2025年安徽省淮北市二中联考中考二模英语试题(含答案,无听力原文,含音频)

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2025年安徽省淮北市二中联考中考二模英语试题(含答案,无听力原文,含音频)

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九年级下学期第二次阶段素质检测卷
英语试题
注意事项:
1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What was the matter with the boy yesterday 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
2. Where does the girl hope to work as a volunteer 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
3. Who does the boy sometimes play tennis with in the yard 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. His uncle. B. His mom. C. His dad.
4. How much are the white trousers 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. 90 yuan. B. 101 yuan. C. 110 yuan.
5. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Strangers. B. Patient and doctor. C. Relatives.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答两个小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. How does Tina practice English
A. By watching a movie. B. By talking with a friend. C. By listening to tapes.
7. When did Tina start talking to herself in English
A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year.
听下面一段对话,回答三个小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What does the woman want
A. A coat. B. A T-shirt. C. A sweater.
9. What size does the woman’s son wear
A. Size L. B. Size M. C. Size S.
10. What color does the woman take at last
A. Black. B. Blue. C. Grey.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. Who did Adam take the trip with
A. His friends. B. His parents. C. His brothers.
12. How long did the whole experience take
A. Two hours. B. Three hours. C. Four hours.
13. What was Adam suggested doing
A. Receiving the training. B. Setting out early. C. Putting on thick clothes.
14. Why did Adam feel a bit uncomfortable in the basket
A. Because it was too crowded.
B. Because he stood all the way.
C. Because the weather was terrible.
15. What does Adam think of the trip
A. Fantastic. B. Afraid. C. Boring.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
FZ Smart Fridge
Uses A(n) _____16_____ shows you what’s inside the fridge.
can also tell you when food begins to go _____17_____, and you can’t eat it.
It can _____18_____ over a thousand of your favorite dishes.
You can use it to send e-mails and visit _____19_____!
Price ____20____
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. —The artwork of Jingtailan is amazing.
—Yeah. It took the artist ________ two years to finish.
A. certainly B. fairly C. nearly D. properly
22. —What a boring trip! We did nothing but listen to the rain in the hotel.
—Why didn’t you check the weather ________ you travelled
A. since B. until C. after D. before
23. —I’m tired out. I have stayed up late the whole week.
—You’d better________ your time better and have things organized.
A. take B. manage C. intend D. achieve
24. —What do the letters ASAP ________
—It means “as soon as possible”.
A. stand for B. find out C. suffer from D. put up
25. At the moment, Mr. Lee is doing an ________ to show students why it’s important to clean teeth regularly.
A. exhibition B. invention C. experiment D. invitation
26. —Tom and I share ________ hobbies.
—No wonder you take part in a lot of social activities together.
A. separate B. silent C. similar D. simple
27. I believe that more and more large planes ________ in the future, so flying will be very cheap.
A. are produced B. will produce C. will be produced D. produced
28. —Your father’s birthday is coming soon, Liu Tao. What’s your surprise for your father
—The first thing ________ I will do is to make a card for him.
A. who B. where C. whose D. that
29. —Who helped Jessie with her English
—______, she taught herself.
A. Anybody B. Somebody
C. Nobody D. Everybody
30. —Hi, Cecily! I’ve got a chance to get a set of J. K. Rowling’s books for free.
—________! I have expected to read her books for long.
A. That’s right B. Have fun C. Lucky you D. Take it easy
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One day, a young violin player was trying to decide whether or not to continue his career (职业) in music. While he was walking, he suddenly ___31___ the most famous violin teacher in the world. He stopped the man and asked if he could play for him. He said to himself that he would drop his dream of music if the great ___32___ told him he was wasting his time.
The great teacher let him ___33___. When the young man finished, he was sure he’d given his ___34___ performance. He stood and waited for praise. ___35___, the great teacher only shook his head and said, “You lack (缺乏) the fire.”
The young musician was so sad that he decided to ___36___ the violin and never play it again. Later, he became a successful trader.
Some years later, he met the great teacher again in another city. He ___37___ to him and said, “Sir, I stopped you on the street years ago to play the violin for you, and I just want to thank you today. To be ___38___, because of your coldness, I gave up my great love, and became a trader. How did you know all those years ago that I lacked the fire ” Again the great teacher shook his head and said, “You didn’t ___39___ what I said. I tell anyone who plays for me that they lack the ___40___. If you had the fire, you wouldn’t have given up your dream.”
