资源简介

2025年广东省中考模拟卷（四）
英语
本试卷共12页，81小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2．作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能写在试卷上。
3．非选择题必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A．听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1．What does Tom like to do in his free time
A． B． C．
2．Where did Tom go last weekend
A． B． C．
3．Who did Tom meet there
A． B． C．
4．When did Tom come back home
A． B． C．
5．How did Tom feel after coming back
A． B． C．
B．听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6．What club does John want to join
A．The art club. B．The music club. C．The sports club.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7．How does Lily usually go to school
A．By bike. B．By bus. C．On foot.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8．Who is the man talking about
A．A famous scientist. B．A great teacher. C．A popular singer.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9．What does Peter plan to do this weekend
A．He plans to read a book.
B．He plans to do volunteer work.
C．He plans to watch a movie.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10．Where did the boy leave his English book
A．In the classroom. B．In the library. C．On the school bus.
听第六段对话，回答第11～12小题。
11．Why does the boy like volunteering at the animal shelter
A．Because he loves animals.
B．Because he wants to make money.
C．Because he has nothing else to do.
12．When can the girl start volunteering there
A．This Saturday morning. B．This Sunday afternoon. C．Next Monday afternoon.
听第七段对话，回答第13～15小题。
13．Which book has the girl read recently
A．The Adventures of Tom Sawyer.
B．Alice in Wonderland.
C．The Old Man and the Sea.
14．How does the girl like the main character
A．Brave. B．Shy. C．Funny.
15．What does the boy want to do
A．To borrow the book. B．To buy the book. C．To return the book.
C．听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16．When did Tim’s family see the dog
A．Last Saturday. B．Last Friday. C．Last Sunday.
17．Where did Tim’s family find the dog
A．By the river. B．By the road near a small forest. C．In the park.
18．Who put medicine on the dog’s leg
A．Tim. B．Tim’s mother. C．Tim’s father.
19．How did the dog change after being taken care of by Tim’s family
A．It became stronger and more playful.
B．It became thinner and sadder.
C．It became fatter and quieter.
20．What did Tim’s family name the dog
A．Lucky. B．Happy. C．Charlie.
D．听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段关于泰山机器狗的介绍。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
A Special Robot Dog Name: Unitree B2 Look: like a real dog Tasks:·tell 21．______ to protect the environment ·help collect 22．______ on the mountain Abilities:·move well on 23．______ kinds of ground ·stay balanced while moving ·carry up to 24．______ kilograms ·work for four to six hours after a 25．______ charge（充电量）
E．情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Linda: What are you doing on your phone, Tom
Tom: ___1___
Linda: A study buddy(同伴) What’s that
Tom: It’s someone who studies with me. We also call it “dazi”. We can help each other.
Linda: ___2___
Tom: Well, we can share study notes, discuss difficult problems and encourage each other.
Linda: That’s useful.___3___
Tom: I joined a study-buddy-finding group on a social app Many students are looking for study buddies there.
Linda: Good.___4___
Tom: Yes, we meet online every weekend to talk about our study progress.
Linda: ___5___ It’s a good way to improve your learning.
A. That sounds great!
B. How did you find a study buddy
C. What kind of help can you get from a study buddy
D. I’m studying with a study buddy online.
E. Do you often study together
F. I like reading books alone.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
As the cold season arrives, people in Beijing put on thick sweaters and warm jackets to stay warm. Interestingly, some large roadside trees are also “dressed” in colorful sweaters specially made for ____6____!
In areas like Hongxing Hutong and Beijing Foreign Studies University, these trees look like they are having ____7____ special “winter fashion show”. The sweaters are ____8____ bright, cheerful colors, just like the dopamine-colored(多巴胺色的) clothes we see. They don’t just make the trees look fun, but also help them stay ____9____ in the cold.
In winter, the trees in the city usually look bare (光秃秃的), and everything ____10____ a bit boring. But these sweaters help with that. They make the trees look so ____11____ and brighten up the streets.
With their bright colors, the tree sweaters ____12____ popular among both citizens and tourists so far. Many people visit these places just ____13____ photos. For children, the sweaters provide a chance to have fun ____14____ play. For example, in Pinggu, kids happily touch the pictures on the sweaters and play around the decorated (装饰的) trees.
Even though we can’t put ____15____ on every tree, this creative idea is really cool. It makes the city more interesting and brings people closer to their city.
