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台州市2025年九年级教学质量评估试题
英语
亲爱的考生：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，仔细答题，发挥最佳水平。答题时，请注意以下几点：
1. 全卷共10页。满分120分。考试时间100分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的“注意事项”，按规定答题。
第一部分 听力（共3节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
1. Who can play the guitar
A Tom. B. Peter. C. Linda.
2. Where does the woman want to go
A. To a bank. B. To a restaurant. C. To a supermarket.
3. Whose schoolbag is this
A. Wendy’s. B. David’s. C. Betty’s.
4. What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student.
5. What are the two speakers talking about
A. A holiday plan. B. A weekend activity. C. A festival celebration.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
听对话，回答以下各小题。
6. Where did Mike go on vacation
A. The beach. B. The villages. C. The mountains.
7. How was Mike’s vacation
A. Boring. B. Great. C. Special.
听对话，回答以下各小题。
8. What was Mary doing when Paul called her
A. Making dinner. B. Cleaning the room. C. Having fun in the park.
9. What are the speakers going to do tomorrow
A. See the dentist. B. Study in the library. C. Clean up the City Park.
10. Where are they going to meet
A. At the park. B. At the school gate. C. At Mary’s home.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. How long will it take to get to the museum
A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes.
12 Who is Jane Wilson
A. The guide. B. The teacher. C. The museum director.
13. What is special about the museum
A. Students can take away things in the museum.
B. Students are allowed to touch pots and rings.
C Students can make inventions in the museum.
14. How do the students find information in the Technology Center
A. By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking teachers for help.
15. What does the speaker want students to do after the trip
A. Write a report about the trip. B. Choose gifts from the museum. C. Share their experience with others.
第二部分 阅读理解（共2节，满分40分）
第一节、阅读理解（本题有15小题，每小题2分；共计30分）
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
DNA is a special part inside every cell (细胞). It tells the cell what to be—part of a human, an animal, or a plant. Here’s a way to see your own DNA! What you’ll need A clear cup A spoon Salt Dish soap (洗洁精) Isopropyl alcohol (酒精) The most important! Ask adults to help deal with alcohol!!! What to do Put on your safety glasses-we’re about to do some chemistry! Put a half spoon of salt into a glass half full of water. Take a mouthful of the saltwater and keep it in your mouth for a minute, but don’t swallow (吞咽) it. Pour the saltwater back into the glass. The mixture now has some cells from your mouth! Add one drop of dish soap to the saltwater mixture and mix it gently. Try not to make suds (泡沫). Next, ask an adult to slowly pour some drops of isopropyl alcohol down the side of the cup so that it sits on top of the salty soapy water. Don’t shake. In about a minute you should see tiny white, thread-like (线形的) things forming on the top of the alcohol. This is your DNA!
1. Which is the most important when doing the experiment (实验)
A A clear cup. B. A spoon. C. Dish soap. D. An adult’s help.
2. What is the correct order of “see your DNA”
① ② ③ ④ ⑤
A. ①⑤②③④ B. ①②③⑤④ C. ①②④⑤③ D. ②④①③⑤
3. In which part of the magazine can we read the text
A. Art. B. Health. C. Science. D. Culture.
B
One spring morning, Mrs. Jones was in her garden with her grandson. She said, “Mike, I prepare to plant some vegetables here. Are you going to help me ”
“Sure, Grandma, but could you tell me why you want to plant vegetables ” said Mike.
Mrs. Jones replied, “We can eat them when they are fully grown. But it will take a few months.”
Mike had no experience of growing vegetables, so he asked in surprise, “A few months Why don’t we just go to the store and buy some ”
“Dear, when I was your age, my parents taught me to plant vegetables. I got some life skills from the farm work,” Mrs. Jones explained, “Planting is not a boring chore, but an enjoyable activity. We can choose to plant our favorite vegetables and watch them grow up. More importantly they taste fresher than those from stores.”
These words made Mike excited. “I can’t wait to try the interesting work, Grandma,” Mike said. Finally, they decided to plant potatoes and tomatoes.
