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四川省南充市2025年中考英语试题
注意事项：
1.考试时间120分钟，试卷满分150分。
2.答题前将姓名、座位号、身份证号、准考证号填在答题卡指定位置。
3.所有解答内容均须涂、写在答题卡上。
4.选择题须用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂。
5.非选择题在答题卡对应题号位置用0.5毫米黑色字迹笔书写。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What time is it now
2. Which course will Amy probably choose
A. History. B. Geography. C. Physics.
3. Why does the man say sorry
A. For the terrible food. B. For the wrong bill. C. For the bad service.
4. What are the speakers talking about
A. A beautiful singer. B. An old song. C. A popular radio.
5. How does the woman feel
A. Satisfied. B. Calm. C. Uncomfortable.
第二节 (共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Where will the family go on summer vacation
A. To a mountain. B. To a forest. C. To a beach.
7. How will the family get there
A. By car. B. By plane. C. By train.
听第7段材料，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Why does the man raise money
A. To help his club. B. To aid the animals. C. To support the poor
9. How did the man raise money before
A. By selling food. B. By teaching cooking. C. By making toys.
10. What will the woman sell in the yard sale
听第8段材料，回答第11至第13 三个小题。
11. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the classroom. B. Over the phone. C. In the office.
12. Why does the man feel stressed out
A. He can't speak English well.
B. He can't get on well with classmates.
C. He didn't do well in the exam.
13. What is the woman's suggestion
A. Communicating with classmates.
B. Paying attention to teachers.
C. Learning from mistakes.
听第9段材料，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14. What does the woman do
A. A lawyer. B. A hostess. C. A teacher.
15. What were there in the center of Sunny City in the past
A. Some restaurants. B. Some parks. C. Some shops.
16. When was the factory closed
A. In 1995. B. In 1998. C. In 2003.
听第10段材料，回答第17至第20 四个小题。
17. What is the speaker doing
A. Giving an introduction. B. Doing a survey. C. Sharing an experience.
18. How often do the members of Reading Club meet
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month.
19. What can students learn from First Aid Club
A. Time-saving skills. B. Leadership. C. Team spirit.
20. Where can students get more information about the clubs
A. On the school website. B. From Students’ Center. C. In the school newspaper.
第二部分 阅 读(共三节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15 小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Li Hua`s study group carried out an experiment(实验) to model the greenhouse effect. Here is their report.
Question What is the greenhouse effect
Materials Two cups, soil, two thermometers(温度计),a glass jar(罐子)
Place Outdoor area
Steps 1. Prepare two cups filled with soil, and mark A and B on the cups. 2. Stick the thermometers in cup A and cup B. 3. Put the two cups in the sunlight for 10 minutes and record the temperatures in the two cups in A1 and B1. 4. Place the glass jar upside down over cup A and keep cup Bunchanged. After 10 minutes, record the temperatures in A2 andB2. 5. Compare the temperatures in cup A and cup B.
Record The temperature in Step 3 The temperature in Step 4
Cup A A1:28℃ A2:31℃
Cup B B1:28℃ B2:29℃
Findings A1 is the same as B1. ____▲___
21. Which of the following materials is needed in the experiment
A. A stick. B. Soil. C. Water. D. A knife.
22. What is the best weather for doing the experiment
23. Which picture can match Step 4
24. Which of the following can be put in the ▲
A. A2 is two degrees higher than B2. B. A2 is three degrees lower than Al.
C. B2 is three degrees higher than B1. D. B2 is one degree lower than Al.
25. In which class may Li Hua's study group share the report
A. Math. B. History. C. Biology. D. Art.
B
In 2019,a white-haired senior was awarded the Friendship Medal, the highest order of honor ofChina for foreigners. It was Isabel Crook. In her over a century of life, she spent more than 90 years in China and educated a large number of foreign language students for China.
In 1915, Isabel was born to a Canadian family in Chengdu, Sichuan Province. After graduating from the University of Toronto in 1938, Isabel couldn't wait to return to China. In 1947, she started to study the ongoing land reform (改革). A year later, she finished the study and accepted the invitation to stay in China for language teaching. From then on、Isabel started the journey of education in China.
One could hardly imagine the teaching conditions during a war. Isabel tried every way for mobile teaching. She asked her students to take small chairs so that she could give classes all over the places. She made different teaching methods to suit students’ different language levels. Without enough teaching materials, she could only collect articles from English newspapers and magazines.In spoken English teaching, Isabel asked students to watch her in a given conversation first. Since there were no tape recorders at school, she had to perform the conversation again and again.