6. A. they B. them C. their
7. A. a B. an C. the
8. A. in B. on C. at
9. A. warm B. warmth C. warmly
10. A. seemed B. seems C. to seem
11. A. lively B. livelier C. liveliest
12. A. is becoming B. become C. have become
13. A. to take B. took C. taking
14. A. but B. so C. and
15. A. sweater B. sweaters C. sweaters’
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
每小题1分，共10分）
The Spring Festival has a history of over 4,000 years. It started as a farming festival to celebrate the end of winter and the beginning of ____16____. On December 4, 2024, UNESCO (联合国教科文组织) added it to the list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (人类非物质文化遗产). This shows its great ____17____ around the world.
In the past, people celebrated it by ____18____ ancestors, lighting lanterns, and preparing big meals. They also shared stories about the beast Nian which could be scared away by loud noises and the color ____19____. Today, some traditions have been modernized. For example, fireworks are now paired with light shows, and lucky money is often sent through apps ____20____.
The Spring Festival is not only celebrated in China but also around the world. In Sydney, there are big parades and fireworks. In Indonesia, people mix their own customs with Chinese ones. So the festival becomes a ____21____ event that brings people from different cultures together.
Why is it so popular It’s because the festival ____22____ family love, wishes for a better future, and new starts. The overseas Chinese help ____23____ these traditions. Also, China’s cultural activities let more people know about this wonderful ____24____.
The Spring Festival shows us that traditions can change but their important meanings stay the ____25____. It reminds us of the importance of family, culture, and unity (团结一致), making it a meaningful celebration for people everywhere.
16. A. summer B. autumn C. spring D. winter
17. A. importance B. difference C. confidence D. kindness
18. A. visiting B. honoring C. seeing D. calling
19. A. yellow B. green C. white D. red
20. A. easily B. carefully C. slowly D. secretly
21. A. strange B. special C. common D. usual
22. A. is full of B. is ready for C. is careful with D. is good at
23. A. forget B. keep C. change D. spread
24. A. event B. story C. festival D. culture
25. A. difficult B. same C. possible D. modern
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
A
Sunny Community is planning a Community Fun Day on July 5th. It’s a great chance for everyone in the community to have fun and learn something new. There will be two main activities on that day. The first one is Art Corner. Here, you’ll have materials such as colored paper, crayons, and old magazines to draw beautiful pictures. It’s the perfect place to let your creativity run wild. Whether you’re an experienced artist or just starting out, there is always something for everyone. If you want to join in the art-making activity at Art Corner, you can bring your own drawing tools. The activity starts at 10:00 a.m. and finishes at 3:00 p.m. Right next to Art Corner, you’ll find Useful Tips munity experts will share practical tips on cleaning, gardening, and fixing small things at home. These tips are the focus of Useful Tips Area and can really be helpful in your daily life. The best of this amazing Community Fun Day is that it’s completely free for all community members! So, there’s no need to worry about any entry fees. Just gather your family, bring your neighbors, and come to enjoy a day full of laughter, learning, and community spirit.
26. What can visitors do at the Art Corner on Community Fun Day
A. Learn about space. B. Make vegetable salads.
C. Take chemistry tests. D. Draw pictures with materials.
27. What can you bring if you want to join in the art-making activity according to the passage
A. Cleaning tools. B. Old magazines.
C. Your own drawing tools. D. Gardening tools.
28. How long does the art-making activity last
A. For 3 hours. B. For 4 hours.
C. For 5 hours. D. For 6 hours.
29. What is the focus of Useful Tips Area
A. Tips on parent-child cooperation.
B. Tips on teacher-student communication.
C. Tips on daily tasks.
D. Tips on children’s health and safety.
30. Which of the following is TRUE about Community Fun Day
A. It is only for children. B. It requires entry fees.
C. It focuses on scientific learning. D. It is free for all community members.
B
In the white, icy world of Antarctica, Chinese scientists worked hard in the freezing cold to do research. On April 10, 2024, China’s 40th Antarctic scientific expedition (考察) team returned China after finishing their tasks.
“Our main tasks in Antarctica were to watch the weather and to build weather stations,” said Zhu Kongju. He was a member of the expedition team and is an engineer at the Chinese Academy of Meteorological Sciences (CAMS).
Zhu and his teammates did tests on greenhouse gases and the ozone (臭氧) in Antarctica. They wanted to see how climate change is affecting the area. They also set up two weather stations that can work in extremely cold conditions and fixed the ones already there, so that they can increase the area of weather monitoring.
The hardest part of working in Antarctica was dealing with “surprises” from the weather. Zhu and his team used snowmobiles and sleds (雪橇) to travel and move the things they needed every day. One day, a snowstorm made it hard to see even three meters ahead. They had to use GPS to stay together, taking four hours just to park their snowmobiles.
Although the work was very tough, the scientists managed to collect important data for their research. “The frozen parts of Earth are really important for the world’s energy and water. Antarctica plays a big role in the world’s climate,” Zhu said. Even though few people live there, its weather changes a lot because of the world’s climate, which makes it a key place to study climate change.
