资源简介

/ 让教学更有效 高效备考 | 英语学科
2024-2025年八年级英语下册期末考前必刷卷（山东济南专用）
英 语
（满分150分 考试用时120分钟）
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1．
A．Were you afraid of the dog B．Do you have a notebook C．Did you buy any gifts
2．
A．Tina has short straight hair. B．Lisa had a good idea. C．Anna will return next year.
3．
A．Let’s join the sports club. B．Have a good day at school! C．Keep quiet in the library.
4．
A．You should lie down and rest. B．You can put a bandage on it. C．You must run it under water.
5．
A．I went there last year. B．I’ve been to the museum. C．I’ve never been to a water park.
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6．How does the man feel now
A．Bored. B．Happy. C．Sad.
7．What kind of music does Alice like best
A．Light music. B．Rock music. C．Country music.
8．Where did the boy buy the book Tom Sawyer
A．On the Internet. B．At a bookstore. C．At a yard sale.
9．What is the boy’s favourite
A．Collecting coins. B．Collecting stamps. C．Collecting model planes.
10．What did the boy do today
A．He fed hens. B．He called his grandma. C．He bought some hens.
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11．What’s Bob doing
A．He’s playing basketball. B．He’s playing the piano. C．He’s drawing pictures.
12．What did Bob use to do
A．Collect stamps. B．Play football. C．Watch TV.
13．Who took Bob to the art show
A．His brother. B．His father. C．His teacher.
14．Why did Amy give up playing tennis
A．Because she didn’t like it. B．Because she lost a game. C．Because she hurt her leg.
15．What is Amy’s hobby now
A．Playing chess. B．Playing tennis. C．Reading books.
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16．How was Alice’s health this year
A．Good. B．So-so. C．Terrible.
17．When did Alice hope to see her daughter
A．In November. B．On Christmas Day. C．In October.
18．Why didn’t Alice's daughter come
A．Because she was busy. B．Because Alice hated her. C．Because she forgot.
19．Where did Mary hold a party for Alice
A．In the nursing home. B．In her house. C．In a restaurant.
20．What do you think of Mary
A．She is very kind. B．She is very beautiful. C．She is very brave.
阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
CHILDREN’S DAYBOOK FAIR
Everyone knows that treasures are found in books. This Children’s Day, we would like to invite you to go treasure hunting in our bookstore!
Dates: May 31st—June 2nd Time: 8 a.m.—6 p.m. You will get 10% off for all books during the fair.
Cartoon BooksLove fun stories Want a break from boredom Look for something exciting to read Place: 2nd floor Free soft toys for kids under 6.
Science BooksWhy do we get hiccups (打嗝) How do sea animals find their way home How heavy is a cloud Learn about these amazing facts and more!!! Place: 3rd floor Free drinks!
Adventure (冒险) BooksTravel to fantastic lands and meet unforgettable characters with the most famous explorer —Ed Stafford! Place: 4th floor Magdalene Stockton, the writer of the Ed Stafford series, will be at the book fair on May 31st! Buy any Ed Stafford book and have her autograph (签名) it!
21．Where will the book fair take place
A．In a library. B．In a theatre. C．In a museum. D．In a bookstore.
22．How long will the book fair last
A．For two days. B．For three days. C．For four days. D．For five days.
23．What can a 5-year-old kid get for free on the 2nd floor
A．A toy. B．A book. C．A drink. D．An autograph.
24．Which floor can you go if you want to know how heavy a cloud is
A．On the 1st floor. B．On the 2nd floor. C．On the 3rd floor. D．On the 4th floor.
25．When can you get the autograph of Magdalene Stockton
A．On May 30th. B．On May 31st. C．On June 1st. D．On June 2nd.
B
Once a reporter asked a rich man, “Sir. what’s real happiness ”
The rich man answered, “I’ve three stages(阶段) of happiness in my life. And finally I understand the meaning of real happiness.
At the first stage, I worked hard. I got married and bought my first bouse. I was happy but I didn’t get the happiness I wanted.
Then came the second stage. I had a beautiful life. I started new business and became the richest shipowner in my country. But even at that time, I didn’t think I got real happiness in life.
