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2025 年安徽中考第二次模拟考试
英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四个部分，十大题，满分 120 分，考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷” (8 页) 和“答题卡” (2 页) 两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷上”答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题，满分 20 分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一
个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How will the speakers go to Lucy’s party 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
2. What are the speakers going to do 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
3. How does the woman like the poems 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Boring. B. Beautiful. C. Interesting.
4. How does Susan study math 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. By joining the math club. B. By taking online lessons. C. By asking the teacher for help.
5. What’s the probably relationship between the two speakers 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Teacher and student.
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Ⅱ. 长对话理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一
个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. Where are the speakers
A. At the train station. B. At the art fair. C. At the museum.
7. What’s the boy’s brother like
A. He’s careful. B. He’s talented. C. He’s creative.
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. What does Mr. Li do
A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A policeman.
9. What can Jim bring when going for dinner
A. Some flowers. B. Some chocolate. C. Some fruit.
10. Where does Jim come from
A. Canada. B. Australia. C. America.
Ⅲ. 短文理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个
最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. What did Betty go to China for
A. To visit her friend. B. To do some business there. C. To learn about Chinese culture.
12 How long did Helen stay in China
A. For two days. B. For two weeks. C. For two months.
13. Where did Helen spend the festival
A. In her own house. B. In Li Ming’s home. C. In the restaurant.
14 What did Helen do on the Mid-Autumn Festival
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A. She enjoyed the moon. B. She made a big dinner. C. She made mooncakes.
15. Why did Helen miss her family that day
A. Because she gave her parents a call.
B. Because her mother can make delicious mooncakes.
C. Because she was influenced by what she saw and experienced.
Ⅳ. 信息转换 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。【此处可
播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How to protect the environment
★Turn off the ___16___ if it’s not necessary.
★Go to work or school by bus, underground or bike. Walk to work or school when it’s
possible. It’s ___17___ and healthy. Ways
★Try our best to reuse things. Take a cloth bag when shopping. ___18___ using plastic
ones.
★The government should make ___19___ to guide people’s behavior.
Result The earlier people take action to protect the environment, the better the ___20___ will be.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共三大题，满分 35 分)
Ⅴ. 单项填空 (共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. “Trick or treat” means kids will play a trick ________ you if you don’t give them a treat.
A. to B. on C. in D. with
22. —Have you ever heard of DeepSeek
—Of course. AI makes difficult tasks easy. It will be ________ used soon.
A. hardly B. exactly C. widely D. badly
23. Lucy believes all the problems can be solved in the end ________ she works hard.
A. as if B. as far as C. as soon as D. as long as
24. Sandy is so excellent that she can often ________ all kinds of problems successfully.
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A. look after B. take up C. work out D. give away
25. When seeing the Shenzhou-18 manned spaceship flying into the sky, my father was ______ than any one of us.
A. more excited B. more exciting C. the most excited D. the most exciting
26. Yangzhou China Grand Canal Museum (扬州中国大运河博物馆) __________ for about four years, but I
__________ there.
A. has opened; haven’t gone B. has been open; haven’t been
C. has been open; haven’t gone D. has opened; haven’t been
27. Tom, good days give you happiness, and bad days give you ________. You can learn something from them.
A. friendship B. education C. knowledge D. experience
28. Students should be ________ that saving water and looking after a tree can make a big difference to our society.
A. alone B. awake C. aware D. afraid
29. —“________.”
—That’s true, Let’s eat more healthy food.
A. Many hands make light work B. The early bird catches the worm
C. Put all your eggs in one basket D. An apple a day keeps the doctor away
30. I have some tickets for the football match. I called my friends to see___________.
A. where did they buy them B. why they liked to go there
C. when did we go together D. whether they’d like to go
Ⅵ. 完形填空 (共 20 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 20 分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Zu Ti was a great man of the Jin Dynasty. He was famous ___31___ his hard work and great achievements.
But when he was a child, he was a boy who showed little ___32___ in reading. As he grew up, Zu Ti realized he
didn’t have enough knowledge. And he ___33___ felt that he could not serve his country well, so he made a
decision to study hard.
Zu Ti had a ___34___ friend named Liu Kun. They had a deep friendship. They stayed together every day.