The next day, Mrs. Jones and Mike started ploughing and sowing (耕种). They spent several hours completing the work. Seeing the hopeful garden, Mike felt pleased.
Mrs. Jones and Mike looked after the garden carefully. As time went on, the tomatoes and potatoes grew bigger, which made Mike understand the importance of patience and hard work.
It was time to harvest (收获). Mike picked lots of potatoes and tomatoes, and he shared some of them with his neighbors. Then he went home with the rest of the vegetables and handed them to his grandma. Mrs. Jones used them to cook a dish. Mike tasted it and got a strong feeling of satisfaction. “No pains, no gains. For me, nothing can be more delicious than it!” Mike said happily.
4. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in paragraph 3
A. Waiting for vegetables to grow up. B. Preparing to plant vegetables.
C. Sharing vegetables with neighbors. D. Buying vegetables from the store.
5. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Mrs. Jones learned planting herself. B. Mike cared for the garden patiently.
C. Mrs. Jones taught Mike how to cook. D. Mike sold the vegetables to stores.
6. How did Mike’s feelings about growing vegetables change
A. Happy→Surprised→Excited→Thankful. B. Surprised→Excited→Happy→Satisfied.
C. Worried→Happy→Excited→Disappointed. D. Interested→Worried→Happy→Excited.
7. What is the best title for this passage
A. Learning Life Skills B. Sharing the Harvest
C. Planting Joy Together D. Building a Nice Garden
C
A Chinese company called DeepSeek has surprised many experts by creating its own AI software. AI is a computer system that can learn from experience and do tasks that normally need human thinking.
DeepSeek uses AI, which can create things like texts and pictures based on (基于) what a person puts in. For example, you could ask it to write a shopping list, make up a story or you could use it to have a chat. Other popular AI tools, most of which were created in the US, include OpenAI’s ChatGPT and Google’s Gemini.
The company behind DeepSeek’s new app is based in China. It has fewer than 200 people working for it. DeepSeek said it cost 4. 8 million to develop its software. This is much less than the 80 million that OpenAI’s boss said was spent on its latest ChatGPT model.
The low cost of developing DeepSeek has made people ask whether US-based technology companies really need to spend so much on their AI software. What’s more, DeepSeek is open, which means anyone can check how it was built. In addition, DeepSeek’s user experience is excellent. Its chat website and mobile app are free to use. They have a simple and clear design, so it’s easy for users to start using them. A few days after DeepSeek’s new software came out, it became the most downloaded free app in the US.
However, some people are worried. They fear their information could easily be stolen by others or end up being misused by people who should not be allowed to have it. But overall, no AI tools right now can completely promise to keep users’ information safe and private. And no one can doubt that DeepSeek has made a big difference in the AI field and is likely to bring more surprises in the future.
8. How does DeepSeek work
A. By copying other AI tools. B. By learning from experts’ experience.
C. By using AI to create texts. D. By changing human thinking.
9. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about
A. Which app is the best. B. Who DeepSeek is open to.
C. How DeepSeek was built. D. Why DeepSeek is so popular.
10. What makes some people worried when using DeepSeek
A. High cost. B. Slow speed. C. Dependence on AI. D. Information safety.
11. What’s the writer’s attitude (态度) towards DeepSeek in the future
A. Hopeful. B. Doubtful. C. Worried. D. Unclear.
D
① How did you spend your last holiday Did you just stare at a screen from morning till night Well, you are not alone. A new survey shows that the average Chinese person spends over five and a half hours online every day. That’s a lot of time scrolling (滚屏) and watching videos! But is this really helping us relax, or is it just making our brains tired
② First, let’s think about how we spend our time online. Most of us watch short videos rather than learning something new. This kind of low-value material doesn’t help us relax—it actually makes our thinking less clear. The term “brain rot” perfectly describes what happens when we spend too much time on meaningless online things.