Then came the third stage. A friend of mine asked me if I could buy wheelchairs for disabled kids in a special school. I agreed and planned to give him some money. To my surprise, he said that I had better give wheelchairs to the kids myself. Because he insisted(坚持要求) I went with him.
I reached there on a fine morning and gave wheelchairs to the children. They thanked me. I saw them moving around in wheelchairs. They laughed happily and enjoyed themselves. I was also happy. After a while, one of the kids came to me. “Do you need anything else ” I asked. “No, I just want to remember your face clearly so that when I meet you next time, I can recognize you and thank you again, ‘he said.
His answer made me shocked and changed my opinion on life. On that morning. I got to know what real happiness is.”
26．What did the rich man do at his first stage
A．He understood the real meaning of happiness.
B．He worked hard, got married and bought a house.
C．He became the richest shipowner in his country.
D．He started his new business.
27．What did the rich man’s friend ask him to do
A．To buy some wheelchairs for the disabled kids.
B．To raise some money for the homeless people.
C．To give some wheelchairs to the old. D．To give him some money.
28．Why did the kid come to the rich man
A．Because he wanted to ask something else.
B．Because he wanted to tell the man he enjoyed having the wheelchair.
C．Because he wanted to remember the rich man’s face.
D．Because he wanted to know how to be successful.
29．Which of the following words can best describe the rich man
A．Brave and patient. B．Humorous and easy-going.
C．Successful and kind. D．Outgoing and powerful.
30．Which of the following can be the best title of the text
A．Find the real happiness. B．Do something for the disabled kids.
C．Be thankful. D．Kids bring us real happiness.
C
Tea and coffee are two of the most popular drinks in the world. However, people usually like one more than the other. These drinks also have very different uses.
Tea drinking started in China over 4, 000 years ago. Tea is made from leaves. These days, some people drink tea for health, using it to help with stress (压力) or losing weight. However, most people in tea-drinking counties think of tea as more than just a healthy drink. In fact, tea drinking in some counties is a part of the culture. In Turkey (土耳其), tea is always there when people meet. Whether in someone’s home or a company, tea is always offered as a way of welcoming. In the UK, homes and offices usually have tea time. Tea and other dishes are served at tea time in the afternoon. It is a way of relaxing with friends or co-workers (同事).
Coffee came much later than tea, just over 1, 000 years ago. Coffee is made from beans. Something in the coffee beans makes a person feel active. Most people do not drink coffee to relax. Instead, they drink coffee to get going. Many people drink coffee in the morning to help them wake up. Others will also drink coffee during short breaks in the afternoon to keep going through the working day. Some people may visit coffee shops just to meet and talk with friends. However, many people in coffee shops drink coffee while working on their computers.
Is tea or coffee more common in your country Between the two, which do you like to drink more
31．Where did tea drinking start
A．In China. B．In Japan. C．In Turkey. D．In the UK.
32．We can learn from Paragraph 2 that people in the UK _________.
A．drink tea to get fat B．offer tea to say goodbye
C．have tea relax themselves D．think of tea as a bad drink
33．What is coffee made from
A．Beans. B．Sugar. C．Dishes. D．Leaves.
34．Which of the following is NOT true according to Paragraph 3
A．Many people drink coffee to wake up.
B．Coffee came much earlier than tea.
C．Many people work on their computers in coffee shops.
D．Some people meet and talk with friends in coffee shops.
35．What is the passage mainly talking about
A．The smells of tea and coffee. B．The prices of tea and coffee.
C．The different cultures of tea and coffee. D．The different ways of making tea and coffee.
D
World Water Day 2025
World Water Day falls on 22nd March every year. It is a day to think about why we need water and how to save it.
World Water Day has a different theme each year. The theme for World Water Day 2025 is “Glacier Preservation (保护)”. Glaciers are large pieces of ice. It is important we look after them and stop them from melting (融化). They help to keep our planet cool and we get lots of our water from them.Why Is Water Important
Water is very important to all life. Humans, animals and plants would die (死亡) without it. More than half of your body is water! We need water to drink. We also use water for washing our clothes, brushing our teeth, cooking and many other things. All plants need water to grow as well.How can we make a difference
Saving water, such as by having showers instead of baths and turning off the tap while brushing teeth. Collect rainwater for watering plants. Wear clothes more before washing them.
