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2025年初中毕业生学业水平模拟考试
英语
考生注意：
1.本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和考号。必须在答题纸的对应位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
3.做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
4.考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分听力理解(共三节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man going
A. To a bookstore. B. To a theater. C. To a supermarket.
2. Whose dictionary is this
A. Ella’s. B. Han Lin’s. C. Binbin’s.
3 What time is it now
A. It’s 7: 15. B. It’s 7: 30. C. It’s 8: 00.
4. Why did the man call Judy
A. To fly a kite. B. To watch a video. C. To show a model plane.
5. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
第二节(共5小题，每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the woman do
A. A writer. B. An actress. C. A reporter.
7. What does the man ask the woman to do
A. Take a photo. B. Tell a story. C. Sign a book.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Why does Tom want to borrow the alarm clock
A. He has an important meeting. B. He wants to watch the sunrise. C. He needs to do his homework.
9. What does Mom think of Tom’s challenge
A. Interesting. B. Difficult. C. Boring.
10. What is part of Tom’s summer challenge
A. Cooking with his dad. B. Climbing a mountain. C. Feeding a bird by hand.
第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. How did the speaker travel last holiday
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By plane.
12. What animals did the speaker want to see most
A. Elephants. B. Giraffes. C. Horses.
13. When did the safari begin
A. In the morning. B. After lunch. C. At night.
14. What were the animals doing when the speaker saw them
A. They were fighting. B. They were playing. C. They were sleeping.
15. How did the speaker feel about the day
A. Unforgettable. B. Normal. C. Tiring.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Class: Science Date: 4/15/2025 What Should You Do if You Find a Baby Bird out of the Nest
the bird is HURT: *Call the animal center(87522125). Carefully pick the bird up and take it to an animal hospital. (Keep it warm and don’t give it any food!)
the bird is NOT HURT: + If it has FEW FEATHERS (羽毛): * You can reach the nest (鸟巢). → Pu t the bird back. * You can’t find or reach the nest. →Call the animal center. + if it has FEATHERS: * Just leave it there! (It’s learning how to fly!)
People believe birds will give up their babies if they have the small of people on them. →WORNG! Birds don’t care!
1. What should you do first if you find a hurt baby bird
A. Give it some food. B. Call the animal center.
C. Keep it as your pet. D. Put it back in the nest.
2. Why should you leave a baby bird with feathers there
A. It is waiting for its mom. B. It is too dangerous to touch.
C. It is learning how to fly. D. It is sick and needs to rest.
3. What will birds probably do if their babies have the smell of people
A. Keep taking care of them. B. Clean the nest again and again.
C. Push them out of the nest. D. Take the babies to a new nest.
4. What is the text mainly about
A. How to help a baby bird fallen from the nest. B. Why baby birds live in trees get hurt.
C. Where to watch big birds with their babies. D. When birds build their nests in trees.
B
When I was eight, I got a book about stars from my dad as a birthday present. That was the beginning of my lifetime interest.
I used to go outside with my mom on clear nights and look at the sky. It looked like black silk with a million diamonds(钻石) on it. In different seasons, we saw different groups of stars. In winter, the “belt” of Orion appeared in the night sky, its three stars perfectly lined up and shining brightly. In summer, we saw Vega shine brightly as it got dark. Sometimes we saw stars shooting across the sky. How beautiful they were! Every time I looked up, I was amazed, as if the sky was speaking to me in its own way.
Studying the stars was great fun for me, and I was greatly curious about the night sky. Once I learnt a little, I soon wanted to find out more and more. I asked all kinds of questions, and my parents were always very patient with me. If they didn’t know the answers, they would encourage me to find them in the library. So I read a lot about the topic, and my understanding increased as I grew older.
Now, studying the stars is my career. I host a TV program called The Sky at Night. I use my knowledge to take people on a journey across the Milky Way, and I teach people about the different stars in a lively way. My TV program has lasted more than 50 years, and I am really proud of that!
Actually, you too can turn your interests into your career. Anybody can achieve their dreams. You just have to enjoy what you do!
5. When did the writer begin his lifetime interest
A. When he watched a show about stars. B. When he first saw a shooting star.
C. When he visited a space museum. D. When he got a book about stars.
6. What does the underlined word “they” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A The stars. B. The seasons. C. The diamonds. D. The books.