31. A. achieved B. wondered C. met D. imagined
32. A. teacher B. doctor C. engineer D. driver
33. A. leave B. perform C. attend D. avoid
34. A. easiest B. worst C. simplest D. finest
35. A. Just B. Still C. Luckily D. However
36. A. put up B. call up C. give up D. set up.
37. A. shook B. walked C. stuck D. taught
38. A. honest B. true C. sure D. important
39. A. translate B. understand C. explain D. hear
40. A. food B. money C. fire D. skill
B
You’re at your new school. It’s lunch time, but you don’t have anyone to sit with. You want to join someone at their table, but you’re not sure ____41____ they’re friendly. What do you do Natalie’s way of working out the problem was to create an app. She found it difficult to make new friends and had to ____42____ a new table at lunch every day. If she sat by ____43____, she felt lonely. But if she asked to join someone and was ____44____, she felt embarrassed (尴尬的). She created a lunch-planning app to help students like her find people to have lunch with.
The app called Sit With Us is simple. If a student is having lunch in the afternoon, he or she can create an invitation. Other students can open the app and ____45____ that invitation. They can then use the app to decide when and where to ____46____. This allows students to make ____47____ online instead of face-to-face.
Natalie is happy to see that people are replying to her app ____48____, especially those who suffer from bullying (欺凌). She won a prize for the app. She ____49____ appeared in many news stories.
Natalie was even asked to speak at a university. In her talk, Natalie wanted people to know that you don’t have to do something _____50_____ to change lives. Sometimes, a small thing-like having a friend to enjoy lunch with-can make all the difference.
41. A. what B. which C. if D. who
42. A. search for B. cut off C. compare to D. put up
43. A. her B. you C. yourself D. herself
44. A. called B. refused C. discussed D. considered
45. A. miss B. make C. accept D. increase
46. A. exercise B. study C. punish D. meet
47. A. plans B. trouble C. reports D. business
48. A. suddenly B. exactly C. hardly D. actively
49. A. still B. hardly C. also D. never
50. A. enjoyable B. big C. wise D. mad
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: I telephoned you yesterday afternoon but you didn’t answer. Where were you
B: I was in another room when you called. ____51____
A: What were you working on
B: I was writing a report. ____52____
A: I was looking for Tom and couldn’t find him. Do you know where he was
B: Tom was driving to a meeting.
A: Oh, I see. ____53____
B: I read a book in the morning. In the afternoon, I worked on the report and was just finishing when you telephoned.
A: Tell me about the report. ____54____
B: I think the report is good.
A: ____55____
B: Thank you, Betsy. You are always a good friend!
A. What about you
B. What do you think of it
C. What did you do yesterday
D. The report is too long, isn’t it
E. He always has so many books to read.
F. I know that every report you write is excellent.
G. I didn’t hear the phone ringing then.
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
Learning a new language can be scary, especially when you are just starting out. Luckily, with the help of modern technology, it is now easier than ever to learn English. Here are some of the best apps that can help you learn English for free.
Memrise can help you build your words and expressions through videos and pictures. You can also challenge yourself with activities such as memory games. The app is for all skill levels, so you can start whenever you want.
Busu is a free platform where users can improve their overall understanding of English. It also has lots of grammar, listening, and pronunciation lessons that will help.
Duolingo is one of the most popular language-learning apps. It includes lessons in reading and writing. It uses lots of games to make learning fun. It has many different topics, from grammar to pronunciation.
Hello Talk is a creative app that helps users easily practice their English speaking skills by connecting them with native (本地的) speakers worldwide. This makes it perfect for those who want to practice their speaking while also making friends with people from different cultures!
56. Which is the best app to help remember new words
A. Memrise. B. Busuu. C. Duolingo. D. Hello Talk.
57. Who will most probably use Hello Talk
A. Someone who wants to play games. B. Someone who likes math.
C. Someone who is good at grammar. D. Someone who likes making friends.
58. In which part of a magazine can we read the text
A. Health. B. Sports. C. Science. D. Culture.
B
There is an amazing river running deep through the Amazon rainforest in Peru. The water temperatures along the river are from 50℃ to 90℃,and in some parts, they can almost reach the boiling point of 100℃. The river’s existence (存在) was officially confirmed (证实) in 2011 by a scientist named Andres Ruzo.
Ruzo heard lots of stories and legends (传说) about the strange river when he was young. 20 years after he’d heard this story, Ruzo’s aunt told him she had seen the river.
Guided by her, the young scientist finally found the river himself, and confirmed that its water did reach boiling temperatures.
“Putting my hand into the river would give me third-degree burns in less than half a second. Falling in could easily kill me,” he wrote in his book The Boiling River: Adventure an Discovery in the Amazon. Ruzo said, “What was amazing is that the local people always knew about this place. It is just a part of their everyday life. They cook with it, clean with it, and even make their medicines with it.”
