资源简介

绝密★考试结束前
浙东北县域名校发展联盟（ZDB）
2024/2025学年第二学期期中考试高二英语试卷
考生须知：
1. 本卷共10页满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号并填涂相应数字。
3. 所有答案必须写在答题纸上，写在试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后，只需上交答题纸。
第I卷（选择题部分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What are the speakers probably doing
A. Making soup. B. Having a meal. C. Ordering food.
2. What is the weather like now
A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
3. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a coffee shop. B. In a theater. C. In the street.
4. What will the speakers do next
A. Visit a friend. B. Pick up Millie. C. Go to a store.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. How to lose weight. B. When to do exercise. C. Where to buy beer.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man like most about his new job
A. The dress code. B. The workload. C. The colleagues.
7. What is the man going to do tomorrow
A. Meet his boss. B. Take a vacation. C. Visit his former workmates.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What probably is the man
A. A shopkeeper. B. An office worker. C. A construction worker.
9. When did the land become vacant
A. In February. B. In June. C. In November.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. How does the woman sound at the beginning of the conversation
A. Worried. B. Relieved. C. Surprised.
11. What should the woman do when she arrives next time
A. Have her bad tooth washed. B. Have her tooth sharpened. C. Have her tooth filled.
12. What does the woman think of the whole treatment
A. It’s easy. B. It’s complicated. C. It’s expensive.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Colleagues. B. Classmates. C. Librarian and library user.
14. Which kind of banana is most popular in Australia
A. Williams. B. Lady Finger. C. Cavendish.
15. Why does Joey speak of China
A. To talk about Chinese migrants.
B. To describe how to plant bananas.
C. To explain the Australian bananas’ history.
16. What might Mary research into
A. Plants. B. Clothes. C. Animals.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. How did the speaker find out about Alain Ducasse
A. From an article. B. From her mother. C. From a restaurant.
18. How many restaurants has Alain Ducasse owned
A. 21. B. 36. C. 56.
19. What did Alain Ducasse do in 2015
A. He moved to America. B. He traveled to outer space. C. He provided food for astronauts.
20. Why does the speaker tell the story of Alain Ducasse
A. To present a background. B. To discuss a new topic. C. To support her opinion.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Treating Rarer Cases in First Aid Scenarios
Help someone who is having a seizure (疾病突然发作).
Seizures can be scary things for people who have never experienced them before. Luckily, helping people with seizures is relatively straightforward.
Clear the surroundings to protect the person from hurting themselves.
Activate (激活) emergency medical services if the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or if the person is not breathing afterward.
After this period of time has ended, help them to the floor and put something soft or flat under their head. Turn them onto their side to ease breathing, but do not hold the person down or try to stop their movements.
Be friendly and reassure them as their consciousness returns and do not offer food or water until they are fully alert.
Help someone survive a heart attack.
It helps to know the symptoms of a heart attack, which can include rapid heartbeat, pressure or pain in the chest, a sore throat, general unease, and sweating. Rush the person to the hospital immediately while giving them an aspirin (阿司匹林), which the person should chew.
Identify someone having a stroke.
Again, knowing the symptoms of a stroke is important. They include temporary inability to talk or understand what is being said, confusion, loss of balance or dizziness, inability to raise their arms and severe headaches with no warning, among others. Rush a person that you suspect has had a stroke to the emergency room immediately.
21. Which is proper concerning saving a person having a seizure
A. Protecting them against injuries from others.
B. Having them eat or drink nothing before recovery.
C. Keeping their face down to make sure of their breath.
D. Contacting doctors the moment the condition happens.
22. What is a symptom of a heart attack
A. Loss of balance. B. Confusion. C. Slow heartbeat. D. A sore throat.
23. Where is the text most likely taken from
A. A website about health. B. A magazine for seniors.
C. A guidebook about animals. D. A brochure for visitors.
B
As a mother and a professional working full time, I spent all of my 30 years saying yes. Saying yes to things I wanted to do, but a lot of the time saying yes to things I disliked. This was a people-pleasing technique that would affect people’s opinion of me: the woman who could do it all, so that I can obtain a nice fame in their mind.
Little did I know that I was also developing an autoimmune (自身免疫的) disease, which I have to believe was my body’s way of telling me to slow down. I had severely swollen joints and brain fog but I pushed through so that I could look in the mirror at the end of the day and feel “accomplished”. The only things I was accomplishing were bad health and bad habits.