On World Water Day, we think about all the ways that we use water and how we can use it as little as possible. We remember not to waste water and learn how to save water in our daily life.
36．When is the World Water Day
A．22nd May B．21st March C．22nd March D．25th May
37．What is the theme for World Water Day this year
A．Glacier Preservation. B．Peaceful Water. C．Water for Peace. D．Every Drop Counts.
38．What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to (指的是)
A．Ice B．Lakes C．Glaciers D．Rivers
39．Which of these is NOT a way to help make a difference
A．Having baths instead of showers. B．Wearing clothes more before washing.
C．Collecting water to water flowers. D．Turning off the tap while brushing teeth.
40．What is the purpose (目的) of World Water Day
A．Learn about the importance of water. B．Have fun playing with water.
C．Keep our clothes clean and tidy. D．Drink more water than before.
阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
“Drink eight cups of water a day.” We’ve all heard the advice. But if you fall short, don’t worry. That advice is probably wrong. 41 The suggestion gave a general idea of how much water an adult should drink each day, including that from fruit and vegetables. But many people mistakenly believe that they should drink eight glasses of water every day.
To find out how much water you need to drink each day, 42 They found that people’s need of water was different from one person to another. It depends on your age, size, intensity (强度) of physical activity and your city’s temperature. In general, people between the ages of 20 and 50 have the greatest need for water.
That’s because your cells (细胞) need water to do all of their work. As your body works more slowly after the age of 50, your need for water will go down, too. Men usually have larger bodies than women. 43 People whose jobs require more physical activities need more water than those who have office jobs. And people who live in hot places need more water than those who live in cold places. 44
Luckily, most people don’t have to worry about not having enough water. Just drink whenever you are thirsty. Water is the best choice. 45 And teens should try to avoid coffee and tea.
A．But try to avoid sugary drinks.
B．So men usually need more water.
C．So people always have more water than they need.
D．nobody knows exactly about how much water they drink.
E．People might need more water as the world gets warmer.
F．the researchers asked people of different ages to take the test.
G．Adults used to be suggested to drink about 1.9L of water every day before.
四、补全对话（5分）
阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Amy: Hi, Bill.
Bill: Not bad. Oh, tomorrow is Saturday.
Amy: No, I don’t. I have no plans. I think I will just stay at home and watch some wonderful movies.
Bill:Well, I don’t have plans, either. But I will help my parents do some housework.
Amy: Oh, do you have to do that I think doing housework is parents’ job.
Bill: Everyone should play a part in doing housework. We teenagers need to learn some basic life skills.
Amy: But I already have enough schoolwork. I just want to relax at home.
Bill: I think doing housework can also be a way for you to relax. You can have a try.
Amy: I’ll try that. Thanks for telling me these.
Bill: You are welcome.
A．How’s it going B．What did you do last weekend
C．Nice to see you. D．Long time no see.
47．A．Have you ever been there B．Did you stay at home
C．Do you have any plans D．Are you going to have some fun
48．A．Why do you think so B．What about you
C．Whom did you go there with D．Where are you going
49．A．I can’t agree more. B．I think you are right.
C．That’s all right. D．I disagree with you.
50．A．I don’t think so. B．Tomorrow is uncertain.
C．I should ask someone else for help. D．Maybe you’re right.
五、完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
Ms. Pink was a special teacher at the Town Primary School. Every kid 51 her because she made learning fun. She knew almost everything, but there was one thing Ms. Pink couldn’t do 52 .
Kids loved Ms. Pink, but they didn’t like her singing at all. The 53 was, Ms. Pink loved to sing. She sang whenever she could.
54 told Ms. Pink her singing was bad because they didn’t want to upset the teacher. 55 , the problem got worse.
One day, Ms. Pink told her students she was going to be on America’s Top Pop Star!
