资源简介

英 语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2. 答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5. 考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man going
A. To a hotel. B. To a park. C. To a bank.
2. How long will the basketball practice last
A. For one hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours.
3. Why is Max unhappy
A. Because he lost his watch.
B. Because he just had a gym class.
C. Because he fell on the playground.
4. What are the speakers going to do on Sunday
A. Go to the zoo. B. Watch a film. C. Practice kung fu.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A hobby. B. A party. C. A subject.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Who is asking for help
A. Mark. B. Judy. C. Eric.
7. What club is the boy most likely to join
A. Sports club. B. Science club. C. Music club.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What is Thomson’s favorite subject
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Physics.
9. Why does Lisa like math
A. Because it helps her think deeply.
B. Because it’s easy for her to learn.
C. Because it’s interesting to solve problems.
10. What does Thomson probably mean in the end
A. He wants to help Lisa.
B. He wants to shake hands with Lisa.
C. He needs Lisa’s help to start a study group.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. Who’s the speaker
A. A teacher. B. A guide. C. A student.
12. What did the farmers grow first on the farm
A. Apples. B. Strawberries. C. Tomatoes.
13. What will the visitor do from 9:00 to 10:00 in the morning
A. Buy gifts. B. Take a walk. C. Pick strawberries.
14. What is the prize for winning the strawberry-picking competition
A. A free lunch.
B. A big box of strawberry cookies.
C. A trip to the city.
15. What is the main purpose of Happy Farm now
A. To teach farming skills.
B. To let people enjoy country life.
C. To sell vegetables to the city.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Anna I feel upset because sometimes I can’t fall asleep. But I don’t really know why. What are your tricks (诀窍) for falling asleep
Frank I daydream. I have a couple of stories to jump into and I know that either I will sleep or have a good time imagining things. Either way, it’s a win, which is one of the reasons why falling asleep is so easy for me.
Emily I watch Family Guy before I fall asleep and I always get a good night’s rest. It’s strange because the TV play is not boring or anything like that, but it helps stop me from overthinking. Maybe it’s the actors’ voices help me to sleep.
Tony I bore myself to sleep. When I lie in bed, I think about boring things in my head to keep myself away from stressful thoughts. For example, I memorize things like numbers, US states, capitals or the alphabet (字母表). And it helps me keep my mind from racing.
Linda I use a yoga trick. Focus on every part of your body to make sure it’s fully relaxed. You may find your neck, shoulders, back and legs are stressed. Do the trick several times. The more relaxed you become, the easier it will be for you to fall asleep. Keep doing the trick until you fall asleep.
1. How does Anna feel about her situation
A Happy. B. Relaxed. C. Worried. D. Bored.
2. Which trick for falling asleep is from the text
A. Daydreaming about stories. B. Watching boring TV programs.
C. Memorizing English words. D. Doing different kinds of sports
3. In which part of the magazine can we read the text
A. Story Garden. B. Healthy Living. C. Study Skills. D. Sports News.
B
Many people love to listen to music while driving. Thanks to the world’s musical roads, they can now enjoy music while taking road trips without turning on the radio.
A musical road can create music when a car’s tires go over grooves (沟槽) on the road. To produce beautiful music, drivers must pass over the grooves at a certain speed. Signs often tell drivers the right speed. The first musical road was created in Gylling, Denmark, in 1995.
Since the mid-1990s, musical roads have sprung up in many different countries. For example, in Japan, there are many musical roads throughout the country. To remind drivers to listen to the coming music, all the roads are marked with colorful musical notes that are painted on these roads. Drivers can decide whether to go over the grooves or not because they are set on the side of the road.
In Hungary, there is a musical road in honor of one of the country’s most popular musical performers, Laszlo Bodi. Bodi was the lead singer for the band Republic. Formed in 1990, the group is one of Hungary’s biggest acts and is still active today. Sadly, Bodi passed away in 2013. But people still remember him as there’s a road where drivers can hear 30 seconds of the Republic song “Road 67”.
Musical roads are also keeping drivers safe. In Indonesia, a road plays the first six notes of “Happy Birthday”. The fifth note is a little out of tune, though. This “mistake” keeps drivers awake and aware, and it has reduced the number of traffic accidents. Such is the power of music and musical roads.
4. A musical road can create music when a car’s tires go over grooves ________.
A. slowly B. quickly C. at a certain speed D. in an “S” shape
5. What can we know about the band Republic from the text
①When it was formed. ②How it was started. ③Who its lead singer was. ④How many songs it created.