③ Meanwhile, using the internet is like eating your favorite snack: it’s hard to stop. Our phones and tablets are full of endless short videos and memes, making them like personal fun factories. It’s easy and comfortable to just sit and scroll for hours, but this “easy fun” comes at a cost. The more time we spend on screens, the less we enjoy real life. We’re missing out on beautiful sunsets, heartfelt thanks, and fun hobbies. When did our lives become so boring
④ Also, we’re forgetting how to relax in a meaningful way. Free time shouldn’t just be about watching Douyin or Bilibili. Instead, it should be a chance to connect with the world. Nature doesn’t have Wi-Fi, but it has fresh air, sunlight, and birdsong. Spending time with friends in real life is much better than laughing alone at a meme on your screen.
⑤ In short, life isn’t about how much time you have—it’s about how you use it. Screens are here to stay, but they shouldn’t take over our free time. The summer holiday is coming soon. Will you choose to do something more meaningful Remember, “brain rot” is real!
12. What does “brain rot” mean in the passage
A. Enjoying real-life activities. B. Learning something new online.
C. Feeling sad after watching videos. D. Thinking less clearly because of screen time.
13. Why does the author compare Internet to snacks
A. It’s a waste of time. B. It’s not easy to control.
C. It’s bad for one’s health. D. It’s one way to have fun.
14. What does the author suggest for a meaningful holiday
A. Chat with friends online. B. Stay indoors and use Wi-Fi.
C. Spend time in nature or with friends. D. Watch more educational videos.
15. What’s the structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
第二节、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题2分；共计10分）
阅读下面材料，从文后所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入1-4题，并回答第5题。
How to Communicate Better
Do you know why some people can’t understand your ideas clearly Have you ever felt unheard even after talking a lot 1 Here are some tips to make your communication clearer.
Keep your audience (观众) in mind.
Talk about what your audience cares about. People are more likely to listen if you discuss things they find important. Focus on what matters to them. This will make them more interested and want to understand the information.
2
Don’t use ten words when one will do. Even the most interested people can get bored. Keep your message simple and straight. Remember, you already know what you’re going to say, but they are hearing it for the first time. Make it easy and clear for them to follow.
Let others join in.
If you’ve ever been a teacher or coach, you know that teaching others helps you learn better. Ask your audience to share their ideas or explain topics. 3 This helps them develop their own communication skills and stay involved.
Choose the right way to communicate.
If the information isn’t important right away, consider sending an email. Written communication gives people more time to think about the message and ask questions. 4
Building good communication skills takes time, but the results are worth it. By practicing these tips, you can become a better communicator and connect more effectively with others.
A. Let them join and lead discussions.
B. This way, they can review the email later.
C Be simple and clear.
D. Pay attention to your body language.
E. If so, it’s time to rethink how you communicate.
16. ________
17. ________
18. ________
19. ________
20. Which of these tips do you think is the most important, and why (不超过20词)
__________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In the small town of Riverbend, the children loved playing a game called Tower (塔) Builders. The goal was simple: stack (叠) wooden blocks as high as possible without letting the tower fall. Every year, the town held a ____21____ to see which team could build the tallest, strongest tower.
This year, four ____22____ —Jake, Emma, Leo and Sofia—decided to enter. They were excited but soon realized they had different ideas.
“We should build ____23____ to make it tall,” Jake said.
“No, we need a strong base (根基) first,” Emma ____24____.
Leo and Sofia also had their own ideas, and soon, they were arguing rather than building. As a result, their first tower was shaky and fell ____25____ it got very high. They tried many times, but it didn’t work.
Feeling ____26____, they sat down. “It’s too difficult.” Sofia complained.
Just then, Mr. Howard, an old carpenter (木匠), ____27____. He smiled and said, “A strong tower, like a strong team, needs balance. Everyone has different strengths. Use them ____28____.”
The friends looked at each other and realized their mistake. They had been working separately rather than as a ____29____.
This time, they had a disoussion and made a plan. Emma was patient and ____30____ built a strong base. Then, Jake, who was fast, stacked blocks quickly on the base. Leo, with a careful hand, placed the most challenging pieces. And Sofia, who had the best eye, ____31____ for weak parts. The building work went on smoothly.