The children could not 56 it. America’s Top Pop Star was a big talent show on TV. Everyone on that show was a great 57 . Poor Ms. Pink!
On Tuesday, every family in the town watched the show. It wasn’t as bad as they thought. It was 58 ! Because she was so nervous, Ms. Pink sang her worst-ever! When the results came out, Ms. Pink came in 59 !
For the next two days, Ms. Pink didn’t come to school. When she finally returned on Friday, she 60 . She didn’t do anything fun all day long.
“I’ve learned my 61 ,” Ms. Pink said sadly. “No more singing for me.”
But her students wanted to have the 62 Ms. Pink back and they decided to do something to 63 their teacher. The children had a discussion and decided to write a(n) 64 .
When the sad Ms. Pink got to the classroom on Monday morning, her students all began to sing together. “Ms. Pink, you’re our 65 ! We love you the way you are!”
When they finished the song, Ms. Pink was smiling.
51．A．loved B．hated C．protected D．cheated
52．A．dancing B．singing C．teaching D．writing
53．A．accident B．competition C．problem D．risk
54．A．Anybody B．Somebody C．Everybody D．Nobody
55．A．Luckily B．Instead C．However D．Perhaps
56．A．believe B．hear C．control D．achieve
57．A．neighbor B．kid C．singer D．teacher
58．A．better B．worse C．clearer D．wider
59．A．first B．second C．third D．last
60．A．continued B．changed C．explained D．hid
61．A．achievement B．lesson C．prize D．subject
62．A．fun B．serious C．crazy D．honest
63．A．cheer up B．check out C．take after D．call up
64．A．article B．letter C．song D．invitation
65．A．owner B．trouble C．shame D．star
六、阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Earth gives us special and important things to help us live. We call these things natural resources (资源), such as air, sunlight, water, wood, oil and land.
Living things need clean air 66 (breathe) and clean water to drink. Plants need sunlight and land to grow. When plants breathe, they clean the air around them. We need plants 67 food. We also need plants to make a lot of things, such as paper, some houses, and tools like 68 (match) and baskets.
We shouldn’t hurt our natural resources because we can’t make more of them. Smoke from cars and factories makes the air dirty. 69 the air is dirty, people will get sick and plants won’t grow. If we cut down trees, we must plant new ones as 70 (quick) as possible. Or the nature will be hurt.
Rubbish is very bad for our natural resources. So far people 71 (throw) hundreds of tons of rubbish into the water. It makes the water become 72 (bad) than years ago. And the land with much rubbish is dirty and smells bad. Farmers cannot grow food on it.
73 can we take care of the Earth’s resources Here are some ideas.
1. Use things until we can’t use them anymore.
2. Reduce the natural resources. Take 74 bag when we go shopping.
3. Don’t throw things away. Reuse 75 (they). For example, make toys from old things.
七、书面表达（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76．A: I called you at 8:00 last night, but nobody answered.
B: Oh, .
77． A: Mom. What a strong wind!
B: Yes, sure.
78． A: I fought with Helen. What should I do
B: .
79．A:
B: Yes, I have. It’s fantastic.
80． A: How do the children learn English
B: .
第二节 写作（25分）
讲好中国故事，传播中国声音。China Daily网站中的Culture版块正在进行“Tell a Chinese traditional story”的征文活动。假如你是李华，请根据提示以“My favorite Chinese traditional story”为题写一篇英语短文投稿。
提示：
1. 描述愚公移山的故事内容；
2. 故事给你的影响和启发。
要求：
词数：90左右。
My favorite Chinese traditional story
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________/ 让教学更有效 高效备考 | 英语学科
2024-2025年八年级英语下册期末考前必刷卷（山东济南专用）
英 语（全解全析）
1．A
【原文】Were you afraid of the dog
2．C
【原文】Anna will return next year.
3．B
【原文】Have a good day at school!
4．A
【原文】You should lie down and rest.
5．A
【详解】I went there last year.
6．B
【原文】W: Dear, our daughter studies hard this term and she got a good grade in an English exam yesterday.
M: Oh, let’s go out to celebrate.
7．C
【原文】M: Alice, do you like light music, rock music or country music
W: Let me think. Well, I like country music best.