They even often slept on one bed and ___35___ at the same time. One day, when they were sleeping, ZuTi
heard the rooster crowing (打鸣). An idea ___36___ to him. He woke up Liu Kun and said, “How about getting up
to play swords (剑) ” Though he was still sleepy, they got up and played swords ___37___ the rooster began
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crowing. They kept their words day after day. They never gave up no matter how ___38___ in winter or hot in
summer. Besides, they began to study history carefully and put all their ___39___ into reading books. In this way,
they learned a great deal of knowledge and made much progress. A few years later, both of them grew up with
talents and wisdom. At last, their dreams ___40___ and they made great contributions (贡献) to their country.
This is the Chinese idiom story To Rise with the Rooster.
31. A. at B. with C. as D. for
32. A. excuse B. purpose C. interest D. activity
33. A. deeply B. hardly C. easily D. fairly
34. A. rich B. close C. late D. busy
35. A. got up B. made up C. put up D. stayed up
36. A. came B. studied C. knew D. waited
37. A. as soon as B. even though C. so that D. ever since
38. A. dry B. cold C. cool D. quiet
39. A. words B. diaries C. influence D. energy
40. A. come out B. come up C. come true D. come over
B
Why do children play with rabbit lanterns during Lantern Festival
Chinese people celebrate Lantern Festival on the ___41___ day of the first lunar month (阴历月份). It’s the
15th day of the Lunar New Year and it’s held to celebrate the first full moon of the year. It also ___42___ the end
of the Spring Festival holiday. This year, the Lantern Festival is on 11th February, 2025.
This day’s important ___43___ is watching lanterns. The lanterns come in many sizes, colors and shapes.
Making and ___44___ lanterns are famous things to do during the festival. There are usually riddles (谜语) on the
lanterns. “Guessing lantern riddles” is ___45___ important activity of the Festival.
Children go out with paper lanterns when the night comes during the Lantern Festival. Rabbit lanterns with
wheels (轮子) are fun for ___46___ . Children can pull them along from place to place. Children will hold
self-made or take lanterns to ___47___ through the streets excitedly.
Why are rabbits Some people say rabbits are ___48___ animals. The rabbit lanterns can bring children good
luck. Others say that it may have something to do with an old Chinese ___49___ about a jade rabbit (玉兔) living
on the moon. People celebrate Lantern Festival on the first full moon of the year, so rabbits are a big part of the
festival as well. Till today, the lantern festival is still held each ___50___ around our country. Children always have
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a good time on that day!
41. A. first B. middle C. last D. final
42. A. means B. needs C. includes D. meets
43. A. interest B. activity C. time D. place
44. A. watching B. hearing C. borrowing D. lending
45. A. one B. another C. other D. some
46. A. children B. parents C. boys D. girls
47. A. leave B. come C. go D. drive
48. A. boring B. brave C. happy D. lucky
49. A. film B. song C. story D. thing
50 A. day B. month C. season D. year
Ⅶ. 补全对话 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
根据对话内容，从下面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Have you seen the animated film “Ne Zha 2” It’s very popular these days.
B: Yes, I have seen it twice, it’s really fantastic.
A: ___51___
B: Well, most people like Ne Zha or Ao Bing, but I think Lady Shiji is the most lovely one in the world.
A: Why
B: ___52___
A: I know she really enjoys looking at herself in the mirror although she is not thin.
B: ___53___ Do you know what happened to her when Ne Zha beat her
A: What happened
B: ___54___ but she didn’t lose heart. And I like the saying she said very much.
A: What did she say
B: ___55___ I like her because she always looks on the bright side!
A. “Strike while the iron is hot!”
B. Because she has strong magic powers but she never hurts anyone.
C. Of all the characters, which one do you like best
D. She turned into tiny stones,
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E. “Where there is life, there is hope.”
F. Yes, she’s so lovely and optimistic.
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 40 分)
Ⅶ. 阅读理解 (共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
12 Days Wild: A Festive Nature Event
12 Days Wild is the Wildlife Trusts’ yearly event, which encourages you to do
one wild thing a day from December 25th to January 5th. In those quiet days between Christmas and New Year, winter
wildlife is just waiting to be explored!
What can you do
· Create some wild art using recycled paper.
· Track (追踪) animals by looking for footprints in the snow.
· Go winter wildlife watching on a walk at a nature park.
· Or even volunteer at a nature park.
Why should you join us
Spending time in nature, night or day, is proved to help people feel happier and healthier. “Being outside, listening to
birds or looking out for signs of foxes or other animals, gives us a chance to slow down, take a deep breath and enjoy the
natural wonders of our amazing planet.” Ms Lindsay, who works with London Wildlife Trust, said.