Slowly, their tower grew ____32____ and stronger than before. Other teams watched in amazement. When time was up, their tower was the tallest in the competition!
The judge announced, “The ____33____ are Jake, Emma, Leo, and Sofia!”
With excitement, the friends ____34____ and hugged each other. From the competition they learned ____35____ they could achieve more—by working together and using each other’s strengths.
21. A. meeting B. ceremony C. discussion D. competition
22. A. friends B. brothers C. sisters D. classmates
23. A. carefully B. quickly C. slowly D. patiently
24. A. asked B. agreed C. talked D. argued
25. A. after B. until C. before D. since
26. A. proud B. bored C. surprised D. upset
27. A. stepped out B. walked by C. went away D. fell off
28. A. alone B. politely C. together D. freely
29. A. team B. pair C. family D. member
30. A. he B. she C. you D. they
31. A. checked B. asked C. paid D. hoped
32. A. bigger B. nicer C. taller D. lighter
33. A. players B. visitors C. winners D. losers
34. A. discussed B. suggested C. greeted D. cheered
35. A. how B. when C. why D. where
第二节、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
将方框中所给词（词组）的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
two take instead of active seriously
(The interviewer of Newsround is talking with the bird expert, Maya Rose.)
Interviewer: Good evening, Maya. Welcome to Newsround!
Maya: Thanks for having me.
Interviewer: You play an ____36____ role in bird protection. How did you start studying birds
Maya: My parents ____37____ me to bird watching when I was nine days old, so I’ve been doing it forever.
Interviewer: Unluckily, many birds are still endangered.
Maya: Yeah, nature is ____38____ facing terrible times.
Interviewers: How can people help birds from home
Maya: First, if you have a garden, providing food and water is very helpful. ____39____, consider making small changes in your daily life—using less plastic, recycling more, and riding a bike ____40____ driving. These actions make a big difference.
根据文中所给的中文提示填空，每空一词。
Have you seen the movie Ne Zha 2 It is really ____41____ (酷) to watch. It tells us a lot about friends and teamwork.
After ____42____ (拯救) the world from disasters in the first movie, Ne Zha and his best friend Ao Bing become ____43____ (英雄). However, peace doesn’t last long. A new danger ____44____ (出现) —a huge monster that brings storms to the village.
Ne Zha and his friends must stop it. To make ____45____ (他自己) stronger, Ne Zha learns new magic skills and trains hard. Ao Bing helps him ____46____ (沿着) the way.
During their adventure, Ne Zha faces many challenges. ____47____ (尽管) he meets much stronger enemies, he never gives up. Then Ne Zha discovers that light magic will make the monster really ____48____ (害怕). In the final fight, Ne Zha uses his newfound abilities to beat the monster. He protects everyone ____49____ (再, 又).
From Ne Zha 2, we can learn that real ____50____ (友谊) can beat any difficulty. It shows us that if we stay with our friends, we can do the impossible.
第三节、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分；共计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Yue Opera used to be a local Zhejiang art form enjoyed by the old people. But today it ____51____ (love) by young people all over China.
Actress Chen Lijun has brought it onto a ____52____ (wide) stage than before. In her new performance, she used both singing ____53____ dancing, which surprised viewers. She wants more people to see ____54____ beautiful and exciting it can be. She also hopes parents will encourage ____55____ (they) children to learn about it and keep the tradition alive.
Chen Lijun is not alone in bringing Yue Opera back to life. Xiao Bai Hua has also played a big role. In 2023, their show New Dragon Gate Inn ____56____ (be) a big success, attracting young people and selling out tickets. According to Mao Weitao, ____57____ famous Yue Opera artist, this success did not happen overnight. She says that many people have worked hard for ____58____ (year) to keep Yue Opera alive. She believes it is important ____59____ (use) Yue Opera to tell stories that connect with today’s world but still follow the traditional skills of Chinese opera.