8．A
【详解】W: Did you buy the book Tom Sawyer from a book store
M: No, I bought it on the Internet.
9．C
【详解】What do you like best collecting coins or collecting stamps
B:Neither I like collecting model planes.
10．A
【原文】W: Did you do anything special today
M: Yes, I helped my grandparents feed hens.
11．C 12．A 13．B 14．C 15．A
【原文】A: Hi Bob, what are you doing
B: I’m drawing pictures, Amy.
A: Didn’t you use to like collecting stamps, Bob
B: Yes, I did. But I am more interested in drawing pictures. When I am free, I enjoy doing it.
A: You have changed a lot.
B: I think I have.
A: You look so excited today. What happened
B: Oh my father took me to an art show this morning.
A: So what do you think of the show
B: Wonderful. I like it very much and what do you like doing, Amy
A: I used to play tennis, but my life got hurt last winter. So I give it up. Now I enjoy playing chess. It makes me relaxed.
B: That’s a good hobby. Everybody changes their hobbies from time to time.
A: That’s true. Oh, Bob, are you available now Would you like to play chess with me
B: Sure, I’d love to.
16．C 17．B 18．A 19．B 20．A
【原文】 I’m Mary. I work in a nursing home, and my job is to look after the old people. Alice is one of the old people. She’s a very nice old woman. This year, Alice’s health was terrible. She went to hospital in October. In November, she felt better and came back from the hospital. Alice hoped that her daughter could come to visit her on Christmas Day, because she missed her very much. But her daughter was busy with her work, and couldn’t come here. Alice was very sad. I also felt sad, because she would be alone on the holiday. At last, I had a good idea. I decided to hold a big party in my house for her. I invited some of my good friends to join. On that day, my good friends gave Alice some gifts. Alice was very happy, and felt love from other persons. She had a very happy Christmas. That day, I was also very happy.
21．D 22．B 23．A 24．C 25．B
【导语】本文主要介绍了儿童节期间的一场书展。
21．细节理解题。根据“This Children’s Day, we would like to invite you to go treasure hunting in our bookstore!”可知，书展会在一家书店举行。故选D。
22．细节理解题。根据“Dates: May 31st—June 2nd”可知，书展从5月31日到6月2日，持续3天。故选B。
23．细节理解题。根据“Cartoon Books”部分“Place: 2nd floor Free soft toys for kids under 6.”可知，6岁以下的孩子在二楼可以免费得到一个玩具。故选A。
24．细节理解题。根据“Science Books”部分“How heavy is a cloud Place: 3rd floor”可知，如果想知道云有多重，应该去三楼。故选C。
25．细节理解题。根据“Adventure(冒险) Books”部分“Magdalene Stockton, the writer of the Ed Stafford series, will be at the book fair on May 31st! Buy any Ed Stafford book and have her autograph(签名) it!”可知，在5月31日可以得到Magdalene Stockton的签名。故选B。
