2025年安徽省滁州市全椒县中考三模英语试题(含答案,含听力原文,无音频)

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2025年安徽省滁州市全椒县中考三模英语试题(含答案,含听力原文,无音频)

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2025 安徽省中考仿真卷
英语(一) 试题卷
注意事项: 中考名师直播
三年中考真题1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。英语听力音频
2.全卷包括“试题卷”(12页)和“答题卷”(2页)两部分。 *配套参考答案
3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What time is it now
2. What are the speakers going to do on the weekend
3. What does the woman think about the book
A. Interesting. B. Difficult. C. Helpful.
4. How will the man go to school today
A. On foot. B. By car. C. By bike.
5. How does Brett feel about tomorrow's match
A. Confident. B. Excited. C. Worried.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
6. Which sport will the man take part in
A. The running race. B. The long jump. C. The high jump.
7. What will the speakers most probably do next
A. Do sports. B. Go to the library. C. Watch a match.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
8. What does the man's father do
A. A player. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
9. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. To talk with his parents.
B. To ask Ms Tang for help.
C. To follow his parents' advice.
10. What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. How did Li Mei go to Singapore
A. By bus. B. By plane. C. By train.
12. What did Li Mei think of the journey
A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Exciting.
13. When did Li Mei arrive at the camp
A. In the morning. B. In the evening. C. At night.
14. How did Li Mei feel at first
A. Surprised. B. Happy. C. Lonely.
15. What does the speaker mainly tell us
A. An experience at a summer camp.
B. A story from a foreign camper.
C. A skill of making friends.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Making friends with a teacher
Benefits · Good for your studies. · Good for your own _16_ .
Ways of developing friendship with a teacher Respect the teacher. Respect your teacher's role and _17_ his or her efforts.If so, you will get the teacher's love.
Start a conversation actively. · After class or on weekends, _18_ your teacher when meeting him or her. · You can talk about your study and other things. · You can share your own thoughts and opinions _19_ .
Find common interests. Sharing the _20_ hobby or interest will help deepen your friendship easily.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Everybody has got a lot in the past three years. It's a(n) for your hard work.
A. word B. prize C. photo D. interest
22. Mrs Smith is a mother. She doesn't allow her children to surf the Internet or watch TV on weekdays.
A. strict B. helpful C. careful D. patient
23.— Lucy's birthday is coming. How can we it for her
— What about having a surprise party for her
A. change B. discuss C. explain D. celebrate
24.— What do you think we need to do after an accident
—— We’ d better the cause of the accident so that we can stop it from happening again.
A. make up B. try out C. find out D. give up
25.—I found in the room. Where have they gone
— Oh, they have gone to the sports hall.
A. somebody B. nobody C. anybody D. everybody
26.— Don't make so much noise. Grandma .
—OK, no problem.
A. sleeps B. will sleep C. is sleeping D. was sleeping
27. It was raining and the driver could hardly see people or cars on the road.
A. suddenly B. probably C. heavily D. slowly
28. I didn't understand my teacher's great love I became a teacher myself.
A. if B. until C. since D. because
29. Five more clubs next week to make our school life rich and colorful.
A. set up B. are set up C. will be set up D. were set up
30.— Would you mind my turning up the TV The New Year concert has just begun. . Your sister is doing her homework now.
A. Better not B. Nice idea C. Not at all D. Of course you can
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Shops in Sweden are shutting down one after another in recent years. In a village called Veckholm, the 31 shop closed down more than ten years ago. The nearest supermarket is a half-hour drive away, but the villagers have no 32 but to go there.
Last July, a self-service store 33 in the village. The idea came from DanielLundh. The 20-square-meter 34 is open 24 hours a day, but there are no shop assistants(店员). 35 can buy things through an app on their phones.
“It's a great 36 for us in our daily life,” said Giulia Ray, one of the locals inVeckholm. “We’ re 37 to be able to shop here.”
“We come here every few days and buy what we need,” said Lucas Edman, an engineer who works in Veckholm. “It's a little 38 , but it's okay. It's a price I can accept, and it 39 me a trip to another place.”
In just three years, Daniel has 40 nearly 30 self-service stores in Sweden. He also plans to open some stores of this kind abroad soon.
