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2025 年初中毕业学业考试冲刺卷（5·20B）
九年级英语
（时量：100 分钟 满分：100 分）
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分 20 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话
后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What kind of music does the man like best
A. Pop music. B. Rock music. C. Country music.
2. Where does the woman want to go
A. To the beautiful park. B. To the old city library. C. To the new science museum.
3. What will the boy do this weekend
A. Attend the technology fair.
B. Join the community clean-up.
C. Watch the football game live.
4. What is the boy’s hobby
A. Reading. B. Drawing. C. Swimming.
5. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Waitress and customer. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
听下面 6 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. What are the two speakers talking about
A. The coming exam. B. The new shopping mall. C. The plan for the weekend.
7. What will the boy do on Saturday afternoon
A. Go shopping. B. Study at home. C. Watch a movie.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8. Where is Anna going
A. To the shop. B. To the school. C. To the countryside.
9. What did Anna buy for her grandfather
A. A sports bag. B. A lovely fan. C. A Chinese chess set.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10、11 题。
10. What does the woman want to be
A. A waitress. B. A doctor. C. A tour guide
11. Why did the woman leave her job as a waitress
A. Because she didn’t like her boss.
B. Because she didn’t want to stay up late.
C. Because she couldn’t make enough money.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 12 至 14 题。
12. How will the boy go to the amusement park
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By subway.
13. What time does the amusement park open
A. At 9:00. B. At 9:30 C. At 10:00.
14. Who will the boy go with
A. His parents. B. His friends. C. His classmates.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 15 至 17 题。
15. When is Laura’s birthday
A. This Saturday. B. This Sunday. C. Next Saturday.
16. What will Jenny do for Laura’s birthday
A. Buy a cake. B. Order a dress. C. Invite some friends.
17. Where will the speakers go tomorrow afternoon
A. To a store. B. To a clothes shop. C. To an Italian restaurant.
听第 11 段材料，回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. How does Sandy go to school
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
19. How long does Peter spend picking up rubbish in the park every weekend
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. Three hours.
20. What does Amy do to protect the earth
A. She plants trees.
B. She picks up rubbish.
C. She shares good ways on the radio.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 11 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 22 分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Ne Zha 2
☆ First shown in cinema on January 29, 2025, using pioneering AI technology to
continue the exciting story of Ne Zha and Ao Bing from Ne Zha 1.
☆ A great team effort — over 130 companies working together on this film.
☆ Show how Chinese animation (动画) has grown.
YangBOT
☆ Shown on January 28, 2025, at the CCTV Spring Festival Gala
☆ A great performance — robots in colorful clothes, dancing Yangge (a joyful folk
dance from northern China)
☆ Show how technology can bring new life to traditions
DeepSeek
☆ Shown on January 20, 2025, by a Chinese tech company named DeepSeek.
☆ A useful helper — can solve many problems and answer questions like top
models such as ChatGPT, but cost much less to build.
☆ Show the world that great things come from new ideas and hard work, not just
money.
21. Which is the latest one shown to the public
A. Ne Zha 2 B. YungBOT C. DeepSeek
22. What can we learn from the passage
A. Building DeepSeek costs as much as other AI models.
B. The success of the film NeZha 2 shows the power of team spirit.
C. YangBot performance is just to show the custom of southern China.
23. The three short introductions all have something to do with ________.
A. culture B. act C. technology
B
On a usual day, Miranda jumped out of bed even before the alarm clock could ring. She did not mind getting up
early. She loved morning because she could complete her two-mile run before most of her family members got up.
She ran every morning in order that she would realize her dream of being the best runner in the school. However, this
morning was different. She would go and find out whether the pain in her leg was something that could be easily
treated or would stop her from doing something she loved most: running with the school track team (田径队).
As the alarm clock rang out again, Miranda knew she had to get up. She cut off the annoying (讨厌的) noise and
rose from her bed. She could hear the sound from the kitchen where her mother was making her favourite breakfast of
pancakes and bacon (培根). Her mother always made her favourites whenever Miranda was facing a problem or in a
bad situation, but she’d never faced anything like this before.
Sighing (叹气) deeply in the quiet room, she tried to stand up. She could feel the pain in her right leg. It was
serious but bearable. Surely, Miranda thought, it would not be as bad as she had imagined.
She shook her head to clear her thought and got ready to join her mother. As she walked into the kitchen, her
mother gave her a big smile. Miranda felt less worried right away. If nothing else, she at least knew one thing was
certain. She was not alone in this and that would make all the differences, no matter what the day would bring.