How to sign up
There is no need to send letters or call us. Click here to sign up and take part in 12 Days Wild this year! You’ll
receive daily emails to give you some fun ideas, either to take winter nature walks or to watch the stars.
Find out more about 12 Days Wild at https://www wildlifetrusts.org.
56. What are people encouraged to do in the event
A. Play in the snow. B. Help at a nature park.
C. Walk your pet in the wild. D. Write letters on recycled paper.
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57. What is the purpose of the passage
A. To teach people about wildlife. B. To help people look after their pets.
C. To ask people to reduce daily pollution. D. To invite people to explore the wildlife.
58. What kind of text is the passage
A. A guide. B. A report. C. An advertisement. D. A piece of news.
B
This term, Beijing New Oriental Foreign Language School in Yangzhou has seen big changes. With the help
of AI tools, teachers and students are enjoying a smarter way of teaching and learning.
Teachers now use AI to make personalized (个性化的) exercises and tests. After each unit, AI picks questions
from an online database (数据库) and creates personalized exercises for every student. “We don’t have to carry
heavy exercise books anymore.” says 14-year-old He Liyan. These exercises are still printed on paper, but the
process is much faster.
When students finish their work on answer sheets, teachers scan (扫描) the sheets into an AI system. The AI
corrects the answers and uses numbers and charts to show each student’s progress and the class’s overall results.
This helps teachers focus on common mistakes and give one-on-one help, instead of explaining every question.
AI also creates error logs and homework based on students’past exam mistakes. “My homework only
includes the questions I got wrong before, so I don’t waste time on what I already know.” He says. Yu Zifu, 15,
adds, “I used to keep a mistake notebook, but now AI does it for me!”
Thanks to AI, learning has become more efficient. Students can work on their weak points, and teachers can
offer better support.
59. What is the main change at the school this term
A. Teachers give less homework. B. The school bought new books.
C. Students have more exams. D. AI tools are used in teaching and learning.
60. What do the students think of the AI-generated materials
A. They are too heavy to carry. B. They help them focus on their weak points.
C. They are more difficult than before. D. They don’t include past mistakes.
61. What does “error logs” mean in the passage
A. Records of past mistakes. B. New types of exercise books.
C. Machines for scanning papers. D. Charts showing class scores.
62. What is the best title for the passage
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A. Heavy Books: A Thing of the Past B. Students’ Love for New Technology
C. How AI Improves Learning at School D. Teachers’ New Daily Work
C
Today, many children spend lots of time playing online video games. In the UK, 99% of kids aged 8 to15 play
them weekly. While these games are fun; we need to carefully consider both their advantages and disadvantages.
Video games offer more than just fun. They have bright colors, interesting stories, and challenging tasks that
keep children interested. Playing them can improve kids’ problem-solving skills; as they often need to think
quickly and move their hands and eyes together. This helps train their brains to work more efficiently. Games also
encourage imagination—for example, players might design characters, build virtual (虚拟) worlds, or create stories.
Besides, they introduce children to technology, as kids learn how computers and devices (设备) work while playing.
However, there are risks to consider. First, many free games include scary parts, and parents may not always
know what their children are playing. Second, spending too many hours playing games can lead to health problems,
such as poor eyesight or lack of exercise. Third, if children play games instead of doing homework, they may get
poor grades. Finally, spending too much time alone on games can harm social skills, kids might miss chances to
chat with friends and learn to work together.
In a word, video games have both advantages and disadvantages. Parents play a key role in guiding their
children: they should check the game, set time limits, and encourage a balance between gaming, studying,
exercising, and socializing. By managing screen time wisely, children can enjoy the fun and learning from games
while avoiding potential (潜在的) harms. Balancing gaming with other activities is the key to keeping kids healthy
and happy.
63. How do video games help children according to the passage
A. They improve problem-solving skills and imagination.B. They help children sleep better.
C. They make children eat more healthily. D. They teach children to play alone.
64. What is a risk of playing video games too much
A. Children may become too social. B. Children may have better eyesight.
C. Children may get lower grades at school. D. Children may learn less about technology.
65. Which disadvantages of video games are mentioned in the passage
a. lead to bad grades b. make kids feel bored
c. cause some health problems d. influence children’s social skills
A. b, c, d B. a, b, c, d C. a, c, d D. a, b, d
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D
Chengdu, a city in China’s Sichuan Province, will host The World Games (TWG) in 2025, the first time the
event is held on the Chinese mainland. This global sports event will take place from August 7 to 17. Recently, the
torch named “Zhumeng” was posted. “Zhumeng” means “Bamboo Dream” in Chinese and sounds like “chasing
dreams,” making it the first-ever torch in TWG history.