And then a series of events changed everything: serious medical issues and losing my job. It took all that to help me see how intensely burnt out I was. I spent a lot of time thinking about where I had to be next instead of being present in the moment. But now, I wake up each day knowing that everything on my schedule has been purposefully agreed to.
Looking back, I had the capability to suffer the pressure to say yes. I also felt it necessary to say yes, from driving people to the airport to seeing family every Friday night. I always wanted to solve everyone’s problems and offered sound and immediate solutions. It was one big “yes” to everything.
I was everyone’s cheerleader, but forgot how to cheer for myself along the way. But saying no is being my own cheerleader. And it’s not saying no to caring for family and friends. Instead, it’s a minor change in mindset, taking a pause before automatically agreeing. I take a breath, do a quick count of my energy and ability before jumping in.
24. Why did the author say yes to things she disliked
A. To please her boss. B. To prove her profession.
C. To earn herself a good reputation. D. To push herself to the limit.
25. How did the author deal with the changes in her body
A. She got rid of bad habits. B. She thought little of them.
C. She slowed down her life pace. D. She paid more attention to her health.
26. What will the author do before saying yes
A. Find a cheerleader. B. Evaluate her situation.
C. Breathe in some fresh air. D. Seek help from her friends.
27. Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage
A. Ways to Improve Time Management B. The Dangers of Autoimmune Diseases
C. How to Build a Good Reputation at Work D. The Importance of Saying “No” for Self-Care
C
An alarming phenomenon has sprung up over the past few years: Many students are arriving at college unprepared to read entire books. A Columbia professor said his students are overwhelmed at the thought of reading multiple books a semester; a professor at the University of Virginia said that his students shut down when they’re confronted with ideas they don’t understand. Criticizing young people’s literacy is a pastime that stretches back centuries, but in the past decade, something seems to have noticeably shifted. Most of the professors said they’ve seen a generational change in how their students engage with literature.
Why is this happening The allure of smartphones and social media came up, and it appears that many middle and high schools are teaching fewer full books. The problem does not appear to be that “kids these days” are incurious or uninterested in reading. Instead, young people might be responding to a cultural message: Books just aren’t that important.
Professors didn’t think their students were lazy. If anything, they were shocked at how over-scheduled and anxious college kids are today—and they saw that their students’ schedules are crowded with activities that are less about personal development and more relevant to future employment. There are too many demands on their time and focus to immerse themselves easily or fully in works of literature that might take 20 hours to consume.
In 1971, 37 percent of students said that a central objective of their college years was to become well-off financially. Seventy-three percent said it was to develop a meaningful philosophy of life. By now, those numbers had almost reversed. Eighty-two percent of students said that it was essential for them to use college to become well-off financially, while 47 percent said they wanted to develop a meaningful philosophy of life. Pundits and parents alike have emphasized preprofessional courses and downplayed the importance of humanistic study. In this environment, spending hours reading a novel may seem unproductive.
28. Why does the author mention two professors in paragraph 1
A. To draw a conclusion. B. To put forward the topic.
C. To provide background information. D. To give supporting evidence to the topic.
29. What does the underlined word “allure” mean in paragraph 2
A. appearance B. charm C. decline D. reputation
30. What may contribute to college students’ change in reading books
A. The widespread of digital devices. B. The disappearance of literature interest.
C. The laziness character in human nature. D. The finance situation in their college life.
31. How does the author develop the last paragraph
A. By giving a description. B. By listing numbers.
C. By making a comparison. D. By offering examples.
D
Many actors have famously remarked that they have, time and again, lost themselves in their performances. Now, researchers at University College London (UCL) have found some truth to this statement. A new study suggests actors may contain their sense of self when they take on a new character, hinting at the massive impact theater training may have on fundamental mechanisms of the human brain.
“Our findings indicate that cooperating with the theater industry could be helpful in producing theories about social interaction that could also be investigated in the real world,” said Dwaynica Greaves, lead author of the study. In particular, the researchers are hoping that future work in this space can focus on how participation in theatrical activities might help people with autism (自闭症).