26．B 27．A 28．C 29．C 30．A
【导语】本文主要讲述一位富人分享他对幸福的理解过程。他经历了三个阶段，在最后一个阶段，他为残疾孩子捐赠轮椅时，看到孩子们开心的样子以及其中一个孩子的话让他领悟到了真正的幸福含义。
26．细节理解题。根据第三段“At the first stage, I worked hard. I got married and bought my first bouse”，可知富人在第一阶段做了什么。故选B。
27．细节理解题。根据第五段“A friend of mine asked me if I could buy wheelchairs for disabled kids in a special school ”，可知富人的朋友要求富人去做什么。故选A。
28．细节理解题。根据文章倒数第二段孩子的回答“No, I just want to remember your face clearly so that when I meet you next time, I can recognize you and thank you again”，可知孩子走上前找富人的原因。故选C。
29．细节理解题。根据文章内容，富人在人生第二阶段成为最富有的船东，后面富人答应朋友的请求，给孩子们买轮椅并答应亲自送去，友善对待孩子们，可知富人是“成功且友善的”。故选C。
30．标题归纳题。结合全文内容，尤其是文章最后一句话“On that morning. I got to know what real happiness is”，可知文章的最佳标题是“寻找真正的幸福”。
31．A 32．C 33．A 34．B 35．C
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了茶和咖啡的不同文化。
31．细节理解题。根据“Tea drinking started in China over 4,000 years ago.”可知，饮茶起源于4000多年前的中国。故选A。
32．细节理解题。根据“It is a way of relaxing with friends or co-workers.”可知，在英国喝茶是一种和朋友或同事一起放松的方式。故选C。
33．细节理解题。根据“Coffee is made from beans.”可知，咖啡是由豆子制成的。故选A。
34．细节理解题。根据“Coffee came much later than tea”可知，咖啡的出现比茶晚得多。故选B。
35．主旨大意题。根据“Tea and coffee are two of the most popular drinks in the world.”及通读全文可知，本文主要介绍了茶和咖啡的不同文化。故选C。
36．C 37．A 38．C 39．A 40．A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了2025世界水日。
36．细节理解题。根据“World Water Day falls on 22nd March every year.”可知，世界水日在每年的3月22日。故选C。
37．细节理解题。根据“The theme for World Water Day 2025 is ‘Glacier Preservation (保护)’.”可知，2025年世界水日的主题是“冰川保护”。故选A。
38．词句猜测题。根据“Glaciers are large pieces of ice. It is important we look after them and stop them from melting (融化).”可知，冰川是大块的冰，重要的是我们要照顾好它们，防止它们融化。由此可推测“them”指代前文提到的“Glaciers”。故选C。
39．推理判断题。根据“Saving water, such as by having showers instead of baths...”可知，节约用水的方法包括“用淋浴代替浴缸洗澡”。故选A。
40．主旨大意题。根据“World Water Day... is a day to think about why we need water and how to save it.”及全文内容可知，世界水日的目的是让人们了解水的重要性并学会节约用水。故选A。
41．G 42．F 43．B 44．E 45．A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要讲述了关于每天应该喝八杯水的建议可能是错误的。成年人每天所需的水分包括来自水果和蔬菜的水分，而不仅仅是直接饮用的水。每个人的需水量因年龄、体型、体力活动强度和所在城市的温度而异。
41．根据下文“The suggestion gave a general idea of how much water an adult should drink each day, including that from fruit and vegetables.”可知，该建议大致说明了成年人每天应该喝多少水，包括水果和蔬菜中的水，由此可知，此处说的是成年人应该喝多少水，结合所给选项可知，G选项“以前建议成年人每天喝1.9升水”符合语境。故选G。
42．根据下文“They found that people’s need of water was different from one person to another.可知，他们发现，人们对水的需求因人而异，由此可知，此处说的是研究发现，结合所给选项可知，F选项“研究人员让不同年龄的人参加测试”符合语境。故选F。
43．根据上文“Men usually have larger bodies than women.”可知，男性的体型通常比女性大，由此可知，说的是男性的体型大带来的影响，结合所给选项可知，B选项“所以男人通常需要更多的水”符合语境。故选B。