7. What might the writer’s parents say when he asked difficult questions
A. You’d better think about more possible jobs.
B. Maybe you can look up the answers in the library.
C. Could you please finish your homework first
D. Would you mind stopping asking these questions
8. What is the purpose of the last paragraph
A. To introduce different kinds of stars. B. To explain why the writer became a host.
C. To show challenges of studying stars. D. To encourage us to follow their interests.
C
Are you a nature lover Then you must visit Zhangye Geopark in China! It has been regarded by UNESCO as one of the world’s top geoparks. If you enjoy beautiful views of nature, it’s really worth a visit. Here, you can see the beauty of the rainbow hills.
They are low hills that look like waves and have many different colors, just like a rainbow! There is hardly any grass growing on the land. When you see the hills from above, it’s like you’re looking at rainbows painted on the ground.
You may wonder how these colorful hills came to be. Millions of years ago, this area was under a lake. Over time, rivers brought in sand and stones with different kinds of metal elements (元素). These were left in layers (层) on the bottom of the lake. Some layers were red, some yellow, and others turned purple or blue. Later, as the climate became colder and drier, the lake dried up. Then, something amazing happened! The underground land began to rise and push against each other. The layers of sandstone were lifted higher and higher. Through years of wind, sun, and rain, they formed the colorful hills we see today.
June to September is the best time to visit Zhangye Geopark. During this period, the weather is pleasant, and the mornings and evenings are cooler than the hot days, providing perfect weather to enjoy the sunrises and sunsets. Sunshine after a summer rain will make the colors of the hills appear even brighter and more beautiful.
9. Where is Zhangye Geopark
A. In Europe. B. In Africa. C. In China. D. In Thailand.
10. What makes the hills in Zhangye Geopark special
A. They are the highest in the world. B. They have many colors like a rainbow.
C. They were discovered by UNESCO. D. They are covered with lots of green grass.
11. What is the correct order of how the rainbow hills were formed
A. b-a-c B. b-c-a C. c-a-b D. c-b-a
12. Why is June to September the best time to visit
A. The lakes are cleaner in this period. B. The park is less crowded these months.
C. The weather is better for viewing. D. The hills are much higher than usual.
D
How many close friends do you have And does the number of friends you have make a difference to your life
Researchers in Australia studied 1,500 people over 70 and found that those with strong friendships live longer. One key reason is that good friends encourage healthy habits. For example, people with close friends are more likely to exercise, eat well, and feel good about themselves.
Friendships also influence wealth. An American study of 10,000 students, over a period of 35 years, found that if you make more friends at school, you’ll make more money in later life. People need good social skills at work to manage people and work in a team successfully. These are the same skills we use to make friends at school.
Online networks make it easy to stay in touch. On average, teenagers have 500 online “friends,” while adults have130. But according to Oxford professor Robin Dunbar, people regularly communicate with only about 150. He suggests we typically have five very close friends, ten more we contact sometimes, 35 we share hobbies with, and 100 we don’t know well. Beyond this, relationships become less meaningful.
However, having too many online friends might be harmful. A Canadian study of teenagers found that highly sociable users experienced more anxiety. Seeing others’ “perfect lives” can make people feel bad, and being popular online can cause social pressure.
If you have a lot of online “friends”, try this: first take away all the people you can’t remember. Then those you haven’t been in touch with for a year and, finally take away friends who you wouldn’t care if you lost touch with. How many do you have left How many of these people are actually good friends According to the research, these are the only people that really matter.
13. What helps people live longer according to the text
A. Having strong friendships. B. Working together in a team.
C Having plenty of money. D. Using online networks often.
14. What does the underlined word “anxiety” in Paragraph 5 mean
A Illnesses. B. Stress. C. Loneliness. D. Accidents.
15. Which of the following opinions might the writer agree with
A. Having more friends can always make our life better.
B. Good friends should share everything with each other.
C. Online friends are more important than real-life friends.
D. True friendships matter more than the number of friends.
第二节任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项)，并回答最后小题。
Tips for English Learning
You can learn a lot from your English classes, but you can also learn a lot outside of school. Here are some tips for improving your English!
Listen to music! A lot of popular songs are in English. ____16____ You can also watch videos for many songs online with subtitles (字幕). Watch movies! Are you a movie fan Choose a movie you know and like in your own language, and watch it in English. It’s easy to watch with subtitles, and you can write down any new or useful words. Read! Read a novel in your own language, and then read it in English. ____17____ Talk! Conversations are the best way to get confident in a new language. Find an English-speaking friend online and talk by sending messages or having a video. Just be careful! Don’t give away too much personal information. ____18____ You can’t improve in just one weekend so don’t study for hours every day—just a little every day is enough to make progress.