But so far, no one has been able to explain the secret of the boiling water. “It reminds us that there are still great wonders to be discovered,” Ruzo said, “The biggest part of the Boiling River area is still original (原始的) and untamed—and I hope to keep it this way.”
59. Why do people think the river is amazing
A. Because it’s a legend in Peru.
B. Because the water in the river is hot.
C. Because it can’t be used by people.
D. Because it is running deep through the Amazon rainforest.
60. Who first knew the boiling river
A. Ruzo’s grandfather. B. Andres Ruzo. C. The local people. D. Ruzo’s uncle.
61. What does the underlined word “untamed” probably mean
A. Soft. B. Wide. C. Real. D. Wild.
62. Which idea may Andres Ruzo agree with
A. It’s not dangerous to swim in this river.
B. The secret of the Boiling River is still unknown.
C. All wonders in the world have been discovered.
D. The local government should use the river to make money.
C
Miniaturization (微型化) has been a goal of engineers and designers for a few years. The ever smaller products have included pocket-sized computers and motorbikes which are the size of a backpack. The latest thing is a handbag which can pass through the eye of a needle (针). It has been sold for $ 63,750 online, according to a post (帖子) made by the company MSCHF on June 14th, 2023.
“Smaller than a grain (颗粒) of salt, this handbag is so small that you’ll need a microscope (显微镜) to see it,” MSCHF wrote in the post. There are big handbags, normal handbags, and small handbags, but this is the final word in bag miniaturization. An object like a handbag is useful, but it becomes smaller and smaller. It is losing its original use until it turns into just a brand.
The tiny handbag is 657 by 222 by 700 micrometers and was shown to the public in Paris in June. It was made with high technology which uses 3D printers. MSCHF chose the technology to see how small a handbag they could make.
MSCHF’s creative officer Kevin Wiesner was interviewed by The New York Times, “I think the bag is a funny object because it comes from something practical,” Wiesner said. “But in fact, it has become jewelry (珠宝).”
63 Why does the first paragraph mention the eye of a needle
A. To explain the handbag’s value. B. To discuss the handbag’s problem.
C To prove how small this handbag is. D. To show how good the handbag looks.
64. What does the underlined word “It” refer to (指的是)
A. The tiny handbag. B. The microscope. C. The post. D. The technology.
65. According to the text, MSCHF________ .
A. is a company that only makes bags
B. has made plenty of smaller objects
C. thinks miniaturization will be less popular
D. used high technology in making the handbag
D
If you have never been to China Braille (盲文) Library (CBL) you cannot imagine what it is like.
It is open to the 17 million blind people in China. The borrowers can make phone calls, or send WeChat messages or emails to the library, asking for the books they are looking for. The library then finds out these books, puts them into the mailing bag, fills in the address of the borrower on the other side of the card and waits for a postman to pick up the bag. Whenever the borrower finishes reading, he or she needs to put the books back into the bag, turn the address card around and put it into a postbox so that the books can be returned to the library. It is quite convenient for blind people to borrow and return books.
On the third floor, there are several big reading rooms with large windows. On the fifth floor, there is a museum. At the door, one can borrow earphones (耳机) to listen to recorded voices of guides who will take the listener all the way, from the historical wonders of ancient China to the history of Traditional Chinese Medicine, and ancient technological achievements.
CBL also has a 20-square-meter room called “Try Darkness”. Here all the lights are turned off and the door is fully closed not to let in any light so there is nothing but darkness in this room. It helps people understand how a blind person feels. Although it takes just about 10minutes, it feels like an hour-long journey.
66. How many ways can the borrowers ask for the books from CBL
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
67. What does the borrower need to do when finishing reading
①find out these books ②put the books back into the bag
③turn the address card around ④put the card into a postbox
⑤wait for a postman to pick up the bag ⑥fill in the address of the borrower
A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①⑤⑥ D. ③④⑤
68. Which is TRUE about the CBL museum
A. It is on the third floor. B. It shows model planes.
C. It can lend earphones. D. There’s only one guide.
69. Why are the lights turned off in the “Try Darkness”
A. To save time and money. B. To experience the blind’s feeling.
C. To make it enjoyable. D. To close the door not to let in any light.
E
When you hear the word “shapeshifting” (变身), you may think of movies, and not the climate (气候), But that’s what animals are doing to deal with climate change.
A new study shows that some animals are growing larger beaks (喙), legs and ears. In this way they can lose heat more easily to cool themselves down as the Earth gets warmer.