31. A. first B. far C. rich D. last
32. A. choice B. hope C. pain D. regret
33. A. remained B. appeared C. happened D. spread
34. A. restaurant B. museum C. store D. farm
35. A. Visitors B. Policemen C. Workers D. Customers
36. A. rest B. convenience C. need D. movement
37. A. lucky B. safe C. angry D. silly
38. A. cheap B. quiet C. expensive D. loud
39. A. shows B. saves C. wins D. brings
40. A. took down B. tidied up C. closed down D. set up
B
There's a special way to share reading: read it out loud.
An organization called LitWorld 41 World Read Aloud Day (WRAD) more than ten years ago. WRAD is held on the first Wednesday in February. On that day,millions of people around the world read 42 to celebrate it.
This year, Karisa 43 WRAD with her fourth graders. “My 44 read out their favorite picture books in class,” she said. The class made a video call with Swanson, the famous children's 45 . Swanson said, “I read my picture book Footprints Across the Planet. It was so much fun 46 the book. We talked about how everything 47 our planet.”
Another writer, Elly Swartz, also visited many classrooms online. An eighth grader named Maya was very 48 because she met her favorite writer!
Pam Allyn, founder of LitWorld, said, “I want people to know how 49 reading aloud is,” she said. “It helps improve many 50 skills, such as listening and writing.The kids get joy out of the experience.”
41. A. showed B. changed C. created D. protected
42. A. alone B. aloud C. quietly D. carefully
43. A. tested B. discovered C. described D. celebrated
44. A. students B. coaches C. parents D. friends
45. A. doctor B. artist C. writer D. traveller
46. A. printing B. selling C. collecting D. sharing
47. A. influences B.compares C. repairs D. interests
48. A. humorous B. excited C. lonely D. serious
49. A. strange B. crazy C. difficult D. important
50. A. research B. language C. life D. service
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hey, Li Ming. The summer holiday is just around the corner. 51
B: Yes. I' ll go to attend a science and technology summer camp in Xuancheng with my cousins.
A: 52
B: Sure. Where are going for the holiday, Wang Peng
A: Yeah, my parents will take my sister and me to Shanghai for a trip.
B: Shanghai 53
A: Yes, it is. It is full of fun. 54
B: How long will you stay there
A: For a week. My aunt works in Shanghai and we will stay in her home.
B: 55
A: Thank you, Li Ming.
A. Have a good trip!
B. That sounds exciting.
C. Do you have any plans
D. I' ve never heard about it.
E. Is it a wonderful place
F. Who are you going there with
G. I' ve been dreaming of going there for a long time.
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Sometimes, the world can be a little dangerous. If you don't know how to tea your children about safety, you can read these storybooks to them.
Oscar and the Bird
Like your kids, Oscar, a cat has a lot of problems. Luckily, Bird knows the answer! The book has beautiful pictures and tells children to use electricity(电) safely.This story can also get children interested in science.
Not Everyone Is Nice
After school, Kathy is waiting for her mother when a strange car comes along. A man smiles and offers to drive her home. Kathy is just about to walk to the car when her mother arrives... This book teaches children that being kind does not mean being safe.
No Dragons for Tea
When a friendly dragon attends a tea party, it accidentally knocks over a candle and the cloth on the table catches fire. Fortunately, a clever little girl knows what to do.From this story, readers will know what we should do in a fire.
Look Left, Look Right, Look Left Again
Wally Waddlewater wants to send a birthday card to his grandma. But to get to the post office, he has to cross several busy streets. Wally Waddlewater tells us how to cross the street safely.
56. Which book tells us how to cross busy streets
A. Oscar and the Bird.
B. Not Everyone Is Nice.
C. No Dragons for Tea.
D. Look Left, Look Right, Look Left Again.
57. What causes a fire in No Dragons for Tea
A. A cat. B. A table. C. A candle. D. A girl.
58. What are the four books mainly about
A. Staying safe.B. Making friends.C. Asking the way. D. Studying science.
B
Bill Losasso is a helpful man. Thirteen years ago, he started the Florida DreamCenter to help the poor. Every week, he donated about 25,000 pounds of food to those in need.
Bill had a birthday wish. He hoped that on his birthday he could drive an ice cream truck all day, gIvIng out ice cream everywhere, so that more people could share the happiness with him. His wish came true on his birthday this year. On Saturday, his daughter surprised him by renting(租)a“Krazy Ice Cream” truck and giving it to her father.
On that day, people of all ages could get a free ice cream from the truck. Bill said,“It is a really special birthday present and I'm happy to be able to share my happiness with my friends.”