The torch’s design is inspired by the Grand Bronze Standing Figure from Sichuan’s Sanxingdui Ruins, an
ancient relic (遗物) standing for China’s different cultural wisdom. The torch looks like both a standing figure and
a bamboo shoot. In Chinese culture, bamboo symbolizes modesty and strength—qualities that match sports spirit:
unity, hard work, and health.
Sichuan is famous for giant pandas, which love bamboo. The torch’s top, shaped like a young bamboo shoot
with two buds (芽) , symbolizes an open China welcoming the world. Its body, like a bamboo stalk, shows the
spirit of teamwork and persistence.
The nozzle (喷嘴) takes inspiration from the Sun-shaped Crown at Chengdu’s Jinsha Site. Like the sun, it
brings endless energy to athletes and stands for their drive to succeed. At the bottom, a phoenix-shaped bird holds
the torch, recalling an old saying: “When a holy bird sings, peace comes to the world,” expressing China’s wish for
global peace.
With its special design, the “Zhumeng” torch connects ancient Chinese culture with modern sports, carrying
athletes’ dreams and Chengdu’s warm welcome to the world.
66. Where does the torch’s design get inspiration
A. Giant pandas. B. The Sun-shaped Crown.
C. The Grand Bronze Standing Figure. D. Phoenix-shaped birds.
67. Why is bamboo used in the torch design
A. It’s a symbol of giant pandas. B. It shows China’s open culture.
C. It looks like a standing figure. D. It stands for modesty and strength.
68. What is the author’s purpose in describing the torch’s design
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A. To compare different torch designs. B. To educate readers about the history of TWG.
C. To discuss the importance of bamboo in China. D. To show Chinese culture through the torch’s design.
E
Near my home lies a small lake surrounded by a walking path (小路). When my children were younger, I took
them to this place a few times a week. The experience of walking along the path was truly wonderful, as it allowed
us to be close to nature and enjoy its beauty.
One autumn day, however, I noticed that the path wasn’t looking so good. It was full of rubbish that other
walkers had left along the way. The next time we went there, I took a large bag with me. As we walked along the
lake, we picked the rubbish up and put it in the bag.
Before putting the bag into the car, I looked back at the lake shining in the sun and the trees full of beautiful
red and golden leaves, and I smiled. It took us twice as long as usual to get all the way around the lake. But we felt
a sense of satisfaction that couldn’t be put into words. We didn’t make the lake more beautiful, but we removed
some things that made it less so.
In this life we are all more important than we realize. Every single thing we do can add or take away from the
beauty of this world. We all need to make wise choices to contribute to the world. We need to do our part and give
something back. Maybe it is an act of kindness, a word of love, or even picking up a single piece of rubbish.
69. What did the writer do with his children according to Paragraph 1
A. They walked along the path. B. They picked up the rubbish.
C. They drove around the lake. D. They collected large bags.
70. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refer to (指)
A. The car. B. The lake. C. The sun. D. The rubbish.
71. What is the main purpose of Paragraph 4
A. To share personal stories. B. To discuss the problem of rubbish.
C. To introduce the beauty of the lake. D. To encourage us to make the world better.
72. What can best describe the writer
A. Polite. B. Easy-going. C. Lovely. D. Nature-loving.
F
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题。 (请注意每小题后面的词数要求)
Good communication is very important in our lives. Here are some golden rules.
First, listen with your ears and your heart. When someone is talking to you, you should look at them, nod your
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head and listen with your ears and heart. It shows that you care about what they are saying.
Second, use your words, not your fists (拳头). If you have a problem with someone, don’t solve it with your
fists. Instead, you should use your words to explain how you feel. Your words can make a world of difference,
while getting physical only makes things worse.
Third, treat others the way you want to be treated. This is one of the most important rules. It encourages you to
put yourself in someone else’s shoes and consider how you would like to be created if you were in their position. If
you treat others with love, kindness and respect, they will treat you the same way.
Fourth, be a friend, not a bully. Bullies are no fun, and they don’t have many friends. Instead, it is good to be a
friend to others. Stand up for those who need help and always be there to lend an car. Together, we can make the
world a better place. Remember to put these suggestions into practice, and you’ll be a better person soon!