A. ①② B. ②④ C. ①③ D. ③④
6. What can the musical road in Indonesia do
A. It can keep drivers safe. B. It can light up the road at night.
C. It can provide driving directions. D. It can make drivers less stressed.
7. Why does the writer write the text
A. To advise us to enjoy music. B. To introduce a kind of creative road.
C. To show how drivers stay safe on the road. D. To explain why drivers like to listen to music.
C
He was an old man who fished alone in a boat in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without catching a fish. In the first forty days, a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish, the boy’s parents had told him that the old man was now salao, which is the worst form of unluckiness, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his boat empty and he always went down to help him carry his fishing gear (渔具).
The old man was thin with deep wrinkles (皱纹) in the back of his neck. His hands had the deep-creased scars (伤疤) from handling heavy fish with the cords (绳索). But none of these scars were fresh. Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same color as the sea and were cheerful and undefeated.
“Santiago,” the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the boat was. “I could go fishing with you again. We’ve made some money.”
The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
“No,” the old man said, “You’re with a lucky boat. Stay with your lucky boat.”
“But remember how you went eighty-seven days without fish and then we caught big ones daily for three weeks ”
“I remember,” the old man said.
“It was Papa who made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey.”
“I know,” the old man said. “It is quite normal.”
“He hasn’t much faith (信心).”
“No,” the old man said. “But we have. Haven’t we ”
“Yes,” the boy said. “Can I buy you a beer on the terrace (露台), and then we’ll take the things home ”
“Why not ” the old man said. “Between fishermen.”
(Adapted from The Old Man and the Sea by American writer Ernest Hemingway)
8. Why did the boy leave the old man
A. Because the old man was too old to fish. B. Because the boy was tired of the old man.
C. Because the boy’s parents made him do it. D. Because the old man preferred to fish alone.
9. What does the underlined word “handling” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Paying for. B. Looking at. C. Caring about. D. Dealing with.
10. What do we know about the boy
A. He was good at fishing. B. He was born in Santiago.
C. He loved the old man very much. D. He was taught how to fish by his parents.
11. What would probably happen later that day
A. The boy had to leave the old man sadly. B. The boy helped the old man catch a big fish.
C. The old man spent the time with the boy happily. D. The old man lost his faith and became very upset.
D
Imagine life without mobile phones—almost impossible, isn’t it
This year marks the 52nd anniversary (周年) of the first-ever mobile phone call. Now let’s look back at some of the most important mobile phone achievements over the past half century.
On April 3, 1973, Martin Cooper, an engineer at Motorola, made history by making the first mobile phone call from a street in New York, the USA. Though that call was the start of something huge, everything didn’t change until Cooper and his team created the Motorola DynaTAC 8000X that people could buy and use in 1983. As the world’s first portable (便携式的) mobile phone, it was sold at a very high price—around $4,000.
The Motorola DynaTAC 8000X was big and heavy, weighing about 1 kg. So most people called it “The Brick (砖)”. It took about 10 hours to charge (给……充电) the phone, and you could only talk on it for about 20 minutes.
In December 1992, British engineer Neil Papworth sent the world’s first text message (短信) that read, “Merry Christmas”. Then in 1997, people welcomed the first mobile phone with a color screen. In September 2000, Samsung put out the first camera phone. Then the iPhone changed the world of mobile phones forever! The iPhone was put out in 2007 by Apple, and its special touch screen technology helped it become a huge success.
Mobile phones have changed a lot since Mr. Cooper made that first call. Now, they’re much smaller and you can do many more things on them like taking pictures, playing games, and searching the Internet. Mr. Cooper, who’s now 97, is amazed by the things mobile phones can do today, but he thinks they can still get better. He believes that one day, our phones might be small enough to fit inside our ears.
12. Why did most people call the Motorola DynaTAC 8000X “The Brick”
A. Because of its color and size. B. Because of its shape and color.
C. Because of its size and weight. D. Because of its weight and color.
13 How is Paragraph 5 mainly developed
A. By listing numbers. B. By comparing facts.
C. By following the order of time. D. By following the order of importance.
14. What does Mr. Cooper think of the future of the mobile phone
A. Uncertain. B. Hopeful. C. Worrying. D. Hopeless.
15. What’s the text mainly about
A. The history of the mobile phone. B. Different uses of the mobile phone.
C. The importance of the mobile phone. D. Great inventors behind the mobile phone.
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答问题。
Feeling bad Don’t worry! Here are some simple ways to help you feel better.
