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七年级英语 20250422
一、听力（共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，计 20 分）
第一部分 听对话回答问题
本部分共有 10 道小题，每小题你将听到一段对话，每段对话听两遍。
1. How is Jimmy going to see the boy
A. B. C.
2. What does Tina want to have
A. B. C.
3. Whose clothes are those
A. B. C.
4. Where are they now
A. B. C.
5. What does Judy think of the town
A. Quiet and beautiful. B. Busy and clean. C. Big and beautiful.
6. When will the speakers go to Shanghai Disneyland
A. This Friday. B. This Saturday. C. This Sunday.
7. How long did the boy spend in the park yesterday
A. Two hours. B. Three hours. C. Five hours.
8. How often does Amy take her dog for a walk
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. Does the woman know where the hospital is
A. Yes. B. but she knows the library. C. She is new.
10. What’s wrong with the little boy
A. He loses his way. B. He can’t find his toy. C. Daniel takes away his toy.
第二部分 听对话和短文回答问题
听一段对话，回答第 11 至 12 小题。
11. Who is Gilbert
A. A basketball player. B. A football player. C. A famous singer.
12. Why is Gilbert coming to their city
A. To watch a match. B. To give a talk. C. To have a match.
听第一篇短文，回答第 13 至 15 小题。
A Day Out
They will have a trip to Sunshine Park ___13___.
When and where to go
How to go They will go there by ___14___
What to do They will ___15___ in the morning and boat in the lake in the afternoon. They will have a picnic lunch in the park.
13. A. this Sunday B. next Sunday C. next Saturday
14. A. bike B. bus C. car
15. A. go swimming B. play volleyball C. fly kites
听第二篇短文，回答第 16 至 20 小题。
16. What is the town like
A. It has many people.
B. It’s quiet and the air is fresh.
C. It’s a small town near the big city.
17. How many floors does Liu Tao’s dream home have
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
18. What doesn’t Liu Tao plant in his garden
A. Flowers. B. Fruit trees. C. Vegetables.
19. What’s in front of Liu Tao’s dream home
A. A river. B. A garden. C. A football field.
20. Where can Liu Tao and his friends chat and play games
A. Near the river. B. In the garden. C. On the football field.
二、单项选择（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，计 15 分）
21. There is _______ “h” and _______ “u” in the word “hour”.
A. a, a B. a,an C. an, a D. an, an
22. There is a new bridge _________ the Yellow River now.
A. over B. above C. through D. at
23. —Is that pencil case _________ , Mike —Yes, it is _________ .
A. your; mine B. your; me C. yours; mine D. yours; me
24. — My parents help at a community centre in their free time for free.
— I also want to be a _________ like them to help people in need.
A. manager B. volunteer C. postman D. designer
25. —________ do you play basketball
— Once a month.
A. How long B. How many C. How often D. How much
26. —Neil, what are your neighbours like
—________.
A. Most of them are famous workers B. They like helping us with our problems
B. They often meet at the community centre D. All of them are caring and kind
27. — It _________ so nice. What beautiful music it is! — Yes, who’s playing it
A. smells B. sounds C. tastes D. looks
28. This is my _________ time to see NeZha 2. But I want to see it _________ time.
A. the second; the third B. second; a third
C. the second time; a third D. second; the third
29. Which of the following words rhymes with “show”
A. strange B. special C. sleep D. snow
30. “Leave me ! I will never feel without you,” the girl shouted.
A. alone, alone B. lonely, lonely C. lonely, alone D. alone, lonely 31. We _________go on a class trip if it_________next week.
A. will not; rains B. won’t; will rain C. do not; will rain D. do not; rains
32．—How can we help the children from the poor villages
—As students, we can ___________ our old books and clothes to them.
A．give back B．give up C．give away D．give out
33. —Do you often hear the students in Class 5 _________ English in the morning
—Yes. What hard-working students!
A. read B. reading C. to read D. reads
34. Nanjing is 6,587 square kilometres in size. How do we say the number “6,587” in English
A. Six million five hundred eighty-seven. B. Six thousand five hundred eighty-seven.
C. Six million five hundred and eighty-seven. D. Six thousand five hundred and eighty-seven.
35. — Would you like to go shopping with us tomorrow
—________. I must stay at home to finish my homework.
