutes.
请听对话,回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
13. What does Jack plan to do in the future
A. Travel around the world. B. Study computer science. C. Have his own business.
14. Where will Jack probably stay
A. In Shanghai. B. In Chengdu. C. In his hometown.
15. What can we get from the conversation
A. Jack will go to college.
B. Sara will work for her hometown.
C. The two speakers plan to work together.
请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. March 20th will be a fun day with many _________.
17. The event will start at _________ in the morning.
18. In the event, there will be a(n) _________ show and sports games.
19. Students can have some cookies, _________ and sandwiches if they get hungry.
20. To get more information about the event, you can call _________.
二、单项填空(本大题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. To develop the writing skills, you can try to keep English diaries every day as a(n) ________.
A. habit B. idea C. dream D. example
22. My father is feeling much ________ today. He can go back to work.
A. good B. bad C. worse D. better
23. With delicious local food and fun places to visit, the small town ________ visitors a wonderful experience.
A. owns B. sells C. offers D. takes
24. Jack ________ a great idea during the meeting, and most students supported him a lot.
A. has B. had C. will have D. is having
25. —I didn’t see Lily at the party last night.
—Well she didn’t go there ________ she was feeling sick.
A. and B. until C. though D. because
26. The work is hard, but with Mr. Guo’s help, we ________ half of it.
A. do B. are doing C. have done D. were doing
27. We used to wait in line to get train tickets, but now we can ________ book online.
A only B. easily C. widely D. carefully
28. —Good evening, may I have some baozi with beef
—Sorry, sir! They ________ only at dinner.
A. serve B. served C. are served D. will serve
三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Seven Blind Mice
In a forest, there lived seven blind mice. One sunny day, they ran quickly to the pond as usual and suddenly ___29___ a strange, huge object. Fear caught them at once, and they rushed back home, their ___30___ beating fast.
On Monday, the red mouse felt brave. He ___31___ walked up to the strange thing. His little paws (爪子) moved slowly over its surface. After a while, he shouted, “It’s a pillar (柱子).” But the others didn’t ___32___ him at all.
The next day, the green mouse ran over. He moved around it, feeling every part, and then ___33___, crying out, “It’s a snake! I’m sure of it.” But the yellow mouse just shook his head. On Wednesday, he walked over heavily, ___34___ something like a knife, and came back, shouting aloud and clearly, “It’ s a knife, not a snake or a pillar.”
After that the purple mouse raised his ___35___ proudly and said, “You’ re all wrong! It must be a great rock wall. I felt how ___36___ and high it was!” The orange mouse jumped up and down, waving his tiny paws, “No, no! It’s a fan (电扇). I felt the breeze ___37___ I touched it.” The blue mouse kicked the ground angrily, “You two are so ___38___. It’s just a rope (绳子). I held it in my paws!” They kept arguing, their voices getting louder and louder, each one trying to show they were ___39___.
Finally, on Sunday, the white mouse bravely ran around the ___40___ many times, checking every small place. Then, she turned to her friends and said ___41___ a big smile, “It’s an elephant! It has ___42___ parts that feel like a pillar, a snake, a knife, a rock wall, a fan, and a rope.”
The other mice followed her example and finally they all ___43___. The story teaches us that knowing just a part isn’t enough. True wisdom comes from seeing the whole.
29. A. cut B. hit C. saved D. took
30. A. feet B. music C. hearts D. drums
31. A. sadly B. easily C. politely D. carefully
32. A. watch B. notice C. believe D. understand
33. A. ran back B. looked up C. set off D. shut down
34. A. sold B. made C. built D. touched
35. A. head B. flag C. hope D. level
36. A. wet B. wide C. soft D. short
37. A. so B. but C. when D. though
38. A. kind B. smart C. silly D. perfect
39. A. full B. busy C. terrible D. right
40. A. wall B. hole C. object D. rope
41. A. at B. with C. for D. from
42. A. similar B. amazing C. different D. valuable
43. A. agreed B. locked C. failed D. praised
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。
add friend enjoy time first its important both means careful because
The Chinese tea ceremony is an old tradition that shows China’s rich culture and way of thinking. It’s different from other tea ceremonies ___44___ it’s more relaxing and pays more attention to enjoying the tea’s natural taste.
In China, tea is not just a drink——it’s a way to show care and make ___45___. When guests visit a Chinese home, the host always offers tea. This ___46___ “welcome” and “friendship”. Young people often serve tea to older people to show respect.