31. What was the main task of the expedition team
A. Studying the animals and plants in Antarctica.
B. Watching the weather and building weather stations.
C. Exploring new areas in Antarctica.
D. Collecting sea water in Antarctica.
32. What does the underlined word “monitoring” in Paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Watching. B. Protecting. C. Changing. D. Building.
33. Why does the author mention the snowstorm in Paragraph 4
A. To show the importance of GPS in Antarctica.
B. To explain how the scientists moved their equipment.
C. To describe the difficulties the scientists faced in Antarctica.
D. To introduce the daily work of the scientific expedition team.
34. Where is this passage probably from
A. A storybook. B. A diary.
C. A guidebook. D. A newspaper.
35. What is the passage mainly about
A. The daily life of Chinese scientists in Antarctica.
B. The difficulties Chinese scientists faced in Antarctica.
C. Chinese scientists’ research work and its importance in Antarctica.
D. The reasons why Antarctica is important for the world’s climate.
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人的需求，右栏是对七种食物的介绍。请为每个人匹配相应的食物，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余项。
___36___ Elisa is sick. She wants to have sweet food that can make her want to eat more. ___37___ Sam is busy and often feels tired. He hopes to find a drink that can give him energy and is also good for his health. ___38___ Teresa is a big fan of traditional Chinese festivals. She wants to try some special mooncakes that are different from the common ones. ___39___ Nathan has a cold and a sore throat. He wants to eat something that not only tastes good but also makes him feel better. ___40___ Selena likes to try new and special food. She is interested in food that mixes traditional Chinese medicine with modern food ideas. A．“Qi-increasing Milk Tea” has traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) like ginseng (人参). It is good for those who are often tired. B．“TCM Mooncakes” are made from TCM such as hawthorn (山楂). They are sweet and can make you feel hungrier. C．“Health-increasing Cookies” are made from some common TCM. They are convenient to eat and have certain health-care effects. D．“TCM-Mixed Juice” mixes useful parts of TCM with fruit juice. It is both healthy and delicious. E．“Special Taste TCM Ice-cream” is a new product that mixes the coolness of ice-cream with the effects of TCM. F．“Throat-calming Soup” is made from TCM like loquat (枇杷) leaves. It can help with sore throat and cold. G．“Festival-special Mooncakes” are a new type of mooncakes that mix TCM with the mooncake culture. They are very popular during festivals.
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择适当的词，并根据需要用其正确形式填空，使文章语法正确、完整连贯，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。注意：每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。
around that well before they with after new come long give technology
In 2025, a new generation (一代人) are arriving. They’re called Generation Beta. They are the children born from early 2025 to the end of 2039. Right ___41___ them, there were Generation Alpha who were born from 2010 to 2024. An Australian research company ___42___ them these names. Generation Beta ___43___ after Generation Alpha, just like the order of letters in the Greek alphabet (字母表).
Their research predicts ___44___ by 2035, about 16% of the world’s people will be from Generation Beta. Many of them will live a ___45___ time, maybe into the 22nd century.
This ___46___ generation will grow up with lots of AI and digital tools. They’ll see self-driving cars, wear health-tracking devices, and use virtual reality (虚拟现实) in ___47___ daily lives. School, work, healthcare, and fun time will all be different because of these ___48___.
But they’ll also face big challenges, such as climate change, people moving ___49___ a lot, and cities growing too fast. The good news is that they’ll be more aware of the world, care more about their communities, and work together ___50___. They’ll learn that new ideas are important not just for making life easier, but for solving the big problems of their time.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A．回答问题
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答五个问题，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。要求所写答案语法正确、信息完整切题。
On December 26th,2024, a small Chinese start-up company called DeepSeek introduced a new AI system that could match top chatbots (聊天机器人) from some large companies. According to the same tests used by American AI companies, the DeepSeek chatbot could answer questions, solve logic (逻辑) problems, and even write computer programs.
What’s surprising is that DeepSeek created this AI system at a much lower cost. While big technology companies spent tens of millions of dollars building their latest AI systems, DeepSeek only needed about $6 million. This challenges the idea that only large companies can afford to build the most modern AI systems.
Since a well-known company started its chatbot in 2022, many experts believed no company could compete without spending hundreds of millions on special chips (芯片). Leading AI companies often use supercomputers with up to 16,000 chips to train their chatbots. However, DeepSeek’s engineers said they only needed about 2,000 special chips.
Because getting chips was hard, DeepSeek engineers had to train their AI system more smartly to keep up. A professor studying technology and international relations said they did a great job even with difficulties.