The actors in the study were fitted with brain imaging technology while they rehearsed scenes from Shakespeare’s A Midsummer Night’s Dream. When they heard their names while performing, their response was contained in the brain region associated with self-awareness. While they were not performing, the actors responded normally when called by name.
The study also looked at interpersonal coordination between pairs of actors. The researchers noticed that two actors rehearsing together had similar brain activity in the regions of the brain associated with social interaction and action planning, revealing “specific brain systems that are coordinated during complex social interactions”.
In fact, drama therapy has been considered a beneficial practical strategy for improving social communication in children with developmental or learning disabilities. An initial study found students with autism who underwent theater experiences showed significant positive changes in the development of social and language skills.
In the future, researchers at UCL aim to include both trained and untrained actors as subjects. The recent study, admittedly, lacked a control group of people without theater training and had a small sample size of only 6 actors. But the researchers remain hopeful of the possible future applications of their findings in aiding social communication, including in individuals with autism.
32. What did the new study find about actors taking on a role
A. Their self-awareness may weaken. B. They may lose themselves completely.
C. Their brain mechanisms may be damaged. D. They may forget their previous experiences.
33. How did the researchers conduct the study
A. By interacting with the actors. B. By observing the actors’ behavior.
C. By surveying the actors’ responses. D. By monitoring the actors’ brain activity.
34. What did drama therapy bring to students with autism
A. Improved physical health. B. Enhanced cognitive abilities.
C. Strengthened interpersonal skills. D. Increased academic performance.
35. What can be inferred about the study
A. The researchers lacked expertise. B. It can be used to train child actors.
C. It is promising despite its limitations. D. It is a major breakthrough in medicine.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中两项为多余选项。
True, some of us find sweating takes effort and is even a little unpleasant. 36 Here are some pretty incredible reasons why sweating is good for you.
● Defeat Harmful Microbes (微生物)
Working up a sweat is good for the immune system. 37 It turns out that sweat can defeat certain harmful bacteria and viruses in the body.
● Protect the Heart
Healthy sweating increases blood flow and strengthens the cardiovascular (心血管) system. In one study, those with the most weekly exercise sessions were the least likely to have a negative cardiovascular event. Sports also improve relaxation and reduce stress. 38
● Speed Recovery After Exercise
Sweating increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and improves well-being. 39 Studies show sweating event increases growth hormone production. It is the body’s way of repairing itself.
● Lower Stress Hormones
Sweating also activates the parasympathetic response (副交感神经反应) in the body. This de-stress mode helps us to relax, digest, and recover. Breaking a sweat through exercise helps relieve anxiety and depression. After we sweat, stress hormones go down.
No matter how much we might not enjoy sweating, it’s completely normal. It can keep us healthy as we move through our days. 40 I’d say that’s a resounding yes!
A. So is sweating good for you
B. Breaking a sweat can save your life.
C. That is good for heart and mental health.
D. But the health benefits of sweating are obvious
E. This in turn helps recover from illness, injury, and muscle strain.
F. In a way, sweating can influence your confidence and well-being.
G. Studies show sweating can cut our chance of getting the flu by one-third!
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可填入空白处的最佳选项。
No one is willing to fall ill, especially in a foreign country alone. 41 , such was exactly what happened to me.
A few months ago, while I was engaged in a volunteering project in Mwanza, Tanzania, something 42 happened—I fell ill. Despite my 43 to take medicines and avoid unboiled water, I was hit hard. I was 44 to a clinic with a high fever and severe body pain. Alone and terrified, I even thought, at a certain moment, that it was the 45 .
46 a battery of tests, I received a diagnosis (诊断) of serious malaria. The doctor gave me injections and tablets, 47 I wouldn’t have to be admitted to the hospital. I 48 taking the tablets, and desperately thinking “keep these down, keep these down!”, but nothing worked and I had to be 49 .
Tears coursed down my cheeks. I was 50 with fear. Then, a kind nurse 51 . She remained by my side for a full eight hours even after her shift 52 , gently holding my hand. Her presence was really a great 53 . Had it not been for her, I can’t imagine how I could have 54 that night. The medicines gradually took effect and soon I was released.
I never learned her name, yet the nurse has left a deep mark. It serves as a reminder that in the darkest times, a simple act of kindness can make a difference, crossing 55 and bringing warmth to strangers in need.