A. Excuse me B. Yes, I’d like to C. I’m afraid not D. Have a good time
三、完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，计 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从所给 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
A crow (乌鸦) lived in the forest and was very happy with his life. But one day he __36__ a swan. “This swan
is so white,” he thought, “but I am so __37__ . This swan must be the happiest (最快乐的) bird in the world.”
He told his idea to the swan. “In fact,” the swan answered, “I thought I was the happiest bird __38__ I saw a
parrot. He has two colours. I now think the parrot is the happiest bird.” The crow then went to the parrot. The parrot
said, “I __39__ a very happy life, but then I saw a peacock (孔雀). I have only two __40__ , but the peacock has
many colours.”
The crow then visited a peacock in the zoo and saw many people __41__ to see him. The crow went to the
peacock. “Dear, you are so __42__ . Every day many people visit __43__ . I think you are the happiest bird in the
world.”
The peacock answered, “I __44__ think I am very beautiful and the happiest bird in the world. But because I am
beautiful, people caught me into this __45__ . I look around every day, and I find only the crow doesn’t live in a
cage. __46__ for the days in the future, I hope I can be a crow, and then I can fly here and there __47__ .”
That’s our __48__ too. We always make comparisons (比 较 ) with others and feel sad. So we always feel
unhappy! __49__ to be happy with what you have is important. If you are __50__ with what you have, you will be
the happiest person in the world.
36. A. caught B. left C. helped D. saw
37. A. white B. yellow C. black D. green
38. A. because B. so C. before D. after
39. A. took B. lived C. asked D. went
40. A. eggs B. colours C. feet D. wings
41. A. get B. have C. come D. visit
42. A. big B. beautiful C. busy D. bright
43. A. me B. you C. him D. her
44. A. never B. always C. seldom D. sometimes
45. A. forest B. garden C. park D. zoo
46. A. So B. But C. And D. Or
47. A. happily B. happy C. sadly D. sad
48. A. end B. problem C. treasure D. award
49. A. Working B. Learning C. Doing D. Hoping
50. A. angry B. sad C. happy D. good
四、阅读理解（共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，计 30 分）
阅读下列内容，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
A
51.What type of house is for rent
A. A cottage in a village. B. A farmhouse in a town.
C. A town house with a garden. D. A modern house with a yard.
52.If you want to rent the house, how much will you need to pay every month
A. $800. B. $1,200. C. $2,000. D. $2,400.
53.Which of the following is TRUE
A. The house has a study. B. People can visit the house at any time.
C. The house has an area of 1,200 square metres. D. Renters have to pay three months’rent at a time.
B
Growing up in a small town in the heart of the countryside, my hometown holds a special place in my heart.
My hometown has rich history. Dating back to the early 1800s, some people came to the countryside from the
noisy city and built the town. They tilled (耕种) the land, made the roads and built buildings along them. As I walk
down the wide streets, I can see the buildings still stand tall today. By looking back at the town’s history, I always
feel so proud.
My hometown is also a lively community, where neighbors greet each other with a smile and lend a helping
hand in times of need. From festivals that bring the town together to volunteer chances that make the town better,
there is a strong sense of family. Along the streets, there are many local businesses run by hard-working people.
They offer places for people to catch up over a cup of coffee or share a meal with friends.
My hometown is rich in natural beauty. The rolling hills surround (包围) the town. In the spring, flowers are
everywhere in the town, while in the fall, the leaves turn red and gold. The local park offers a peaceful place where I
often rest and connect with nature.
From the Main Street with mom-and-pop shops to the fields that spread as far as the eye can see, every corner
of this town is filled with memories of my childhood.
54．Who built the town in the early 1800s
A．People from the countryside. B．People from the city.
C．People from other countries. D．People from the nearby town.
55．What can we learn about people in the writer’s hometown
A．They help volunteers a lot.
B．They are friendly to each other.
C．They are good at running businesses.
D．They often have meals with friends at home.
56．What does the writer often do in the local park
A．Think about his shop. B．Climb the hills with his family.
C．Relax and enjoy nature. D．Have festival activities with neighbors.
57．From the passage, we know the writer ________.