Bill's kindness touched many people. A man named Rashon told a local television station, “Life is hard right now and the little thing he did meant a lot to us.” An elderly man named Melvin Hillman saw what Bill did and said, “That was great. Thank you,Bill, for letting me be a part of this. With more people like him in the world, I think our world would be a better place.”
59. Which word best describes Bill Losasso
A. Funny. B. Polite. C. Confident. D. Kind-hearted.
60. How did Bill get the“Krazy Ice Cream” truck
A. Rashon rented it to him.
B. Melvin bought it for him.
C. He got it from his daughter.
D. His friends gave him as a birthday gift.
61. How did Melvin feel that day
A. Curious. B. Thankful. C. Surprised. D. Worried.
62. What is the best title for this text
A. The Hard Time in Bill's Life
B. The Way Bill Makes the Truck Famous
C. Bill's Birthday Party
D. A Special Birthday Gift for Bill
C
Srikanth is a farmer in a village in India. A few weeks ago, a group of monkeys came to the area. They ate coffee beans on Srikanth's farm and messed up his farm.Srikanth tried to drive the monkeys away.
Srikanth kept a statue(雕塑) of a tiger at the farm gate. That was where the monkeys came in. At first, the monkeys were a little afraid, so his idea seemed to work. However, as the color of the statue began to fade(褪去), the monkeys grew emboldened and returned.
Then he had an idea. He took some paints and painted black lines on his pet dog,Bulbul. Bulbul was brown, so it looked like a tiger from far away. Srikanth took the dog to his coffee bean field every morning and evening. He said, “I saw the monkeys running away when they saw Bulbul. My farm is safe again.”
Srikanth's idea worked so well that other farmers began to learn from him.Farmers no longer worried about their crops being eaten by monkeys, because there were cute“tigers” in their fields. Unlike tigers, they didn't roar(吼叫). Sometimes they ran after the monkeys to drive them.
Srikanth said the black lines would lose most of the color in a month. He'd repaint the dog. Because he thought it was a good way for people and animals to live in harmony.
63. Why did the monkeys return soon
A. Because the statue couldn't move.
B. Because the statue was too small.
C. Because the statue lost much of the colour.
D. Because the monkeys pulled down the statue.
64. What does the underlined word“emboldened” mean
A. Interesting. B. Brave. C. Strange. D. Simple.
65. How did Srikanth make his idea work in a long run
A. By repainting the dog.
B. By killing some monkeys.
C. By living with other farmers in harmony.
D. By asking the farmers help each other.
D
If you live in the Caribbean or the southern United States, did you notice any dust(沙尘) in the air during the last month If so, you've experienced a“Godzilla dust cloud”. Late last month, a huge dust cloud reached the Caribbean and the Gulf Coast. It came from as far away as Africa. Scientists believe it is the largest and thickest dust cloud in at least 50 years.
Every year, a layer(层) of very dry, dusty air forms over the dry desert area of the Sahara in Africa. It is called the Saharan Air Layer(SAL). It crosses the Atlantic every three to five days between late spring and early fall. It usually increases in activity from late June to mid-August.
The dust cloud last month was really huge. It blew 5,000 miles across the Atlantic Ocean. It was much thicker than usual and it was lower to the ground. The clouds turned the sky milk-white. People couldn't see as far as they used to. This also caused problems for flights.
Dust clouds are harmful to people's health. Scientists advise people to stay at home. But not everything about dust clouds is bad. They reflect(反射) sunlight back into the sky. This helps keep the summer cool.
66. Where did the“Godzilla dust cloud” come from
A. The south of the US. B. The Caribbean.
C. Africa. D. The Gulf Coast.
67. When may the Saharan Air Layer become the most serious
A. From March to May. B. From April to July.
C. From June to August. D. From July to November.
68. What do we know about last month's dust cloud
A. It caused no air pollution.
B. It was higher in the sky.
C. It brought inconvenience to people's travel.
D. It was thinner but covered 5,000 square miles.
69. In which part of a website can we probably find the text
A. Weather. B. Travel. C. Health. D. Sports.
E
Khao Yai National Park is one of the best national parks in Thailand. Set up in1962, it is also the oldest national park in the country. There are all kinds of birds,plants and wild animals there. Many tourists go there every year.
However, the tourists also bring problems. In fact, littering is a serious problem in the park.