DeepSeek’s success shows that small companies can also create powerful AI systems with smart plans and few materials It opens new chances for development in the AI field.
51 When did DeepSeek introduce the new AI system
____________________________________________________________
52. What could the DeepSeek chatbot do according to American AI companies’ tests
____________________________________________________________
53. How much did DeepSeek need to build its new AI system
___________________________________________________________
54. Why did DeepSeek engineers have to train their AI system more smartly to keep up
___________________________________________________________
55. What does DeepSeek’s success show
___________________________________________________________
B．书面表达
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将短文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
56. 假设你是李华，你的好友Lucy对AI(人工智能)很感兴趣，发邮件询问你相关信息。请你根据以下思维导图的提示，用英文写一封邮件，介绍AI的应用，分享你对AI的看法，并谈谈你的展望。
注意：
(1)可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
(2)不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名和考生的真实姓名。
(3)语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear Lucy,
I know you’re interested in AI, so I’m excited to share my thoughts with you._____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Looking forward to your reply.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
2025年广东省中考模拟卷（四）
英语
本试卷共12页，81小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2．作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能写在试卷上。
3．非选择题必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A．听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1．What does Tom like to do in his free time
A． B． C．
2．Where did Tom go last weekend
A． B． C．
3．Who did Tom meet there
A． B． C．
4．When did Tom come back home
A． B． C．
5．How did Tom feel after coming back
A． B． C．
B．听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6．What club does John want to join
A．The art club. B．The music club. C．The sports club.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7．How does Lily usually go to school
A．By bike. B．By bus. C．On foot.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8．Who is the man talking about
A．A famous scientist. B．A great teacher. C．A popular singer.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9．What does Peter plan to do this weekend
A．He plans to read a book.
B．He plans to do volunteer work.
C．He plans to watch a movie.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10．Where did the boy leave his English book
A．In the classroom. B．In the library. C．On the school bus.
听第六段对话，回答第11～12小题。
11．Why does the boy like volunteering at the animal shelter
A．Because he loves animals.
B．Because he wants to make money.
C．Because he has nothing else to do.
12．When can the girl start volunteering there
A．This Saturday morning B．This Sunday afternoon. C．Next Monday afternoon.
听第七段对话，回答第13～15小题。
13．Which book has the girl read recently
A．The Adventures of Tom Sawyer.
B．Alice in Wonderland.
C．The Old Man and the Sea.
14．How does the girl like the main character
A．Brave. B．Shy. C．Funny.
15．What does the boy want to do
A．To borrow the book. B．To buy the book. C．To return the book.
C．听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16．When did Tim’s family see the dog
A．Last Saturday. B．Last Friday. C．Last Sunday.
17．Where did Tim’s family find the dog
A．By the river. B．By the road near a small forest. C．In the park.
18．Who put medicine on the dog’s leg
A．Tim. B．Tim’s mother. C．Tim’s father.
19．How did the dog change after being taken care of by Tim’s family
A．It became stronger and more playful.
B．It became thinner and sadder.
C．It became fatter and quieter
20．What did Tim’s family name the dog
A．Lucky. B．Happy. C．Charlie.
D．听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段关于泰山机器狗的介绍。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
A Special Robot Dog Name: Unitree B2 Look: like a real dog Tasks:·tell 21．______ to protect the environment ·help collect 22．______ on the mountain Abilities:·move well on 23．______ kinds of ground ·stay balanced while moving ·carry up to 24．______ kilograms ·work for four to six hours after a 25．______ charge（充电量）
E．情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C
3. B 4. E
5. A
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
【6~15题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
每小题1分，共10分）
【16~25题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
A
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. D 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. D
B
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. C
C
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. A 38. G 39. F 40. E
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. before
42. gave es
44. that 45. long
46. new 47. their
48. technology
49. around 50. better
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
【51~56题答案】
【答案】51. On December 26th, 2024.
52. It could answer questions, solve logic problems, and even write computer programs.
53. About $6 million.
54. Because getting chips was hard.
55. It shows that small companies can also create powerful AI systems with smart plans and few materials.
56. 例文
Dear Lucy,
I know you’re interested in AI, so I’m excited to share my thoughts with you.
AI is really useful. In study, there are AI - based apps. They can help us with homework. For example, they can correct our writing mistakes and explain difficult grammar points. In life, smart cameras with AI can keep our homes safe. Smart fridges can tell us what food we need to buy.
AI has good sides. It makes things easier and faster. But it also has bad sides. If we depend on it too much, we might become lazy.
I hope in the future, AI will do even more good things for us. We should use it well and not let it control us.
Looking forward to your reply.
Best wishes,
Li Hua

展开更多......

收起↑