Isabel retired in 1981, but she returned to Southwest China many times to help children from poor families. She also went to Inner Mongolia, Ningxia and other places to help with foreign language teaching. Isabel died in 2023 in Beijing.
26. When did Isabel start language teaching in China
A. In 1915. B. In 1938. C. In 1947. D. In 1948.
27. Why did Isabel ask her students to carry small chairs
A. She could give classes everywhere.
B She could protect students during the war.
C. They could take a break when necessary.
D. They could use chairs as teaching materials.
28. What is special about Isabel's spoken English class
A. She advised students to perform first. B. She used a tape recorder to teach.
C. She showed the conversation to students. D. She asked students to role-play.
29. Which words can best describe Isabel according to the text
A. Warm-hearted and honest. B. Hard-working and caring.
C. Open-minded and strict. D. Easy-going and humorous.
30. What is the text mainly about
A. The importance of English learning B. The useful teaching methods.
(' The difficulties during the war D. The life of a great educator.
C
Which book is your favorite one Many people may choose Journey to the West. Now the book breathes new life into ancient buildings. China's video game Black Myth: Wukong uses 3D scanning technology to recreate Chinese wonderful old buildings. This method not only reduced costs but also provided players with a new look into the beauty of Chinese culture.
Liu Xiaoyu, a player from Beijing, expressed admiration for the game's high quality and its lively description of ancient buildings. “The historical buildings in the game are so well-mixed with the storvline. I'm planning to visit the filming locations soon to experience the cultural heritage (遗产) first-hand,” Liu said.
China is home to a large number of well-protected ancient buildings. Known as the“treasure of ancient Chinese buildings.” Shanxi has 531 nationally protected cultural heritage sites, near 10.5percent of the country's total — the highest in China. Black Myth: Wukong covers 36 filming locations, with 27 of them located in Shanxi. One such location is the Xiaoxitian Temple where tourists go to the rather beautiful Daxiong Hall, a 100-square-meter building with an amazing 400-year-old sculptures(雕塑).
“The ancient buildings are there, and once you see them, you' ll fall in love with them, and discover the beauty of Chinese culture.” said Yang Qi, the game's art director. “What we do is simply to make players embrace it through the game.”
Besides the buildings, the game also shows people the traditional Chinese clothing styles,Chinese landscape and Chinese paintings as well. Through Black Myth: Wukong, eastern beauty shines, offering players an opportunity to admire traditional culture and modern technology at the same time.
31. How does the writer introduce the topic
A. By giving a suggestion. B. By raising a question.
C. By listing numbers. D. By using a saying.
32. Why does Liu want to visit the filming locations
A. To describe the storyline of the game. B. To recreate the old buildings.
C. To explore the culture personally. D. To watch the high-quality film.
33. What can we infer from paragraph 3
A. The cost of protecting the cultural heritage in Shanxi is the highest in China.
B. The tourists visit the Daxiong Hall rather than the Xiaoxitian Temple.
C. The game has made every effort to protect the ancient buildings in Shanxi.
D. The effect of Shanxi's ancient buildings on the game is great.
34. What does the underlined word“embrace” mean n paragraph 4
A. Change B. Accept. C. Produce. D Forget.
35. What is the writer's purpose in writing the text
A. To tell the rebirth of the ancient buildings through a game.
B. To encourage people to protect the ancient buildings.
C. To recommend a book — Journey to the West to players.
D. To discuss how different Chinese cultural heritage is.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑，选项中有一项为多余选项。
The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event for theWa people in Yunnan. It is named after the wooden drum, a special musical instrument. 36
The wooden drums are the most important part of the festival. They are not just musical instruments but also carry deep cultural meanings. The Wa people believe the drums connect them with their ancestors and nature. 37 They are about0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long.
38 They dance in a circle, moving to the strong beat of the drums to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck. When dancing, they sing songs which are about the Wa people's history and daily life. 39 It also helps keep their culture alive. Besides dancing, there are also sports games and traditional opera shows.
The Wa people mainly live in two areas in Yunnan: Ximeng Wa Autonomous County andCangyuan Wa Autonomous County. The festival usually lasts three days. In the past, the Wa people celebrated the festival in the“Grey Month” of the Wa calendar. 40 This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture.
The Wooden Drum Festival brings all the Wa people together. It also offers visitors a great chance to learn about their culture.
A. So, the dance is not just for fun. B. The drums are usually made of red wood. C. The festival shows their history, traditions, and rich culture. D. It is a good opportunity for young people to make new friends. E. People come together around the drum house during the festival. F. But since 2002, they have changed the date to April 10th to 12th.