The park was tired of littering, so the officials came up with an idea to teach visitors a lesson. They decided to return all the rubbish to the tourists who had left it.
It happened after Thailand's environment minister (部长) posted some photos online. His pictures showed some water bottles and food bags, along with a note that read, “You left these in Khao Yai National Park. We' ll send them back to you‘as a souvenir(纪念品)’.”
You may be wondering how the park knows where to send litter The answer is simple. When visitors came to the park, they registered(登记) their personal information, such as their names, phone numbers and home addresses. So it was easy to find some litterers by checking it.
The park officials have also made other efforts, for example, putting up notices to tell those visitors who do not follow the rules could be seriously punished. After these steps were taken, the environment in the park has been greatly improved in recent years.
70. What problem does Khao Yai National Park face
A. It is out of repair for long. B. It has fewer tourists.
C. It suffers from littering. D. It has too many wild birds.
71. What did the park officials decide to do to solve the problem
A. Put photos of littering online.
B. Talk with people who left the litter.
C. Ask visitors to pick up the litter in the park.
D. Send the litter back to people who left it.
72. What does the underlined word“it” refer to(指的是)
A. The litter. B. The answer. C. The souvenir. D. The information.
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Once upon a time, there was a tiger named Kamau. Kamau lost a leg, so he was unable to walk very well.
One fine morning, Kamau saw a parrot(鹦鹉) in a tree that had lost one of her wings.
“Hello! My name is Jelani,” the parrot first said hello to Kamau.
“I'm Kamau,” Kamau said.
“Do you know what‘Kamau’ means ” Jelant asked. Kamau was sad after hearing the question. He answered, “My name means ‘Quiet fighter’. But the name does not fit me, for now I cannot be called a fighter.”
“Do you know what my name means It means‘strong’. As you can see, my body isn't fit for it, either. But I still dream of flying freely,” Jelani said. “Sometimes you just have to let go of what you don't have and create a future with what you do have.Don't be sad! There is still a good life ahead.”
Jelant's words touched Kamau. He regained his self-confidence. A year later,Kamau became a father of three children. He tried to protect them from any harm. The family lived a happy life. He hoped to teach his children what he learned from Jelani.“Children, the meaning of life is not only to create the future with strong physical strength. It's more about your mind and your will. When your mind is sunny, your life will be sunny,” Kamau said.
73. What was wrong with Jelani (不超过10个词)
74. What was Jelani's dream (不超过5个词)
75. What lesson can we learn from the story (不超过10个词)
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76. Philip broke Ms Green's glasses, but she wasn't m (生气的) at hum.
77. Emily was lucky enough to find a s (座位) on the underground during the morning rush hour.
78. I'd like a second opinion before I make a d (决定).
79. My broken model plane was f (修) by my grandpa just now.
80. I left in such a hurry that I f (忘记) to turn off the TV.
X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
假如你是某中学的李辉,你的家人打算暑假期间去合肥三河古镇游玩。你想邀请外教 Tom 一起前往。请给 Tom写一封邀请信,发出邀请并介绍三河古镇的特色。内容包括:
1.位于肥西县境内,是5A级风景区(scenic spot),特色旅游名镇:
2.境内三条小河交汇,流入巢湖;
3.建筑特色:临水建房,四面环水。
注意:
1.短文须包含上述内容要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称:
3.词数80~100(开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数)。
Dear Tom,
Yours,
Li Hui
参考答案
英语(一)
第一部分 听力
I---Ⅲ.1~5 BABBC 6~10 CACBA 11~15 BCBCA
Ⅳ.16. growth 17. admire 18. greet 19. politely 20. same
评分标准:1~20题每小题1分。16~20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情给分。
第二部分 语言知识运用
V.21~25 BADCB 26~30 CCBCA
评分标准:21~30题每小题1分。
Ⅵ.31~35 DABCD 36~40 BACBD 41~45 CBDAC 46~50 DABDB
评分标准:31~50题每小题1分。
Ⅶ.51~55 CBEGA
评分标准:51~55题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读
Ⅷ.56~60 DCADC 61~65 BDCBA 66~70 CCCAC 71~72 DD
73. She lost one of her wings.
74. She dreamed of flying freely.
75. When your mind is sunny, your life will be sunny.
评分标准:56~75题每小题2分。73~75题的答案使用完整或简略形式均可,能答出关键词语即可给分,所提供的答案仅供参考。
第四部分 写
.76. mad 77. seat 78. decision 79. fixed 80. forgot
评分标准:76~80题每小题1分。
X. One possible version:
Dear Tom,
I am writing to invite you to go to Hefei with my family in the coming summer holiday.