The ceremony starts with preparing the tea set. The host cleans all the tools ___47___. They use different kinds of tea, like green tea, oolong tea, or pu’er tea, depending on the ___48___ of year and what the guests like.
The host pours hot water over the tea leaves to “wake them up”. The ___49___ cup of tea is usually thrown away. Then, they ___50___ more hot water and wait for the tea to be ready. The color, smell, and taste of the tea are all ___51___.
When serving, the host holds the teapot with ___52___ hands to show respect. Guests tap (敲打) the table with two fingers to say “thank you” quietly. Everyone drinks the tea slowly, enjoying ____53____ taste and the time with friends.
The Chinese tea ceremony teaches us about balance and getting along with others. It shows us how ____54____ simple things and value our friendships.
四、阅读理解(本大题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Job Title: MS (middle-school) Math Teacher Place: Springfield Middle School Pay: $45,000~$55,000 per year Status: Full-time Experience: 2~5 years of MS math teaching experience preferred Education: Bachelor’s degree (学士学位)
Duties: —Teach MS level math courses. —Provide extra help to students who need it. —Attend school activities and meetings. Requirements: —25~35 years old. —Strong knowledge of middle-school math. —Ability to work with students of different learning levels.
Benefits (福利): —Paid vacation and sick leave.
55. What’s the highest pay for this job per year
A. $45,000. B. $50,000. C. $55,000. D. $60,000.
56. Who is most likely to get the job
A. Anna, 22, Bachelor’s degree. B. Bob, 26, unable to work full time.
C. Cindy, 28, MS math teacher since 2021. D. David, 30, works well with kids under 8.
57. Which of the following is TRUE according to the post above
A. Teachers enjoy paid vacation as a benefit.
B. Teachers do not get paid during sick leave.
C. Teachers need to organize all school activities.
D. Teachers do not need to give students extra help.
B
Micah Johnson is from Indianapolis, Indiana. For 24 years, he played baseball every day and reached the highest levels of the sport. Once he achieved that, he thought, “Okay, I did it.” Micah doesn’t care if it takes 100 years: If it’s something that somebody says he can’t do, he’s going to try everything he can to do it. And when he does it, he always asks, “Okay, what’s the next thing I’m going to do ”
Micah started painting in 2016 when he was with the Los Angeles Dodgers. After coming home from a game all excited and not ready to go to bed, he would paint. “I would take canvases (画布) on the road. I had such a deep love for painting that I couldn’t put it down.” said Micah.
In 2018, his time in Major League Baseball ended. By then, he had fallen in love with art and decided to give it a try.
After hearing a young Black kid ask if astronauts could be Black, he started painting young Black kids as astronauts. In order to reach more people with his message, he created a 3D character named Aku. Aku is a Black astronaut who is very brave and confident and wears a special space suit that allows him to travel through digital worlds. Last year, Aku became a great success and was on the cover of TIME.
Micah traded his baseball bat for a paintbrush and found his love. He believes that kids can find a meaningful way of life by showing up every day, searching for interests, and then just going deeper into the things they care about. If one keeps working toward something they truly love, amazing chances will come their way.
58. What is Micah like according to Paragraph 1
A. Shy. B. Polite. C. Helpful. D. Confident.
59. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A. Love. B. Road. C. Painting. D. Baseball.
60. Why did Micah create the character Aku
A. To be on TIME’s cover. B. To get into digital worlds.
C. To teach kids how to paint. D. To share his ideas with more people.
61. What’s the correct order of the following events
a. Micah started painting. b. Micah created Aku.
c. Micah’s character was on TIME’s cover. d. Micah was asked about Black astronauts.
e. Micah ended his time in Major League Baseball.
A. e→b→c→a→d B. a→e→d→b→c C. e→c→a→d→b D. a→b→e→d→c
62. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
A. Micah left baseball because he lost interest. B. Painting was easier for Micah than baseball.
C. Aku helps Black children be more confident. D. Micah works hard to show others they are wrong.
C
Peru is the third largest country in South America, after Brazil and Argentina. It is a country with many different landscapes (景观), including mountains, beaches, rainforests and more.
The Andes Mountains run through Peru from north to south. These tall peaks (山峰) can be seen from beaches 80 kilometers away. The highest peak, Mount Huascarán, is 6,768 meters high.