第三节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，完成图表中所缺信息，并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上，每空限填一词。
In the past, scientists didn't know that trees could sense things. Now, they are discovering that trees can notice lots of things around them!
Trees can feel the four main periods of the year. They know when to drop their leaves in autumn,and when to grow new leaves in spring.
Trees can sense light. They know where the sun is, so their branches grow in that direction.That's why trees in the northern hemisphere(半球) usually have more branches growing out on the south side.
Trees can recognize insects. If an insect starts eating a tree of a certain species, the tree has clever ways of fighting back. For example, if an insect is eating the trunk of a pine tree, the tree can produce a glue-like liquid(液体), and use it to catch the enemy.
Trees can sense directions. They can feel where“up” and“down” are. There is no light down in the earth, but the roots always know which way to grow.
Tree roots can also sense sounds. They really like the sound of running water when they are thirsty. If the sound continues for a long time, the roots will slowly start growing towards it.
There are still many things we don't know about trees. Scientists are working hard to find out more.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 (共15 小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
If you were given 1,000 yuan, how would you manage the money The three-jar method Spending,Saving, and Giving, may teach you how to manage money 46 .
The Spending jar is for your own happiness. It gives you the opportunity to buy something you like. 47 the Spending jar is about the here and now.the Saving jar prepares yourselves well for the 48 , like saving for university. The Giving jar is about 49 . You can donate money to an animal charity or children in need.
These three jars 50 you to think more about managing money. The small change inside your jars could mean a big difference. So how much money would you put in each jar
46. A. happily B. patiently C. wisely D. bravely
47. A. When B. Because C. While D. Unless
48. A. present B. future C. hobby D. budget
49. A. fairness B. kindness C. richness D. openness
50. A. encourage B. force C. choose D. stop
B
My mother was an artist. Growing up, I could draw a little myself and enjoyed doing so,but I never had her 51 .
Once, I asked her how I could improve. I 52 her to say something like“Practice 10,000hours”, 53 she only told me“Look at the things you want to draw”. Hearing her words,I 54 it because that's exactly what I thought I had been doing.
“You probably aren’ t,” she explained. “Actually, people 55 look at things carefully. They just look at them quickly and then 56 their brain to imagine all the small parts they miss.However, the brain fails, leading to 57 drawing.” Then I did as I was told, and looked long and hard at the object I wanted to draw: an apple. I noticed more about its 58 , color, and size. I drew each part carefully— and sure enough, it turned out to be a pretty 59 apple.
I loved the experience of really looking. I came to 60 mom's words. That was to enjoy seeing something deeply and drawing it carefully.
51. A. talent B. chance C. wealth D. courage
52. A. required B. advised C. warned D. expected
53. A. so B. and C. but D. as
54. A. shared B. believed C. expressed D. doubted
55. A. seldom B. always C. still D. only
56. A. work out B. take up C. depend on D. turn down
57. A. poor B. special C. amazing D. new
58. A. smell B. shape C. weight D. taste
59. A. well-drawn B. well-developed C. well-known D. well-prepared
60. A. translate B. spread C. retell D. understand
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
The astronauts of Shenzhou-20 — Chen Dong,Chen Zhongrui and Wang Jie — worked for about eight hours and 61 (complete) the first space walk on May22nd. What is the life like in space
After a long day at work, astronauts will have dinners. In space, some foods can 62 (eat) in their natural forms, such as chocolate cakes and fruits. Other foods require an oven to heat.
After dinner, astronauts have a rest, brush teeth 63 go to bed, just like on the earth.When going to sleep, they have to tie 64 (they), so they don't float (漂浮) around or hit their bodies 65 something. They usually use sleep ng bags that are put in a small cabin.Generally, astronauts have 66 eight-hour sleep each day after they finish their task.
Exercise is also an important part of every astronaut's daily life. 67 (keep) healthy, on average, they exercise two hours every day. Lifting 200 68 (pound) may be a lot of work on the earth. But lifting that same object in space would be much 69 (easy). That means sports equipment needs to be 70 (special) designed. Therefore, astronauts can receive the exercise needed.
第四部分 写 作 (满分25分)
假如你是李明，你校英语网站正在征集故事。请你根据下面网页的内容写一篇短文投稿，分享你的故事。
要求：
1. 词数 100 左右;
2.要点齐全，可适当增加细节， 以使行文连贯；
3.文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名。
南充市二○二五年初中学业水平考试
英语听力测试录音材料
第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Hurry up, Nancy. The meeting starts at 8:30.
W: Don't worry. We still have a quarter left.