My parents and I plan to go to Sanhe Ancient Town. Sanhe Ancient Town lies at the south end of FeixiCounty, Hefei City. It is a 5A scenic spot, a famous tourist town and an ancient town of Chinese food culture.There are three rivers in the ancient town of Sanhe, running east into Chaohu Lake. The basic characteristics of Sanhe Ancient Town are special. The locals build houses near the water, all of which are surrounded by water on all sides. All the rivers and lakes are connected with each other. To enjoy the beautiful scenery there, let's go together, shall we I hope you can accept my sincere invitation. I look forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hui
安徽省中考仿真卷·英语
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为20分,按五个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,结合内容和语言表达,综合评定分数。
3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥,加入细节及自己的观点。
4.词数少于80的,从总分中减去1分。
5.拼写错误多,书写较差以致影响表达,在所确定档次的分数范围内,减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(很好):(17~20分)
涵盖所有内容要求,运用较多的语法结构和词汇,语言基本无误,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,内容充实,体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑,具备了较强的语言运用能力,完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好):(13~16分)
涵盖所有内容要求,运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,有少量错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,运用了简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯、完整,表达清楚,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(一般):(9~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务,运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求,有一些错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,内容不够连贯,信息基本可以传达。
第二档(较差):(5~8分)
明显漏掉主要内容,语法结构简单,词汇贫乏,有较多的错误,影响对所写内容的理解,缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯,信息未能清楚传达。
第一档(差):(0~4分)
明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,有大量的错误,所写内容无法理解,信息未能传达。
听力录音文字稿
Ⅰ.短对话理解
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. M:I left my bag in the museum. I'd like to get it back.
W: Let me see. It closes at 6 pm. You only have 40 minutes to get there.
2. W: Would you like to go for a picnic with me on the weekend
M: Good idea. It's too boring to stay at home.
3. M: This book is very interesting and I think it's helpful in improving our English.
W: Well, but it's a little difficult for me.
4. M: Mum, my bike is broken. Could you drive me to school
W: Sure, dear. But you have to wait for a moment. I' ll pick your dad from the bank first.
5. W: Hello, Brett. Are you going to play a football match tomorrow
M: Yes, it's a really important match, but I'm a bit nervous. I haven't practiced for a long time.
Ⅱ.长对话理解
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6 和第7两个小题。
M: The school sports meeting is coming.
W: Yeah, which sport will you take part in, William
M: The high jump. How about you, Linda
W: I'm not sure. Maybe a running race.
M: Great! It's so warm today! Let's go and have some sports right away.
W: That's a good idea!
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
W: You seem to be very sad. What's the matter
M: Well, I want to be a basketball player, but my parents don't agree.
W: Why
M: Because they want me to be a doctor like my father. They think playing basketball takes too much time. They even ask me to give it up.
W: Oh, have you ever talked with them
M: Yes, but they didn't listen to me. What should I do
W: What about asking our teacher Ms Tang for help
M: Sounds nice. I' ll have a try.
Ⅲ.短文理解
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Li Mei went to Singapore last summer to take part in a summer camp. It took her about two hours to fly there.But she was never bored along the way. She used the time to watch a wonderful film on the plane. When she got off the plane, it was six o' clock in the evening. All the other campers were there. She was the last one. All the campers at the summer camp seemed very active. At first, Li Mei didn't know anyone there, so she had to stay alone. But after making friends with a Thai student, she quickly became active. Li Mei learned many interesting customs from the Thai student. Soon, after being introduced to each other, they got to know each other. A few days later, they became good friends.
Ⅳ.信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Making friends with a teacher is a beneficial thing. This is not only good for your studies, but also good for your own growth.
Firstly, you must respect the teacher's role. Have a heart of admiration for the teacher's efforts. This will get the teacher's love.
Starting a conversation with your teacher actively is also important. After class or on weekends, greet your teacher when you meet him or her. You can have a talk about your study, and you can also talk about other things.It is also good to share your own thoughts and opinions politely.
What's more, try to find common interests. If you and your teacher share the same hobby or interest, such as sports, reading, music, or travel, it will of course deepen your friendship easily.
Don't worry if the teacher is older than you. You can become good friends if you are willing.

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