24. Why did Miranda keep on running for two miles every morning
A. To keep healthy.
B. To realize her dream.
C. To get away from the annoying noise.
25. What does the underlined word “bearable” in Paragraph 3 mean
A. 可忍受的 B. 可获得的 C. 可创造的
26. What did the smile on her mother’s face mean to Miranda
A. Suggestion. B. Agreement. C. Encouragement.
27. What would Miranda probably do after breakfast
A. She would have a rest in bed till she felt better.
B. She would have her leg checked in the hospital.
C. She would continue training in the school track team.
C
In recent years, more and more people, especially teenagers, are facing weight problems. To solve this problem,
our country started the “Three-Year Weight Management Action Plan” in March this year. The plan mainly focuses on
two main ideas: a balanced diet and regular exercise.
A balanced diet is the key to good health. This means eating different kinds of food, including fruits, vegetables,
whole grains (谷物), and lean proteins (精益蛋白质), while eating less high-fat, high-sugar and high-salt foods. For
example, instead of having fried chicken every day, we can choose grilled chicken, which is much healthier.
Vegetables like broccoli (西蓝花) and carrots. We should eat more in our daily meals.
Regular exercise is also important. It can help burn calories (卡路里) and make muscles (肌肉) stronger. The
plan suggests that teenagers should do exercise for at least 60 minutes every day. Activities such as running,
swimming, and playing basketball are great choices. Running can make your hearts healthier. Swimming is good for
building muscles, and playing basketball can improve our teamwork skills while exercising our bodies.
Schools play an important role in this plan. They have added more healthy eating classes, also, to make sure the
students get enough exercise, they had more PE lessons. Some schools even organize health clubs, where students can
encourage each other to reach their weight goals. Parents should join in by setting a good example. For example, they
can cook healthy meals together with their children or take regular family walk.
The Three-Year plan hopes to help people, especially teenagers, develop healthy habits and keep a proper weight.
These habits will help them stay healthy for life.
28. What is the main purpose of the “Three-Year Weight Management Action Plan”
A. To teach people how to cook healthy meals.
B. To add more physical education classes in schools.
C. To solve the weight problem of people, especially teenagers.
29. What does a balanced diet include according to the passage
A. Only fruits and vegetables.
B. A lot of high-fat and high-sugar foods.
C. Au kinds of foods like fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins.
30. How long does the plan suggest teenagers exercise daily
A. For about half an hour. B. For at least an hour. C. for less than an hour.
31. What do parents need to do to support the plan
A. Set a good example for children.
B. Let children eat junk food freely.
C. Stop children from doing exercise.
第二节（共 4 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 8 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。
When you feel worried or sad, it is helpful to have a happy place. Have you ever heard of it 32
Where to find it
The “happy place” can be a physical space, like your bedroom. It can also be a memory space. Perhaps it is
somewhere you went on holiday. 33 You might be in your happy place while you are reading.
When to visit it
34 It is here for you when you feel sad or anxious (焦虑的). It is where you take care of yourself. You
can relax by drawing, singing or staying there quietly at any time.
How to create it
Creating the happy place is easy. You can make it in your bedroom by adding books in it. 35 Think of
your happy time or picture your favorite space. In that way, you can imagine yourself there.
Remember your happy place is just for you. Keep it simple or creative as you like. You can go to your happy
place whenever you like.
A. Let me tell you something about it.
B. You should share your happy place with others.
C. You can also create the happy place in your brain.
D. You can go to your happy place whenever you like.
E. The happy place could be something you enjoy doing, too.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 25 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Mr. Hatch lived a lonely life. He walked alone to work every day, and ate his lunch in a corner. He never smiled.
He 36 talked to anyone on his way home. In the evening, he read a newspaper and went to bed early.
His life changed, however, one day when he got a heartshaped box full of chocolate in the mail, along with a
piece of paper that said, “Somebody 37 you.” At first, he couldn’t believe it, but as he read the 38 , he
began to laugh and dance around. The message opened his 39 to the power of love. Soon he found himself
being cheerful. He became a joy at work and began to 40 people in the neighborhood. As the days and weeks
went by, his laughter, smiles, kindness, happiness and love 41 everyone around him.
Later, Mr. Hatch found out that the heartshaped box belonged to 42 else. It was a mistake. He felt sad
and went back to his 43 ways. When his neighbors found out, however, they 44 not to lose the light
he shared. They surprised him with a party and a long banner (条幅) that read: “Everybody loves Mr. Hatch.” Mr.
Hatch cried when he arrived at the party and knew that somebody loved him after all. Then he laughed, hugged his
friends and felt 45 .
I think we all have a tiny bit of Mr. Hatch in us. At times we all feel unloved and unlovable. However, somebody
does love us. May the pages of your life story be full of love.