2. M: I' ll choose history or geography. What course will you probably choose, Amy
W: You know. I want to be an engineer. Maybe physics suits me.
3. M: Sorry. Ms. I made a mistake about the bill. Here is the twenty dollars we have to return to you.
W: It doesn't matter. By the way, your food is really delicious.
4. M · Linda, listen to the radio. It's seasons in the sun, the song we played at our graduation party.
W: Yeah, how beautiful! It's been popular for 20 years.
5. M: After doing the school chores,I feel so satisfied and the clean classroom makes us comfortable.
W:I can't agree more!
第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至第7两个小题.现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读下面两个小题。
W: Daddy, the summer vacation is coming. What's the plan for our family trip
M: Which would you like to visit most High mountains, beautiful forests, or sunny beaches
W: Mount Huangshan! I learnt that the clouds there are amazing and make us feel like birds flying in the sky.
M: Great! Driving there may be a wonderful experience.
W: It's a long way to go. Taking a train may be a better choice.
M: You do have a point!
听第7段材料，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
W: Hey, Tommy. What are you doing
M: We' re making a list. Our club is raising money for homeless animals.
W: How do you raise money
M: Last week, we sold homemade cookies. But we need more money. Do you have any good ideas
W: How about having a yard sale You can sell the things that you no longer use, such as books,clothes and toys.
M: Good idea. Are you willing to join us
W: Yeah. I have an old bread maker. We can sell it.
听第8段材料，回答第11 至第13三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
M: This is Tom. May I speak to Miss Wang
W: Tom · Glad to hear your voice.
M: Miss Wang. May I know the result of our English exam I'm really stressed out because I made. many mistakes.
W: Just take it easy. Tom! The result hasn't come out. Maybe you didn't do so badly.
M:I hope so. But many classmates performed well. What if I get a bad grade
W: Don't worry. Learning from mistakes is more important. Pay more attention next time.
M: Thanks a lot, Miss Wang. You always give me much encouragement.
听第9段材料，回答第14 至第16三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
W: Hello, Mr. Chen. Welcome to our talk show. Do you know Sunny City very well
M: Sure. It's my hometown. I' ve lived here since I was born.
W: Has the city changed a lot over the years
M. Of course! In 1995, we only had some restaurants in the center. Now we have some shopping malls. And some new parks have been built, too.
W: I heard that pollution was a big problem here.
M: Yes, it was. A factory was built near the river in 1998. It put waste water into the river. Five years later, the government realized the problem and forced it to close. Now the river is much cleaner.
W: Good news for locals. Thanks for your sharing.
听第10段材料，回答第17至第20四个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读下面四个小题。
Hello, everyone. I'd like to tell you something about clubs in our school. Let's begin with ourReading C' lub. Every Tuesday and Friday afternoon, members get together to read classies, such as little women, Oliver Twist. If you are food lovers, join our Cooking Club. You can learn to cook your favourite food and share your food with your teammates twice every month. For those who want to deal with emergencies, First Aid Club you can't miss. It's a great way for students to develop life-saving skills and leadership For example, you have a chance to guide other members to survive an emergency during training courses. Of course, there are also many other clubs in our school. For more information, please go to the school website.
南充市二○二五年初中学业水平考试
英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题； 每小题1.5分， 满分7.5分)
1-5ACBBA
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
6-10ACBAC 11-15 BCCBA 16-20CABBA
第二部分：阅读(共三节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
21-25 BDCAC 26-30DACBD 31-35 BCDBA
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
36-40CBEAF
第三节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分 10分)
41. seasons 42. fewer 43. fights 44. where 45. thirsty
第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
46-50CCBBA 51-55ADCDA 56-60CABAD
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
61.completed 62. be eaten 63. and 64. themselves 65. against/ on
66. an 67. To keep 68. pounds 69. casier 70. specially
第四部分 写作(满分25分)
书面表达参考范文
My favourite sport is basketball. I learned it from my father. At first, I didn't love it at all, because Ifound it really hard to shoot the ball into the basket. However, my father told me“practice makes perfect”and to focus on the ball only. From then on, I practiced it two hours a day. Day by day, I could get more points and got interested in playing it.
I come to realize that it takes us time to do well in a sport. Playing basketball teaches me the spirit of not giving up and brings me happiness. I love it and I will keep on doing it.
一、写作评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于80，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、写作评分标准
第五档 21-25分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 16-20分 完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 11-15分 基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容：应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 6-10分 未适当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容：语法结构单调，词汇知识有限：有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1-5分 未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求；语法结构单调，词汇知识有限；较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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