☆Take a deep breath.
Close your eyes. __________ Count to four. Then, breathe out through your mouth. This can help your body and mind calm down.
☆Go for a walk.
Put on your shoes and step outside.__________ Look at the trees, flowers and sky. Feel the wind on your face. Walking can make your heart feel lighter.
☆Talk to someone.
Go to a friend or family member. Tell them what’s on your mind. They might give you a hug or some good advice.__________
☆Help others.
__________ It could be as simple as holding a door open or helping with homework. Helping others can make you feel good and connected to others.
Remember, it’s OK to feel bad sometimes. But doing these simple things make you happier.
A. Do something nice for someone else. B. Walk around your neighborhood or a park. C. Breathe in through your nose. D Listen to your favorite music. E. Talking can help you feel less alone and more understood.
16. ___________
17. ___________
18. ___________
19. ___________
20. What else can you do to make yourself feel better (不超过15词)
____________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
Our art teacher, George was leaving soon for his country. I was preparing a special ____21____ for him. It was a hand-drawn picture book about our school. I worked a long time, trying to make each picture as ____22____ as possible.
One day, I was drawing while my little sister Becky was watching with great ____23____. Just then, my classmate Jeff dropped by.
“Hi! Peter, do you want to play basketball in the yard ” he asked. “I’d like to, ____24____ it’s too cold outside!”I replied. “Exactly!” he said, “It’s the perfect weather for not getting too hot.”
That’s a cool thing about Jeff. He always looks on the ____25____ side of almost everything.
We went out, leaving the drawings on the table. We laughed as we returned. When I opened the door, my heart nearly stopped. Right there, Becky was coloring ____26____ pictures. “____27____ Becky!” I rushed to her, but it was too late. Almost every page was colored. “What did you do ” I shouted ____28____. “I just wanted to help.” She began to cry. “My drawings are gone forever!” I felt frustrated (懊恼的) and ____29____ Jeff for help.
“Remember the jigsaw puzzle (拼图) We can create something new from these messy pictures,” Jeff ____30____. “Can we make it ” I doubted.
“I’m not sure, but we can have a try. ____31____, this is the result of your hard work,” He encouraged.
First, we cut the drawings into shapes. Then, we ____32____ all these pieces together and made a jigsaw. Finally, we even added more paints. Days later, a beautiful “____33____” appeared in front of us.
There was a ____34____ ending. “Thanks, guys,” George smiled, “I love it so much. It will give me many great ____35____ here.” So, you see, there lies a beam (束) of light behind every dark cloud. Jeff’s way of dealing with things did help.
21. A. gift B. photo C. letter D. lesson
22. A. easy B. large C. perfect D. famous
23. A. hope B. pride C. interest D. courage
24. A. or B. so C. and D. but
25. A. sad B. bright C. serious D. strange
26. A. my B. our C. her D. his
27. A. Run B. Come C. Jump D. Stop
28. A. bravely B. angrily C. carefully D. nervously
29. A. gave up B. turned to C. turned down D. agreed with
30. A. warned B. ordered C. reported D. suggested
31. A. After all B. First of all C. As a result D. In a word
32. A. put B. hid C. read D. threw
33. A. tree B. gate C. school D. library
34. A. boring B. happy C. terrible D. common
35 A. choices B. changes C. decisions D. memories
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
offer since special also in front of
The Harry Potter store in New York City in the USA is even more magical now! ____36____ it opened in 2021 it’s been a hit with fans. Now, the store ____37____ a new magical experience: Fans can fly a broomstick (飞天扫帚)!
While you can’t actually fly, you can sit on a broomstick ____38____ a green screen and get a magical photo showing you flying above Harry Potter sites. Guests may fly over the Hogwarts School and they can ____39____ fly in a Quidditch match!
Joel Gonzalez is a leader at the New York store. “There is something ____40____ for every Harry Potter fan at this store, he said.
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。
When people think about movies, they often talk about what they see. However, what they ____41____ (听到) also plays an important role. Lyu Yanting, 37, the voice actor of little Ne Zha in Ne Zha 2, uses her voice to bring to life a great character who ____42____ (斗争) against fate.