Because of its many different ecosystems, Peru is home to all kinds of plants and animals. The Amazon rainforest covers nearly half of Peru. In this large forest, a 1-km area can contain more than 6,000kinds of plants. To protect them, Peru has created special forest areas called reserves. Large numbers of small fish live off the coast of Peru, and they in turn support populations of bigger fish and seabirds, including Humboldt penguins. There are many special kinds of plants and animals in the Andes Mountains. One amazing plant, the puya raimondi, takes 100 years to flower.
The people of Peru are a mix of many different cultures, including Indians, Europeans, Africans and Asians. Most people used to live in the countryside. But now, more than 70 percent live in cities.
Peru has a long and rich history. Over 500 years ago, it was home to the powerful Inca Empire in South America. The Incas built amazing cities like Machu Picchu in the Andes. In the 1500s, The Spanish arrived and took over. For about 300 years, Peru was under Spanish control. It became an independent country in 1821.
Peru is a country full of history, culture, and natural beauty. Its different landscapes, people and ecosystems make it a unique place in the world.
63. What can we learn about the Andes Mountains from Paragraph 2
A. They are 80 kilometers long. B. Mostpeaksare6,768metershigh.
C. They connect Peru from north to south. D. Only the highest peak can be seen from beaches.
64. How much of Peru is covered by the Amazon rainforest
A. 25%—30%. B. 45%—49%. C. 55%—60%. D. 75%—80%.
65. Which part of Peru is described the most in the passage
A. People. B. Traditions. C. History. D. Ecosystems.
66. Where does the passage most probably come from
A. A storybook. B. A news report. C. A travel magazine. D. A history textbook.
67. What would be the best structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
D
Reading is more than just a fun activity—it can actually change the way your brain works. Studies show that reading can improve your brain’s health, make you feel better, and even help you focus. Let’s take a look at how reading can have a good influence on your brain.
Your brain works hard when you read. It has to understand the words, think about their meaning, and imagine the story. This helps your brain get stronger and improves skills like memory, problem-solving, and thinking. Scientists believe that reading regularly is helpful, because it can protect your brain from getting weaker as you grow older, keeping it sharp for a long time.
Reading can help you feel less stressed. In one study it was found that reading can reduce (减轻) stress by up to 68%. When you read a book, you focus on the story, which helps take your mind off your worries. This is similar to how activities like listening to music or doing yoga can make you feel relaxed.
Reading stories can help you understand how other people feel. When you read about characters in different situations, your brain learns to feel what they are feeling. This makes you more understanding—able to understand other people’s feelings. Studies show that people who read stories are better at connecting with others and understanding their feelings.
When you read, your brain produces chemicals (化学物质) that make you feel good. For example, dopamine (多巴胺) is produced when something exciting happens in the story. Serotonin and oxytocin helps improve your mood (情绪) . These chemicals make you feel happy and relaxed.
Reading is not only enjoyable——it is also good for your brain and mood. It can make your brain stronger, reduce stress, and even help you understand others better. So next time you read, remember: you are changing your brain chemistry for the better!
68. What does the underlined word “sharp” in Paragraph 2 mean
A. Busy. B. Slow. C. Active. D. Silent.
69 What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. Reading allows people to focus better. B. Reading can help reduce people’s stress.
C. Reading is more popular than doing yoga. D. Reading makes people remember their problems.
70. When does your brain produce dopamine
A. When you finish a difficult book. B. When you feel stressed and need to relax.
C. When you read something exciting in a story. D. When you try to understand people’s feelings.
71. What’s the writer’s purpose in writing this passage
A. To compare reading with other relaxing activities.
B. To show the history of brain research about reading.
C. To encourage students to read more books for exams.
D. To explain how reading improves the brain and mood.
72. What would be the best title for the passage
A. Reading Changes Your Brain. B. How to Choose a Good Book.
C. Reading: A Fun Way to Relax. D. The History of Human Reading.
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
Dealing with Culture Shock
Moving to a new country can be exciting, but it can also cause culture shock. This happens when you feel confused (困惑) or uncomfortable in a new place. ___73___ Here are some useful ways to help you deal with culture shock.
Learn the language
One of the most helpful things you can do is to learn the local language. Even knowing just a few words or phrases can help you feel more connected and confident. Try to practice every day, even if it’s just for a few minutes. ___74___
Keep an open mind
Every culture has its own way of doing things. If something seems strange or different, try to understand why people do it that way. ___75___ Keeping an open mind will help you feel less disappointed.