73. Why should you look at someone, nod your head and listen with your cars and heart when someone is talking to
you (不超过 15 个词)
___________________________________
74. What should you do if you have a problem with someone (不超过 10 个词)
___________________________________
75. Which rule is one of the most important rules (不超过 10 个词)
___________________________________
第四部分 写 (共两大题，满分 25 分)
Ⅸ. 单词拼写 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. Can you help me f________ (修理) the bike
77. The meaning of e________ (努力) is not only for immediate achievements but also to see a broader world.
78. There is a famous saying “Practice makes p________ (完美的)”.
79. Today is his t________ (二十) birthday. What gift will you buy for him
80. He plays golf n________ (几乎) every weekend.
Ⅹ. 书面表达 (共 1 小题；满分 20 分)
81. 假如你是李明，你校英语广播站开展了一次关于“Life skills make me a person”征文活动。请你根据
以下要点写一篇文章投稿给广播站，内容包括：
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列举自己会的生活技能，如烹饪、种植等。
Life skills make me a
谈谈自己对中学生学习生活技能的看法和建议。 person
呼吁同学们热爱实践、热爱生活。
作文要求：
(1) 不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实姓名、地点和考生的真实姓名。
(2) 语句连贯，词数 80 词左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear editor,
As we all know, life skills are very important in our daily life.
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_____________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Ming
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2025 年安徽中考第二次模拟考试
英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四个部分，十大题，满分 120 分，考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷” (8 页) 和“答题卡” (2 页) 两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷上”答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题，满分 20 分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一
个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
【1 题答案】
【答案】C
【2 题答案】
【答案】B
【3 题答案】
【答案】B
【4 题答案】
【答案】A
【5 题答案】
【答案】B
Ⅱ. 长对话理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一
个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7 题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C
【8~10 题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. A
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Ⅲ. 短文理解 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
【11~15 题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C
Ⅳ. 信息转换 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
【16~20 题答案】
【答案】16. lights
17. cheap 18. Avoid
19. laws 20. earth
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共三大题，满分 35 分)
Ⅴ. 单项填空 (共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21 题答案】
【答案】B
【22 题答案】
【答案】C
【23 题答案】
【答案】D
【24 题答案】
【答案】C
【25 题答案】
【答案】A
【26 题答案】
【答案】B
【27 题答案】
【答案】D
【28 题答案】
【答案】C
【29 题答案】
【答案】D
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【30 题答案】
【答案】D
Ⅵ. 完形填空 (共 20 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 20 分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【31~40 题答案】
【答案】31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C
B
【41~50 题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. D
Ⅶ. 补全对话 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
【51~55 题答案】
【答案】51. C 52. B 53. F 54. D 55. E
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 40 分)
Ⅶ. 阅读理解 (共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【56~58 题答案】
【答案】56. B 57. D 58. C
B
【59~62 题答案】
【答案】59. D 60. B 61. A 62. C
C
【63~65 题答案】
【答案】63. A 64. C 65. C
D
【66~68 题答案】
【答案】66. C 67. D 68. D
E
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【69~72 题答案】
【答案】69. A 70. B 71. D 72. D
F
【73~75 题答案】
【答案】73. Because it shows that we care about what they are saying.
74. You/ We should use our words to explain how we feel.
75. Treat others the way we want to be treated.
第四部分 写 (共两大题，满分 25 分)
Ⅸ. 单词拼写 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
【76 题答案】
【答案】(f)ix
【77 题答案】
【答案】(e)ffort
【78 题答案】
【答案】(p)erfect
【79 题答案】
【答案】(t)wentieth
【80 题答案】
【答案】(n)early
Ⅹ. 书面表达 (共 1 小题；满分 20 分)
【81 题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear editor
As we all know, life skills are very important in our daily life. I have mastered several skills, such as cooking
simple dishes, growing vegetables in small pots, and raising pets like goldfish. These experiences not only make
me proud but also teach me patience and responsibility.
In my view, learning life skills is important for middle school students. They help us become independent and
develop problem-solving abilities. I suggest schools organize more workshops, while students should actively
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practice at home or in communities. Parents’ encouragement also plays a key role.
Let’s embrace hands-on activities and cherish life! Life skills shape us into capable and well-rounded
individuals.
Yours,
Li Ming
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