41. A. Regrettably B. Constantly C. Originally D. Consequently
42. A. awkward B. strange C. unrecorded D. undesired
43. A. failure B. opportunity C. ambition D. effort
44. A. recommended B. rushed C. assigned D. returned
45. A. choice B. wisdom C. end D. truth
46. A. Patient with B. Subsequent to C. Dependent on D. Concerned about
47. A. replying B. apologizing C. promising D. assuming
48. A. kept B. forgot C. delayed D. quit
49. A. investigated B. dismissed C. hospitalized D. distinguished
50. A. seized B. equipped C. compared D. impressed
51. A. departed B. emerged C. passed D. called
52. A. increased B. continued C. occurred D. finished
53. A. trick B. relief C. reminder D. success
54. A. weathered B. described C. witnessed D. enjoyed
55. A. ages B. races C. boundaries D. genders
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题部分）
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Swiss designer Didier Rudolf Quarroz’s enthusiasm and love for Chinese tea culture has inspired him 56 (design) new items to brew (沏) the drink. The graduate of the well-known Swiss design school, Lausanne University of Art and Design, developed an interest in Chinese tea after working at a Shanghai-based design company, 57 he was by chance engaged in a tea project.
His research helped him have a deep 58 (understand) of the differences between Chinese and Western tea products, 59 this made him think about designing items for foreigners to brew Chinese tea. “I hope to design easy-to-use and modern tea-making tools to help foreigners try 60 (tradition) Chinese tea and give them an interesting experience of brewing tea,” Quarroz says.
In 2017, he 61 (move) to Hangzhou, the capital of East China’s Zhejiang Province and 62 major tea-production base, to explore the possibilities of applying Western concepts of designing wares to Chinese tea. He opened his design company, Shateso, 63 the help of the local government in the city’s Binjiang District. “ 64 (drive) by the love of Chinese tea, I cooperate with local companies and help them to develop new kinds of tea products. Also, we sometimes organize workshops to promote different teas to the public,” Quarroz says.
Quarroz says he plans to design ten innovative tea-related products by 65 (combine) Chinese tea culture with international elements.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是学生会主席李华，你校近期组织了一次骑行活动来宣传环保，请你用英语写一则报道。要点如下：
1. 时间及地点；
2. 活动过程；
3. 活动意义。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
An inspiring cycling event
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Brie sat on her bright purple bike, eagerly waiting outside Nate’s house. He was always late, so she shouted his name, hoping to speed him up. Finally, Nate rushed out, putting his helmet on his head. He picked up his bike, a red one with green stars on it. Together they sped away, racing to the park under the warm sunshine.
At the park, they dropped their bikes and walked to the swings. Onto the swings they jumped, swinging like their feet could touch the sky. Nate had a surprise for Brie, something he was sure she hadn’t seen before. Once they stopped swinging, Nate decided it was time to share his little surprise. He reached into his pocket and took out a shiny compass -a birthday gift from his grandpa.
Nate opened the compass, and Brie’s eyes widened with wonder. She mistook it for a clock at first, but Nate clarified that it indicated directions: N for north, S for south, and E and W for east and west. Holding the compass made Nate feel like a big boy, not a ten-year-old. Brie was impressed and curious about its purpose. Nate explained that it would help him find the right direction while walking. Realizing its significance, Brie asked to try it. She held the compass, watching the needle (指针) swing as she turned, amazed by how it always pointed north.
Their exploration was stopped when Brie noticed three boys from their neighborhood approaching. Nate put the compass back into his pocket, and they greeted the newcomers. Bill, one of the boys, had a basketball and suggested they play together. Then they had a great time, filled with laughter and games.
As the fun continued, Nate suddenly felt hungry and thirsty. Brie expressed her similar feelings. Bill pointed to the small store in the park. Excited, they walked toward it, chatting away. However, when they arrived, disappointment washed over them—the store was closed for Sunday.