COMMENTS Fabiana, 15, Brazil I love speaking English! I’m online every evening and I talk with my friend Aiko. She’s from Japan. She can’t speak Portuguese and I can’t speak Japanese, so we chat in English. ____19____ It isn’t hard as we have a lot of things in common—we are both big fans of rock music, and we’re both in 10th grade.
A. Keep an English diary! B. We talk almost every day. C. Don’t overdo it! D. Don’t worry about understanding every word when you listen. E. You can compare them to find the meaning of new words.
Which tip do you like best How will you use it in English learning (不超过20词)
________________20________________
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
Moms are moms. And when you are growing up, you don’t always know how much they do for you. They’re just moms. But they do some pretty cool things too. They do things that you ____21____ all your life.
My mom was like that. When I was six years old, one of my front ____22____ was very loose (松动). When I touched it, I could move it back and forth. I was scared. I didn’t know what was going on, ____23____ I asked Mom to look at it. “In the next few years, all of ____24____ teeth will fall out.” said Mom. I cried. “How will I ____25____ my food ”
Mom laughed. “Don’t worry,” she said. “Each of us gets ____26____ sets of teeth. Your baby teeth are not designed to last a long time. They are there just to make a place for your permanent (永久的) teeth to ____27____.
But I was worried. “It will ____28____ so much,” I said. I imagined how it would feel to have a tooth fall out.
Mom said that she could help me. She asked me to sit in a chair and close my eyes.
Mom reached into my ____29____ and took hold of the loose tooth. “Keep your eyes shut,” she said. “Think about something ____30____ to relax yourself. I will just ____31____ this tooth.” Then, Mom said, “Open your eyes.” You know what She was holding the tooth in her hand. I could ____32____ believe it. While she was ____33____, she pulled the tooth out and I did not feel a thing!
That’s just the way it is with ____34____. They know what to do. And they have a way of doing it that makes it ____35____.
21. A. remember B. doubt C. regret D. prepare
22. A. windows B. seats C. doors D. teeth
23. A. so B. but C. as D. unless
24. A. my B. your C. her D. their
25. A. eat B. cook C. buy D. hold
26. A. two B. three C. four D. five
27. A. get off B. hang out C. come in D. fall over
28. A. cost B. hurt C. waste D. improve
29. A. hand B. mouth C. pocket D. bag
30. A. funny B. scary C. sad D. serious
31. A. mark B. check C. brush D. clean
32. A. gradually B. strongly C. hardly D. fully
33. A. singing B. sleeping C. crying D. talking
34. A. dads B. doctors C. teachers D. moms
35. A. active B. painless C. difficult D. strange
第二节词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.
将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
blow but luck slowly at least
There was once a young man who always saw the bad side of things.
One day, he and his friend went on a trip to an island. The wind ____36____ their boat away. They called for help, but it would be ____37____ a couple of hours before anyone would find them.
As they waited, the young man complained (抱怨) about the heat and the bad ____38____ they were having.
When he reached for their water bottle, he said, “Oh, no! The water bottle is half empty!” “____39____ it is half full too.” said his friend.
The young man looked at his friend seriously. Then a smile ____40____ appeared on his face. “You’re right! Being negative doesn’t help.”
Now the man becomes a person who sees the glass half full, not half empty!
B.
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Some teens pay attention to what they look like every time before they go out. They want to look their best in front of their friends. But they should realize that even if they ____41____ (花) a lot of time or even money on their physical appearance, they ____42____ (仍然) might not be able to make a good impression (印象). That’s ____43____ (因为) they fail to notice one simple ____44____ (规则)—keeping their breath pleasant. We have to know that bad breath will ____45____ (创造) an extremely bad impression. If you have bad breath, people will ____46____ (避免) staying by your side even if you look smart.
If you want to make a good impression on others, you should follow these three ____47____ (步骤). To begin with, brush your teeth ____48____ (两次) a day. Also, you should not forget to floss (用牙线剔) your teeth every day. Doing both regularly can help to prevent tooth decay or food getting stuck between your teeth. But there are germs (细菌) in your mouth which you can’t get rid of completely just by brushing or flossing. If you ____49____ (允许) these germs to grow, they will lead to bad breath. Using mouthwash regularly is also a must.