44．根据上文“And people who live in hot places need more water than those who live in cold places.”可知，生活在炎热地区的人比生活在寒冷地区的人需要更多的水，由此可知，此处说的是炎热地区的人比寒冷地区的人需要的水多，结合所给选项可知，E选项“随着世界变暖，人们可能需要更多的水”符合语境。故选E。
45．根据下文“And teens should try to avoid coffee and tea.”可知，“And”前后并列，此处与“避免喝的饮料”有关，结合所给选项可知，A选项“但尽量避免含糖饮料”符合语境。故选A。
46．A 47．C 48．B 49．D 50．D
【导语】本文是一则对话， Amy和Bill讨论周末计划，Amy起初认为做家务是父母的工作且只想在家放松，Bill则认为青少年应参与家务学习生活技能，最终Amy接受建议表示会尝试。
46．根据答语“Not bad.”，可知问句应为询问近况的，“How’s it going ”。How’s it going ”用于询问近况，符合答语“Not bad.”的语境，故选A。
47．根据答语“No, I don’t. I have no plans.”，可知问句是助动词do引导的一般疑问句，且围绕“计划”提问，C选项“你有什么计划吗？”符合语境。故选C。
48．根据答语“Well, I don’t have plans, either.”，可知Amy在反问Bill的情况，选项B“你呢？”符合语境。故选B。
49．根据“I think doing housework is parents’job.”可知，Amy认为“做家务是父母的工作”，Bill回应“Everyone should play a part in doing housework...”，表明他不同意Amy的观点，选项D“我不同意你的观点”符合语境。故选D。
50．根据后文“I’ll try that.”，可知Amy认可了Bill的观点，选项D“也许你是对的”符合语境。故选D。
51．A 52．B 53．C 54．D 55．C 56．A 57．C 58．B 59．D 60．B 61．B 62．A 63．A 64．C 65．D
【导语】本文讲述了Ms. Pink是一位受学生喜爱的老师，但她唱歌很糟糕。她参加了一个电视选秀节目，结果表现很差，学生们为了让她开心，决定为她唱歌，表达对她的喜爱和支持。
51．句意：每个孩子都爱她，因为她让学习变得有趣。
loved爱；hated讨厌；protected保护；cheated欺骗。根据“because she made learning fun”和下文“Kids loved Ms. Pink”可知，孩子们都爱她。故选A。
52．句意：但有一件事Ms. Pink做得不好，那就是唱歌。
dancing跳舞；singing唱歌；teaching教学；writing写作。根据“but they didn’t like her singing at all”可知，Ms. Pink唱歌唱得不好。故选B。
53．句意：问题是Ms. Pink喜欢唱歌。
accident事故；competition比赛；problem问题；risk风险。根据“but they didn’t like her singing at all”和“Ms. Pink loved to sing”可知，她喜欢唱歌，但是唱得不好，这是她遇到的“问题”。故选C。
54．句意：没有人告诉Ms. Pink她唱得不好，因为他们不想让老师难过。
Anybody任何人；Somebody某人；Everybody每个人；Nobody没有人。根据“because they didn’t want to upset the teacher”可知，没有人告诉她真相。故选D。
55．句意：然而，问题变得更糟了。
Luckily幸运地；Instead相反；However然而；Perhaps也许。根据“because they didn’t want to upset the teacher”和“the problem got worse”可知，前后意思转折，学生们本以为没有告诉老师真相对老师有好处，然而情况更糟糕了，用however。故选C。
56．句意：孩子们简直不敢相信。
believe相信；hear听见；control控制；achieve实现。根据“America‘s Top Pop Star was a big talent show on TV”可知，孩子们不敢相信老师要去参加电视选秀节目。故选A。
57．句意：那个节目上所有人都是很棒的歌手。
neighbor邻居；kid孩子；singer歌手；teacher老师。根据“a big talent show on TV”和“Ms. Pink sang her worst-ever!”可知，参加选秀节目的都是歌手。故选C。
58．句意：这比他们想象的还要糟糕。
better更好的；worse更糟的；clearer更清晰的；wider更宽的。根据“Because she was so nervous, Ms. Pink sang her worst-ever”可知，实际情况比他们想象的还要糟糕。故选B。
59．句意：Ms. Pink得了最后一名。
first第一；second第二；third第三；last最后。根据“Ms. Pink sang her worst-ever”可知，她得了最后一名。故选D。
60．句意：当她终于在星期五回到学校时，她变了。
continued继续；changed改变；explained解释；hid隐藏。根据“She didn’t do anything fun all day long.”并结合上文可知，她是一位有趣的老师，结果一整天都没有做有趣的事情，说明她变了。故选B。
61．句意：我已经吸取教训了。