Bill stared at the door for a moment and then proposed breaking the lock, saying it would be easy and the shopkeeper wouldn’t miss a few juice boxes and snacks.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Brie and Nate exchanged looks and went silent, uncomfortable with the idea. __________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
The next day, Brie and Nate heard that Bill and two other boys had been caught and punished by a park officer.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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浙东北县域名校发展联盟（ZDB）
2024/2025学年第二学期期中联考答案
第Ⅰ卷（选择题部分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 BACCA 6-10 ACBAB 11-15 ABBCC 16-20 BABCC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
21-23 BDA 24-27 CBBD 28-31 DBAC 32-35 ADCC 36-40 DGCEA
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 ADDBC 46-50 BCACA 51-55 BDBAC
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题部分）
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. to design 57. where 58. understanding 59. and 60. traditional 61. moved 62. a 63. with 64. Driven bining
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
（一）评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 （13—15） 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —覆盖所有内容要点。 —应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 —语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 —有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 （10—12） 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 （7—9） 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 （4—6） 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 —漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 —语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 （1—3） 未完成试题规定的任务。 —明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 —语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 —较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 —缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
（三）该题具体要求
1. 内容要点：
2. 语法结构和词汇的应用：
*使用与主题相关的词汇；
*能够使用恰当的语法结构。
3. 上下文的连贯性：
*内容要有逻辑展开；
*使用恰当的连接词或表达方式使内容连贯。
One possible version:
An inspiring cycling event
To raise students’ awareness of environmental protection, our school organized a cycling event around the scenic West Lake on July 28.
At 9:00 am, over 100 enthusiastic participants, including students and teachers, gathered at the school gate. Equipped with bicycles decorated with eco-friendly slogans, we set off along the picturesque route. During the ride, we stopped at several points to distribute leaflets and engage with the public, sharing tips on reducing waste and conserving natural resources. The highlight of the day was a group pledge to adopt greener lifestyles, followed by a picnic lunch using reusable containers.
This event not only promoted physical fitness but also emphasized the importance of sustainability and community involvement. It was a memorable experience that encouraged everyone to take action to protect our planet.
第二节（满分25分）
（一）评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和对所标出的关键词的应用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 （21-25） —创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 —使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但不影响理解。 —有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档 （16-20） —创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 —使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。 —比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 （11-15） —创造了基本合理的内容，有一定逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 —使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当的地方，但基本不影响理解。 —基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档 （6-10） —内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。 —所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。 —未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档 （1-5） —内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文续写不够完整，与原文情境基本脱节。 —所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。 —几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰
0 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
One possible version:
Brie and Nate exchanged looks and went silent, uncomfortable with the idea. Bill turned around and pressed them to join in on the adventure. Brie, standing behind Nate, tapped him on the shoulder and whispered that they should go home. Nate hesitated, but Brie stated that they should get out of there right away and could come back later. So off Brie and Nate went to their bikes, trying to leave the unsettling situation behind. Bill called after them, asking if they were scared. They could hear his laughter as they rode away.
The next day, Brie and Nate heard that Bill and two other boys had been caught and punished by a park officer. They exchanged shocked looks when hearing the news, realizing how close they had come to a bad decision. Nate praised Brie’s decision to leave the park, recognizing her wisdom in guiding them away from trouble. With a proud smile, Brie pointed to her head, saying that she had used her own compass to find the right direction. Nate, impressed, agreed that her compass might indeed be more powerful than his. And they believed that their friendship, like the compass, would always point them toward the right choices.
听力原文
Text 1 (第1题为推断题)
W: Honey, can you please pass me the salt I think the soup is a bit tasteless.
M: It tastes very good to me. I like the light diet. But you prefer strong flavors. Try the Mapo Tofu in this restaurant. I believe it’s to your taste.
W: Okay.
◆ light diet 清淡的饮食
Text 2
M: Alisa, why are you playing here now
W: Oh, Grandpa. Classes were canceled this morning, due to the strong possibility of heavy rain.
M: The weather forecasts are sometimes wrong these days. Look, the black clouds are blown away by the wind now. (2) I believe the sun will come out later.
Text 3 (第3题为推断题)
M: It’s freezing. Are we close to the theater
W: Hmm ... The map says we have arrived at the Canyon Market. But I can only see the Higher Grounds Coffee House.
M: Look! It’s there. Let’s cross the road.
Text 4
M: Millie needs some crayons for her art class at school. We can stop by a store on our way home.
W: Let’s go to Browns. It’s just on the street corner.
M: Sounds fantastic. (4)
Text 5 (第5题为主旨大意题)
M: What a big stomach I have! I ought to take some exercise to keep my weight down.
W: Maybe stopping drinking so much beer would be a lot of help to you.