A．likes spring much more than fall
B．has a great love for his hometown
C．will write a book about his hometown
D．left his hometown after his childhood
C
Peter Pan is one of the best-loved children's books of all time. It was a play at first, as it became very popular
and the writer James Matthew Barrie decided to write a novel. Barrie was born in Scotland, and he is the ninth of ten
children. He loved reading and playing make-believe games about pirates(海盗) with his school friends. When he
grew up, he wanted to be a writer, so he moved to London. He wrote novels and plays for theatres and articles for
newspapers
In London, Barrie often took his dogs for a walk in Kensington Gardens. One day he met the Llewelyn Davies
family there: George, John Michael, Peter and Nicholas. and their mother Sylvia. They became good friends and
Barrie spent a lot of time with the family. He wrote a story to make the boys happy. The story of Peter Pan was
born. Both adults and children love this book.
The book tells the story of three children Wendy, John and Michael Darling, who live in London with their
parents, their nurse, and a dog called Nana. One night when Mr and Mrs Darling go out, Wendy meet Peter Pan.
Peter Pan is a little boy who never grows up. He can fly and he teaches the Darling children to fly and takes them
away to an island called Neverland. On Neverland they meet pirates, Indians and mermaids and have lots of
adventures(奇遇) --Peter Pan
58. Why did Barrie write the story
A. To make more money.
B. To make the boys in the Llewelyn Davies family happy.
C. To become a famous writer.
D. To teach children how to fly.
59. What can we know about Peter Pan
A. Peter Pan is a little girl who never grows up
B. Peter Pan is the child of the Darling family
C. Peter Pan can fly and teaches the Darling children to fly
D. Peter Pan takes the pirates to Neverland
60. Which of the following about the book Peter Pan is NOT true
A. The book was a novel at first and Barrie turned it into a play
B. Wendy, John and Michael Darling are three children in the book
C. There is an island called Neverland in the book
D. It is one of the best-loved children's books of all time.
61. Which is the right order of Barrie's experiences
①He wrote novels and plays for theatres and articles for newspapers.
②He met the Llewelyn Davies family in Kensington Gardens.
③He loved playing make-believe games about pirates with his school friends.
④He wrote the book Peter Pan.
⑤He moved to London.
A.①③②④⑤ B.⑤③②④①
C.③⑤②④① D.③⑤①②④
D
How can you combine (结合) games with English learning The answer is Wordle! Wordle players must
correctly (正确地) guess a five-letter word with just six tries. You will lose (输掉) the game if you can’t guess the
right word after six tries.
Invented by Josh Wardle, the game has been popular with millions of players all over the world. Every
midnight, Wordle refreshes (更新) its word of the day. For example, the answer for April 10 is BLACK.
As you guess, the game gives you hints (提示). For example, if a letter is correct and in the right place, it turns
green. If the letter is not in the word, it turns gray. If the letter is part of the word but in the wrong place, it turns
yellow. These hints make the game into a puzzle (谜).
To win this game, you need to know a lot about English. Every English word has at least one vowel (元音), so
finding vowels is a useful way. For example, in the word “think”, there is only one syllable (音节) and there is one
vowel /i/.
A few days ago, I played this game and found it very interesting. First, I guessed the word “table”. Only “a”
was green. Then, I guessed “maker” and the “r” turned yellow. In the end, I guessed “carry” and I was correct!
Wordle is a wonderful game to have fun. It’s also helpful to your English learning. Why not have a try in your
free time
62．If the letter is in the word but in the wrong place, it turns ________.
A．red B．gray C．yellow D．green
63．Which of the following words can’t describe (描述) Wordle
A．Easy. B．Popular. C．Interesting. D．Useful.
64．What can we learn from the passage
A．There is only one correct word in Wordle every day.
B．The answer for April 15 may be CARROT.
C．Users can win Wordle if they know little English.
D．Wordle players can get the correct answer after the seventh try.
65．Which of the following best shows the structure (结构) of the passage
A． B． C． D．
五、词汇运用（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，计 10 分）（限每空一词）
66. Could you tell me the two ___________(工程师) names and their designs
67. Why are the students talking about ___________(募集) money for the people in Sri Lanka
68.Lots of people from __________ (西方) countries come to Yangzhou in March..
69.Wow! How nice the (三明治) smell at McDonald's!
70. ---Bad luck! My watch doesn't work well. ---Take it easy. It just needs ___________(修理). 71. The houses in this area are __________(make) of bamboo.
72. As a close friend of _________(she), I can see the sadness in her eyes when she is smiling. 73. Foreigners usually cut some food with _________ (knife) and forks.
74. Han Mei was very _________ (create) and painted a wonderful picture.
75. it seems that they are always willing __________(help) anyone in need..