Stay connected with family and friends
Talking to people you trust can make a big difference. Use video calls, send messages, or share photos. This will help you feel connected to home and reduce feelings of loneliness.
___76___
Don’t be afraid to try new foods, visit local places, or join activities. Sometimes, getting out of your comfort zone can help you enjoy and get used to the new culture.
Give yourself time
Remember, it takes time to get used to a new place. ___77___ Every small step you take brings you closer to feeling at home.
Culture shock is normal, but with a positive attitude and some creative ideas, you can turn it into a chance to grow and learn!
A. Be patient with yourself.
B. Discover and try new things.
C. Ask questions and keep learning.
D. Often compare your progress to others.
E. Do what others do without asking any questions.
F. Don’t be afraid to make mistakes — it’s part of learning!
G. It is normal, and everyone experiences it in different ways.
五、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
(Alice and Henry are talking on the sports field. Alice=A, Henry=H)
A: The weather is so nice today! I love being outside in nature.
H: Me too! ___78___
A:Yes! Have you ever gone hiking in the mountains
H: Yes, I have! Last summer, I hiked in a forest. ___79___
A: That sounds amazing! I have never seen a waterfall before.
H: ___80___ Nature is full of surprises!
A: I’d love to! I also enjoy watching the sunset at the beach.
H: That’s a great idea! ___81___
A: Yes! Nature is really wonderful. We should take care of it.
H: I agree. ___82___
A. You should visit one someday.
B. Protecting nature is very important!
C. I saw beautiful birds and a big waterfall.
D. I love going to the zoo to see wild animals.
E. I think rainy days are better than sunny days.
F. Watching the waves and the sunset is so peaceful.
G. The fresh air and green trees make me feel relaxed.
六、书面表达(15分)
83. 通过阅读理解D篇我们知道了阅读的好处。你校读书节活动即将到来,为了更好地开展这次活动,校英语社团将以“My Reading Life”为题向学生征文,请你结合自身情况,根据下列写作要点写一篇短文投稿。
写作要点:
1. What kind(s) of books do you enjoy most And why (storybooks, science, history...)
2. a) What problems do you have when reading (poor time planning, new words…)
b) How do you solve them
3. Your advice on making reading more enjoyable.
要求:
1.短文应包括所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
3.词数80-120,短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
My Reading Life
Reading always brings me joy and knowledge.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
南昌市2025年初三年级第一次调研检测试卷
英语
说明:
1.本试题卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答,答在试题卷或其它位置无效。
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】A
请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. C
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. B 11. C 12. B
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. C 14. C 15. A
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. activities
17. 9:00. ##9 o’clock##nine
18. talent 19. juice
20. 686552
二、单项填空(本大题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21题答案】
【答案】A
【22题答案】
【答案】D
【23题答案】
【答案】C
【24题答案】
【答案】B
【25题答案】
【答案】D
【26题答案】
【答案】C
【27题答案】
【答案】B
【28题答案】
【答案】C
三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
【29~43题答案】
【答案】29. B 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. A
【44~54题答案】
【答案】44. because
45. friends
46. means 47. carefully
48. time 49. first
50. add 51. important
52. both 53. its
54. to enjoy
四、阅读理解(本大题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【55~57题答案】
【答案】55. C 56. C 57. A
B
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58. D 59. C 60. D 61. B 62. C
C
【63~67题答案】
【答案】63. C 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. A
D
【68~72题答案】
【答案】68. C 69. B 70. C 71. D 72. A
【73~77题答案】
【答案】73. G 74. F 75. C 76. B 77. A
五、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
【78~82题答案】
【答案】78. G 79. C 80. A 81. F 82. B
六、书面表达(15分)
【83题答案】
【答案】例文
My Reading Life
Reading always brings me joy and knowledge. I enjoy reading storybooks and science books. Stories like Tom Sawyer make me excited about adventures, while science books help me understand the world.
However, I sometimes find reading difficult. First, it’s hard to find time because I’m not good at planning time. To solve this, I read for 15 minutes every day before dinner. Now I can finish one book each month! Second, some science words are new and hard for me. When I see them, I must first guess their meanings from the sentence, then look them up in the dictionary later.
To make reading more enjoyable, first I think we should choose books with topics we truly love. Second, share favorite books with friends. Discussing stories together is like adding colors to our reading life!

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