Text 6
W: Chuck, nice to meet you. It’s been two months since you left our company. (7) How’s the new job
M: Oh, so much better. This company really cares about its employees. Even though we have a very tight schedule, we are always under no pressure to meet the deadline. And finally, I don’t have to wear a suit. I hate it! This is my favorite part of the new job. (6)
W: How about your boss
M: We haven’t actually met yet. He is on vacation now. But my colleagues are so cool. They guide me through the tasks all the time.
W: Oh, that’s great! But we all miss you. No one makes us laugh anymore in the office. (7)
M: I miss you too. I’m planning to stop by tomorrow. (7) Sometime during the lunch break.
W: Wonderful! I’ll tell everyone.
Text 7 (第8题为推断题)
M: Have you noticed the empty land outside our office window It’s been a vacant lot since I started working here in June. Not even a single construction worker can be seen.
W: Yeah, it’s November now. In fact, it’s been vacant since February. (9) There used to be several small shops. After the construction of several office buildings, the shops were pulled down.
M: Then will it be a subway station Line 5 is under construction.
W: It’s hardly likely. The sites of Line 5 have already been decided.
M: Well, I hope a mall can be built there so that we can get some food or coffee during our lunch break.
W: Who knows Maybe by the time it’s built, we’ll have already left here.
◆ lot (作某种用途的) 一块地；场地
◆ pull down 拆掉
Text 8
M: Open your mouth wide, please. Well, the good news for you is that you don’t need to replace the bad tooth with an artificial one. That means you can skip the implant surgery. Only one third of the tooth is gone.
W: That’s great. I’m always afraid of surgery. (10) So, what should I do
M: You just need a filling. And the cost depends on the material of the filling you choose. It usually costs around two thousand yuan. Now you have to take an X-ray first.
W: Okay. Then how many more times do I need to come (11)
M: For the first time, I’ll clean the bad tooth thoroughly. (11) For the second time, measure the missing part of the tooth and sharpen the left part. Last, fill in the missing part.
W: It sounds like a big project. (12)
M: Take it easy, Mrs. Jones. It is much simpler than surgery. (12)
◆ implant surgery (牙) 种植手术
Text 9 (第13题为推断题)
W: Hi there, Joey. (15) How is your research on Australia going
M: Hi, Mary. (16) I’ve finished it already.
W: Lucky you. I’m still trying to find an interesting topic. Mr. Lee asked us to hand it in tomorrow and share our research with our classmates.
M: Well, I’ve written about the history of banana growing in Australia. There are many kinds of bananas in Australia, such as Cavendish, Williams and Lady Finger. The first one accounts for 90% of Australia’s production and is the most popular kind among Australians. (14)
W: Banana growing
M: I’m sure it’s not as boring as you think. Do you know that some kinds of Australian bananas actually originated in China (15) Chinese migrants brought banana plants to Australia when they went to work there.
W: Wow, I really don’t know.
M: For your research, why not start with the Australian dairy industry or clothing industry (16)
W: You’re right. I always like talking about the way of dressing! (16)
M: Well, go on with your work. By the way, you can go to the library to find what you need.
Text 10 (第20题为推断题)
When I hear people saying that it is natural for a woman to take care of the kitchen, and only their mothers know how to cook well, I’d like to prove them wrong. It’s a well-known fact that the most famous chefs are men. One day when I was surfing the Net looking for something interesting, I found an article about brilliant people. (17) They took their usual jobs to another level. The story of one French man, Alain Ducasse, caught my eye. (17) Mr. Ducasse, born in 1956, managed to grow from an ordinary farmer’s child to the world’s best chef. With his talent and continuous hard work, Mr. Ducasse has earned 21 Michelin Stars throughout his career. Michelin Stars, by the way, are top-level awards given to restaurants for outstanding cooking. He has built a grand business over the years with 36 restaurants spread around the globe. (18) Customers can visit Mr. Ducasse’s high-end restaurants in France, the USA, Italy and even Japan. In addition to being known for making world-class French cuisine, Mr. Ducasse is a famous chef who has sent his food into space. In 2015, he sent meals to astronauts at the International Space Station. (19)
◆ Michelin Star米其林星，米其林是历史悠久的专门评点餐饮行业的法国权威鉴定机构。

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