“A lot of the time when we talk about climate change, we ask ‘Can humans deal with this ’ or ‘What technology can solve this ’. But we should know that animals also have to get used to these changes,” said Sara Ryding from Deakin University, Australia. If animals fail to control their body temperature, they can overheat and die.
In one example, the beaks of some Australian parrots have grown 4 to 10 percent larger since 1871. The study says it has something to do with rising summer temperatures over the years. Similar examples include wood mice. They have longer tails and legs and bats in warm climates have bigger wings.
Although the changes are still small, Ryding said they could be much clearer as the days become hotter. “Body parts like ears are predicted to be bigger, so we might end up with a live-action Dumbo (big-eared elephant from a Disney cartoon) in the near future,” Ryding told BBC.
70. Why do animals change their shapes along with climate change
A. To collect heat. B. To stay cool. C. To hide themselves. D. To find more food.
71. What does Sara Ryding mean in Paragraph 3
A. Man can stop climate change. B. Man has got used to climate change.
C. Climate change kills animals. D. Climate change influences both man and animals.
72. What’s the best title for the text
A. Grow with the climate B. The importance of animals
C. Live with cold weather D. The future of the earth
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
When I was in Grade Eight, I was the best student in class—I was good at almost all subjects. Also, the teachers and my classmates all thought I was a girl with many talents and interests. I was very proud until my enemy, Lucy appeared.
She always competed with me. She could do a little better than me in exams unless I worked really hard. What’s more, she could even beat me in chess and reading competitions. I was so upset and told my father about it.
My father had a long talk with me. He said, “My girl, this is life: full of chances and challenges. Chances and challenges are competitions. In competitions, there are always winners and losers. In one’s life, there must be competitions, so people can improve.”
I was still not sure what competition really meant. But I knew I must do better than Lucy. Since then, I always tried my best no matter what I did. Two years ago, I became a student of California Institute of Technology.
Looking back on these days competing with Lucy, I’m thankful to petitions can help us be better persons.
73. Why was the writer proud at first (不超过10个词)
_______________________________________________________________
74. How did the writer feel after Lucy did better than her (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________
75. What can we learn from the text (不超过15个词)
_______________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76. My cousin has already made r_______ (快速的) progress in his study.
77. What the boy said to his classmates was not the t________(真相).
78. At the age of twenty, George had his own b_______ (生意).
79. If you cannot _____________(描述) your product in one sentence, you cannot sell it.
80 The man f________ (喂) some fruit to the monkeys in the zoo every day.
X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
81. 假如你是李华,你们班将组织研学旅行(study tour),你打算邀请外教Mr. Brown参加。请你根据以下提示用英文给他写一封电子邮件。
提示:1.写信意图和邀请原因;2.研学旅行的时间和地点。
注意:1.词数80~100(开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数);2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;3.邮件中不能出现与本人相关的信息。
Dear Mr. Brown,
How are you doing _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
九年级下学期第二次阶段素质检测卷
英语试题
注意事项:
1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】A
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B 10. C
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. screen
17. bad 18. list
19. websites
20. 950
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21题答案】
【答案】C
【22题答案】
【答案】D
【23题答案】
【答案】B
【24题答案】
【答案】A
【25题答案】
【答案】C
【26题答案】
【答案】C
【27题答案】
【答案】C
【28题答案】
【答案】D
【29题答案】
【答案】C
【30题答案】
【答案】C
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【31~40题答案】
【答案】31. C 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. C
B
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. C 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
【51~55题答案】
【答案】51. G 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. F
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
【56~58题答案】
【答案】56 A 57. D 58. C
B
【59~62题答案】
【答案】59. B 60. C 61. D 62. B
C
【63~65题答案】
【答案】63. C 64. A 65. D
D
【66~69题答案】
【答案】66. C 67. B 68. C 69. B
E
【70~72题答案】
【答案】70. B 71. D 72. A
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
【73~75题答案】
【答案】73. Because she was the best student in class.
74. She felt upset.
petitions can help us be better persons.
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
【76题答案】
【答案】(r)apid
【77题答案】
【答案】(t)ruth
【78题答案】
【答案】(b)usiness
【79题答案】
【答案】describe
【80题答案】
【答案】(f)eeds
X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
【81题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear Mr. Brown.
How are you doing I am writing to invite you to join our study tour. We believe that your presence will make the educational experience more meaningful to us.
The study tour will take place on April 10th and we are going to visit a historical place in the nearby city. We will travel by bus. And we will meet at the school gate at 8:00 that day.
If you’d like to join us, please let me know as soon as possible so that we can make necessary preparations. Thank you for considering our invitation. We look forward to hearing from you soon.
Yours,
Li Hua

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