六、阅读表达（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，计 10 分）
Over the past three years, Kang Jian has made more than 400 dough sculptures (面塑) and become famous in
his hometown in Mohe, Heilongjiang Province.
Kang showed great interest in making dough sculptures when he was a child. Every time his parents made
dumplings, he would ask for a small piece of dough to make animals—a rabbit or a fish. However, Kang didn’t learn
art in college. Kang left college in 2016 and worked as a civil servant.
Then in 2018, during a visit to a museum in Beijing, Kang learnt something about dough sculpting. Then he
had the idea of taking his childhood interest up. He visited some famous artists and learnt from them. His skills
improved a lot.
As a fan of Chinese literature, Kang would like to make dough sculptures of Chinese heroes, such as the
Monkey King and Guan Yu. In April 2022, he finished the dough sculptures of 108 heroes from the novel Outlaws of
the Marsh after 16 months of work.
When Kang is free, he gives classes at schools to teach students to make dough sculptures. He is happy to
have a chance to tell young people about dough sculptures and stories about Chinese folk heroes. He hopes more
young people learn this traditional art.
76. Where is Kang Jian from
77. What does the underlined part “his childhood interest” in paragraph 3 refer to
78. How did Kang Jian improve his skills of making dough sculptures
79. How long did it take Kang Jian to finish the dough sculptures of 108 heroes from the novel Outlaws of the
Marsh
80. What is Kang Jian’s wish
七、缺词填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，计 10 分）
The change in the children’s lives comes very suddenly. One m 81 they are all a happy family, with e 82
that they want. The next minute, Father has to go away w 83 saying anything. “ On business”, Mother
says. But her face is w 84 , and the children know that it’s b 85 news. They have to leave their
nice house in L 86 , go and live in a little house in the c 87 . “We’re poor now.”, Mother says. But
they don’t lose h 88 of life. And there, down the hill from their new house, is the r 89 , with its
lines leading back to London; and the black mouth of the tunnel, where trains come screaming out of the d 90
like great wild animals. They have a wonderful life there. --The Railway Children
八、书面表达（计 30 分）
A. 句子翻译（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，计 10 分）
91. 我的相机出了故障。
92. 这些地区的一些村庄值得去看一看。
93. 你们准备这么多礼物真是太好了。
94. 许多游客喜欢一大早来观看升国旗。
95. 她总是班上第一个到学校的。
B. 写作（计 20 分）
五一劳动节快到了，假如你是 Sandy，想要给你的朋友 Amy 写一封信，介绍你的家乡情况，并邀请对方
到你的家乡来玩。根据下面提供的信息，用英语写一篇邀请信。
要点：
地理位置 在中国的东南部
环境优美，空气清新。 环境
邻居们友好善良，...(发挥 1-2 点)
活动 很多好玩地方——瘦西湖公园(The Slender West Lake )、大明寺(The Daming Temple)等。 可以吃到各种美食。
交通 可以乘飞机到杨泰机场。 离上海不远，乘高铁(high-speed train)只要 1 个多小时。
……
希望 ……
(用两句话表达你的看法)
要求：1)表达清楚，包含所有要点，上下文连贯，可以适当发挥；
2)词数：80 词左右。
3)参考词汇：环境 environment
Dear Amy,
May Day is coming and I would like to invite you to visit my hometown.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Sandy七年级英语参考答案
一、听力（共 20 小题，每小题 1 分，计 20 分)
CCCAA CABAB BCBCC BBCAB
二、单项选择（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，计 15 分）
CACBC DBBDD ACADC
三、完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，计 15 分）
DCCBB CBBBD AABBC
四、阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，计 30 分）
DBB BBCB BCAD CAAC
五、词汇运用（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，计 10 分）
engineers’ raising western sandwiches repairing
made hers knives creative to help
六、阅读表达（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，计 10 分）
61. He is from Mohe, Heilongjiang Province.
62. Making dough sculptures.
63. He learnt from some famous artists./By learning from some famous artists.
64. 16 months.
65. He hopes more young people learn dough sculptures.
七、缺词填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，计 10 分）
minute everything without white bad
London country heart railway darkness
八、书面表达（计 30 分）
A. 句子翻译（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，计 10 分）
There is something wrong with my camera.
Some villages in the area are worth a visit/Some villages in the area are worth visiting.
It’s nice of you to prepare so many presents.
Many visitors like to come early in the morning to watch the raising of the national flag.
She is always the first in her class to get to school.
B. 写作（计 20 分）
略
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