Because of these efforts, Yue Opera is growing ____60____ (rapid) now. More students are choosing to study it, which shows that old traditions can still shine in modern world.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
61. 假设你是校英语社团的编辑李华，你校将举办主题为“Enjoy English, Enjoy Chinese Traditional Art!”的表演比赛。请根据提示，用英语写一篇活动通知。
Time 2:00-4:00, Friday afternoon, April 25th
Place school playground
Purpose improve spoken English spread Chinese culture ...
Activities show art performance: paper cutting, kite flying ... give a general introduction in English about your work ...
注意：
（1）短文必须包括表格中的所有信息，可适当发挥；
（2）文中不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息；
（3）词数：80~100。开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear students,
Our school is going to hold a performance competition called “Enjoy English. Enjoy Chinese Traditional Art!”________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
If you’re interested in it, please come to the English club before April 21st to sign up.
台州市2025年九年级教学质量评估试题
英语
亲爱的考生：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，仔细答题，发挥最佳水平。答题时，请注意以下几点：
1. 全卷共10页。满分120分。考试时间100分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的“注意事项”，按规定答题。
第一部分 听力（共3节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
1. Who can play the guitar
A. Tom. B. Peter. C. Linda.
2. Where does the woman want to go
A. To a bank. B. To a restaurant. C. To a supermarket.
3. Whose schoolbag is this
A. Wendy’s. B. David’s. C. Betty’s.
4. What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student.
5. What are the two speakers talking about
A. A holiday plan. B. A weekend activity. C. A festival celebration.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
听对话，回答以下各小题。
6. Where did Mike go on vacation
A. The beach. B. The villages. C. The mountains.
7. How was Mike’s vacation
A. Boring. B. Great. C. Special.
听对话，回答以下各小题。
8. What was Mary doing when Paul called her
A. Making dinner. B. Cleaning the room. C. Having fun in the park.
9. What are the speakers going to do tomorrow
A. See the dentist. B. Study in the library. C. Clean up the City Park.
10. Where are they going to meet
A. At the park. B. At the school gate. C. At Mary’s home.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. How long will it take to get to the museum
A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes.
12. Who is Jane Wilson
A. The guide. B. The teacher. C. The museum director.
13. What is special about the museum
A. Students can take away things in the museum.
B. Students are allowed to touch pots and rings.
C. Students can make inventions in the museum.
14. How do the students find information in the Technology Center
A. By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking teachers for help.
15. What does the speaker want students to do after the trip
A. Write a report about the trip. B. Choose gifts from the museum. C. Share their experience with others.
第二部分 阅读理解（共2节，满分40分）
第一节、阅读理解（本题有15小题，每小题2分；共计30分）
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. A 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. D 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. B 14. C 15. A
第二节、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题2分；共计10分）
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. C
18. A 19. B
20. Let others join in the topic. Because it makes conversations more interesting and enjoyable.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. A
第二节、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分；共计15分）
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. active
37. took 38. seriously
39. Second 40. instead of
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. cool
42. saving 43. heroes
44. appears
45. himself
46. along 47. Although##Though
48. afraid##frightened##scared
49. again 50. friendship
第三节、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分；共计10分）
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51. is loved
52. wider 53. and
54. how 55. their
56. was 57. a
58. years 59. to use
60. rapidly
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear students,
Our school is going to hold a performance competition called “Enjoy English. Enjoy Chinese Traditional Art!”
The competition will take place from 2:00 to 4:00 on Friday afternoon, April 25th, at the school playground. The purpose of this competition is to improve spoken English and spread Chinese culture, creating a bridge between language learning and cultural appreciation.
There will be a variety of fascinating activities, such as art performances like paper cutting and kite flying, which highlight the beauty of Chinese traditions. Each player is required to give a clear and general introduction in English about their performance. This is not only a fantastic opportunity to show your talents but also a chance to deepen your understanding of traditional Chinese art. Don’t miss this exciting event!
If you’re interested in it, please come to the English club before April 21st to sign up.

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