36. A. often B. hardly C. always
37. A. loves B. hates C. knows
38. A. message B. decision C. introduction
39. A. eye B. hand C. heart
40. A. work out B. help out C. give out
41. A. turned B. held C. moved
42. A. anybody B. somebody C. everybody
43. A. old B. good C. right
44. A. asked B. decided C. explained
45. A. cool B. worried C. warm
第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或者括号内单词的正确形式。
Have you ever felt you don’t have enough time to learn new things or develop interests I used to have this
46.__________(feel). However, recently, I 47.__________(learn) a new way from my classmate.
Nancy is very excellent in my eyes. She can do many things, like playing 48.__________ piano and speaking
four languages. I once asked her how she could do that. She told me her secret: use fragmented time (碎片化时间) to
learn.
Fragmented time is the time that we usually waste. But Nancy said that these pieces of time 49.__________(be)
important. She valued them and used them to learn something new. She gave me some 50.__________(example).
When she was on the bus, she would read a short article. She would memorize a few French words when she took a
break from the class.
I was 51.__________(interest) in her method and decided to try it. I downloaded some online lessons about
photography and watched them in my fragmented time. When I waited 52.__________ my parents to pick me up after
school, I would take a photo of something that caught my eye.
Several months later, I was surprised 53.__________ I learned many things in such a short time. I also felt much
54.__________(happy) after I did something meaningful with my time. I realized that I didn’t need
55.__________(have) lots of time to learn new things. I could just use my fragmented time to learn anything I want.
第四部分 综合技能（共 2 节，满分 25 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题或者翻译划线部分。
Hello, I’m David Smith. Now I’d like to share with you the story about how music has had a strong influence on
my life.
Have you ever faced a time when things looked dark and you had no hope at all Two years ago, my body ached
all the time. 59. 所以我去看了医生。 I was told I had a serious illness which was difficult to cure (治愈). And I
thought I didn’t have much longer to live. I was very afraid and I felt so lonely and discouraged.
Then one day, I had to go through a two-hour medical treatment. The doctor wanted me to relax, so she played
some music for me, and one of the songs was Happy, which has been my favorite song till now. This positive (积极的)
and exciting song gave me strength (力量) and helped me go through the darkness. From then on, I began to listen to
music all the time. John A. Logan once said, “60. Music is the medicine of the mind.” And it’s true. Music worked
wonders (奇迹) for me. It helped me recover (恢复) and come back to life.
Of course, I hope none of you have to experience the same kind of pain that I did. However, we all go through
some periods when we feel sad or lonely. During those times, music can help you in the same way that it helped me. I
hope all of you will value music and make it a part of your life.
56. Was David Smith seriously ill two years ago _______________________________________________________________________________________________
57. How did the doctor help the writer to relax during the medical treatment _______________________________________________________________________________________________
58. What is the writer’s favorite song _______________________________________________________________________________________________
59. 将短文中划线句子翻译成为英文。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
60. 将短文中划线句子翻译成为中文。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 书面表达（满分 15 分）
世界卫生组织和联合国儿童基金会将生活技能（life skills）作为全球青少年儿童发展的重要主题之一。请
根据图中提示写一篇英语短文，描述作为青少年，你们应提高哪些及如何提高自己的生活技能。除了提示中的
内容，请你至少再补充一条。
要求：
1. 语言通顺，要点齐全，意思连贯，条理清楚，书写规范；
2. 文中不得出现真实的姓名和学校名称；
3. 80 词左右，文章开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Life skills
Life skills are necessary for us. What life skills should we teenagers develop And how ___________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2025 年初中毕业学业考试冲刺卷（5·20B）
九年级英语参考答案
1-5 CCBBA 6-10 CBCAC 11-15 BABCA 16-20 BACBA
21-23 ABC 24-27 BACB 28-31 CCBA 32-35 AEDC
36-40. BAACB 41-45 CBABC
46. feeling 47. have learned 48. the 49. were 50. examples
51. interested 52. for 53. because 54. happier 55. to have
56. Yes.
57. By playing some music for him.
58. Happy.
59. So I went to the doctor.
60. 音乐是心灵的良药。
书面表达：
Life skills
Life skills are necessary for us. What life skills should we teenagers develop And how Here are my opinions.
First, we should try our best to keep healthy. It’s a good idea to keep a balanced diet and take daily exercise. And
be happy every day. Second, working with others is important. Sometimes, we need to work as a team. When we
communicate with others, try to understand them. Third, solve problems in different ways. We are able to find out the
problem, find solutions alone or with others and then solve it. Besides, learn to manage time. We can make a list of
things to do every morning. Get up early and never be late for school. Finally, learn some basic skills, such as cooking.
We can ask family for help or search the Internet. Then practice making some dishes.
All in all, if we try our best to improve these life skills, we will lead a happier, and healthier life.

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