If you do these every day, you’ll have ____50____ (新鲜) and clean breath and look your best.
第三节语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
When you call your dog’s name from another room, does your pet know who’s speaking The answer may be yes. Researchers from Hungary have discovered that dogs can tell apart the voices of different ____51____ (member) of their human family.
The research team tested 31 pet dogs. Three owners of each dog ____52____ (ask) to record their voices. All three people then sat ____53____ (quiet) in front of the dog while the recording played. It was surprising the dogs went nearer or spent ____54____ (many) time looking at the person whose voice they heard. They responded (反应) best to the voice of ____55____ (they) main owner.
“The study ____56____ (show) that dogs know a lot about human voices — not only whether they heard it before or not, ____57____ also whom the voice belongs to.” said researcher Anna Gabor. Only a few other animals have shown ____58____ ability to recognize human voices. Experts hope ____59____ (find) out if other animals have this ability so they can better understand how different animals learn to communicate ____60____ each other.
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
61. 英语杂志Sunny Teens正在征集中学生对体育运动的看法。你校开展了调查，下图是“What do you enjoy most about playing sports ”这一问题的汇总数据。请用英语向杂志投稿，简要介绍调查结果 (不少于三条)，并结合个人爱好谈谈你对该问题的看法。
注意：(1)文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
(2)词数80左右；文章的开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Our school did a survey among students last week, asking what we enjoy most about playing sports. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025年初中毕业生学业水平模拟考试
英语
考生注意：
1.本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和考号。必须在答题纸的对应位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
3.做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
4.考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分听力理解(共三节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man going
A. To a bookstore. B. To a theater. C. To a supermarket.
2. Whose dictionary is this
A. Ella’s. B. Han Lin’s. C. Binbin’s.
3. What time is it now
A. It’s 7: 15. B. It’s 7: 30. C. It’s 8: 00.
4. Why did the man call Judy
A. To fly a kite. B. To watch a video. C. To show a model plane.
5. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
第二节(共5小题，每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the woman do
A. A writer. B. An actress. C. A reporter.
7. What does the man ask the woman to do
A. Take a photo. B. Tell a story. C. Sign a book.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Why does Tom want to borrow the alarm clock
A. He has an important meeting. B. He wants to watch the sunrise. C. He needs to do his homework.
9. What does Mom think of Tom’s challenge
A. Interesting. B. Difficult. C. Boring.
10. What is part of Tom’s summer challenge
A. Cooking with his dad. B. Climbing a mountain. C. Feeding a bird by hand.
第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. How did the speaker travel last holiday
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By plane.
12. What animals did the speaker want to see most
A. Elephants. B. Giraffes. C. Horses.
13. When did the safari begin
A. In the morning. B. After lunch. C. At night.
14. What were the animals doing when the speaker saw them
A. They were fighting. B. They were playing. C. They were sleeping.
15. How did the speaker feel about the day
A. Unforgettable. B. Normal. C. Tiring.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~4题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A
B
【5~8题答案】
【答案】5. D 6. A 7. B 8. D
C
【9~12题答案】
【答案】9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C
D
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. A 14. B 15. D
第二节任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. D 17. E
18. C 19. B
20. I like the “Talk” tip. I’ll find an English-speaking friend online and talk with him or her every day.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. D 34. D 35. B
第二节词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. blew
37. at least
38. luck 39. But
40. slowly
B.
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. spend
42. still 43. because
44. rule 45. create
46. avoid 47. steps
48. twice 49. allow
50. fresh
第三节语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51. members
52. were asked
53. quietly
54. more 55. their
56. shows 57. but
58. the 59. to find
60. with
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
【61题答案】
【答案】范文：
Our school did a survey among students last week, asking what we enjoy most about playing sports. The results are quite interesting.
According to the survey, 30% of the students enjoy learning new skills through sports. Another 25% like sports because it helps them reduce stress. 20% of the students find having fun as the most appealing part, and 20% think being fit and healthy is the best thing about sports. Only 5% chose “Others”.
As for me, I really like playing basketball. I enjoy the process of learning new skills like dribbling and shooting. It’s a great way to challenge myself. Also, when I play basketball with my friends, we have a lot of fun. We laugh, cheer for each other, and the stress from study just fades away. Moreover, it keeps me fit and energetic. So, playing sports is not only good for our body but also brings us joy and new skills.

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