“Dubbing (配音) is very similar to acting,” said Lyu. Voice actors will get the script (剧本) ____43____ (在……前) they start. After reading it, they will have their ____44____ (自己的) understanding of the story and character. During the dubbing process, she needs to show the character’s ____45____ (情绪). Also, she has to match her voice ____46____ (完美) with the animation’s scenes. “The director plays an important role. He will ____47____ (解释) the story and scenes during filming. With his help, we work ____48____ (一起) to give our best performance.”
Lyu ____49____(相信) it is very important to keep improving as a voice actor. “We need to improve our understanding, experience more in life and develop different views. With these things and our professional skills, we can ____50____ (成功) act out different roles.”
第三节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
How many languages can you speak Most people know at least one, but some are able to speak two, three, or even more languages! A new technology ____51____ (beat) people so far, though. It uses AI and it can work in 101 languages!
Cohere is ____52____ technology business from Canada. ____53____ February 13, 2024, it announced a new AI model called Aya. Aya can work in ____54____ (many) languages than most AI models. This means more people will be able to use the technology.
Many AI tools train on English and Mandarin Chinese. ____55____ there are more than 7,000 known languages in the world. This means many people may not be able to use AI, and it can limit ____56____ AI can do.
Cohere’s team spent a year working with 3,000 experts from 119 ____57____ (country). They used data which ____58____ (translate) by machines and fluent speakers from 67 languages to make the model as good as it could be.
The team focused on languages ____59____ don’t get much attention. Cohere hopes Aya will help research and protect more languages. Experts are always working ____60____ (improve) AI, so we might see even more languages added to AI in the future.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
61. 为鼓励同学们增强健康意识，校英语报发起“我最喜爱的体育运动”征文活动，请你根据以下三位同学的发言，并结合自己的经历写一篇短文，分享自己最喜欢的一项运动，并谈谈运动对自己的影响。
注意：
1. 必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
3. 词数80左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Among different kinds of sports, my favourite sport is __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Let’s enjoy the real fun that sports bring!
英 语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2. 答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5. 考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man going
A. To a hotel. B. To a park. C. To a bank.
2. How long will the basketball practice last
A. For one hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours.
3. Why is Max unhappy
A. Because he lost his watch.
B. Because he just had a gym class.
C. Because he fell on the playground.
4. What are the speakers going to do on Sunday
A. Go to the zoo. B. Watch a film. C. Practice kung fu.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A hobby. B. A party. C. A subject.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Who is asking for help
A. Mark. B. Judy. C. Eric.
7. What club is the boy most likely to join
A. Sports club. B. Science club. C. Music club.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What is Thomson’s favorite subject
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Physics.
9. Why does Lisa like math
A. Because it helps her think deeply.
B. Because it’s easy for her to learn.
C. Because it’s interesting to solve problems.
10. What does Thomson probably mean in the end
A. He wants to help Lisa.
B. He wants to shake hands with Lisa.
C. He needs Lisa’s help to start a study group.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. Who’s the speaker
A. A teacher. B. A guide. C. A student.
12. What did the farmers grow first on the farm
A. Apples. B. Strawberries. C. Tomatoes.
13. What will the visitor do from 9:00 to 10:00 in the morning
A. Buy gifts. B. Take a walk. C. Pick strawberries.
14. What is the prize for winning the strawberry-picking competition
A. A free lunch.
B. A big box of strawberry cookies.
C. A trip to the city.
15. What is the main purpose of Happy Farm now
A. To teach farming skills.
B. To let people enjoy country life.
C. To sell vegetables to the city.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. A 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. C 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. C 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B
18. E 19. A
20. Listen to music or write a diary. (其他合理答案亦可)
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. Since
37. offers 38. in front of
39. also 40. special
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. hear
42. fights 43. before
44. own 45. emotions
46. perfectly
47. explain
48. together
49. believes
50. successfully
第三节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51. has beaten
52. a 53. On
54. more 55. But
56. what 57. countries
58. was translated
59. that##which
60. to improve
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Among different kinds of sports, my favourite sport is badminton. Like Tony who values persistence, I train three times a week despite challenges. This sport sharpens my reflexes and builds endurance, just as Lucy described how sports boost energy. When I lost a match last month, I learned to stay calm like Max facing difficulties. Now badminton has taught me that real victory lies in never giving up. It’s not just a game—it’s a life teacher!
Let’s enjoy the real fun that sports bring!

展开更多......

收起↑