achievement成就；lesson教训；prize奖品；subject主题。根据“No more singing for me.”可知，她吸取到了教训。故选B。
62．句意：但她的学生们想要那个有趣的Ms. Pink回来。
fun有趣的；serious严肃的；crazy疯狂的；honest诚实的。根据“she made learning fun”可知，学生们想要有趣的Ms. Pink回来。故选A。
63．句意：他们决定做一些事情让老师高兴起来。
cheer up使高兴；check out检查；take after效仿；call up打电话。根据“they decided to do something to...their teacher”可知，他们决定做点什么来让老师高兴起来。故选A。
64．句意：孩子们讨论后决定写一首歌。
article文章；letter信；song歌曲；invitation邀请。根据“her students all began to sing together”可知，他们决定写一首歌。故选C。
65．句意：Ms. Pink，你是我们的明星！
owner主人；trouble麻烦；shame羞耻；star明星。根据“Ms. Pink, you’re our...”并结合上文可知，虽然老师在比赛中失利，没有成为明星，但是学生们认为她是他们心目中的明星。故选D。
66．to breathe 67．for 68．matches 69．If 70．quickly 71．have thrown 72．worse 73．How 74．a 75．them
【导语】本文主要介绍了自然资源对人类的重要性，人类的哪些行为会伤害自然资源以及如何关注和保护自然资源。
66．句意：生物需要呼吸干净的空气，喝干净的水。根据空格前的“need”可知，此处考查固定搭配“need sth. to do sth”，意为“需要某物去做某事”，breathe“呼吸”，动词。故填to breathe。
67．句意：我们需要植物作为食物。根据“We need plants...food.”可知，这里指我们用植物作食物，for“为了；为得到”。故填for。
68．句意：我们还需要植物来制造很多东西，比如纸、房子和火柴和篮子之类的工具。根据“and tools like...and baskets”和待选词汇可知，空格处在举例说明工具的类型，由空格之后的“and baskets”可知，空格处需要用名词复数与之并列。故填matches。
69．句意：如果空气脏了，人们就会生病，植物就不会生长。根据“...the air is dirty, people will get sick and plants won’t grow.”可知，前句是后句的假设条件，表示“如果空气脏了，人们就会生病，植物就不会生长”。if“如果”，位于句首要大写首字母。故填If。
70．句意：如果我们砍伐树木，我们必须尽快种上新的。根据“plant new ones as...as possible”和待选词汇可知，空格处符合固定搭配“as adj./adv. as”，意为“如……一样”，且应使用形容词或副词的原级形式；由空格前的动词词组“plant new ones”可知，空格处需用副词修饰。故填quickly。
71．句意： 到目前为止，人们已经向水里扔了数百吨垃圾。根据“So far”可知，本句应使用现在完成时结构“主语+have/has+done”，本句主语为“people”，助动词应用“have”，throw“扔”，过去分词为“thrown”。故填have thrown。
72．句意：它使水变得比几年前更糟。根据空格后“than”可知，本句应用比较级。bad“糟糕的”，其比较级为worse。故填worse。
73．句意：我们如何保护地球的资源？根据“Here are some ideas.”可知，下文列举了一些保护地球资源的方式，对方式、方法提问应用疑问词how，位于句首时首字母应大写。故填How。
74．句意：我们去购物的时候带个包。根据空格后的单数名词bag“包”及“when we go shopping”可知，此处应用不定冠词修饰bag，表示泛指，bag以辅音音素为开头，应用a来修饰bag。故填a。
75．句意：再使用它们。空格前是动词reuse“再次使用，重复使用”，动词之后应用宾格；they“他们”，主格，其宾格为them。故填them。
76．I was playing the violin 77．Could you please close the window 78．You should write her a letter 79．Have you read (the book) Little Women 80．They learn English with a group/They learn English in group/with groups
【解析】76．根据“I called you at 8:00 last night, but nobody answered.”可知，对方说昨天晚上八点给你打电话，你没有接，因此要解释那时正在做的事，结合图片，此处表示他正在拉小提琴，故填I was playing the violin。
77．根据“Mom. What a strong wind!”和图片可知，风太大了，要关窗户，根据“Yes, sure.”可知，此处是一般疑问句，询问她是否可以关上窗户，故填Could you please close the window。
78．根据“I fought with Helen. What should I do ”可知，我和海伦吵架了，想要一些建议，结合图片可知，此处建议他给海伦写信，故填You should write her a letter。
79．根据“Yes, I have. It’s fantastic.”可知，此处是一般疑问句，结合图片，此处询问她是否读过《小妇人》这本书，故填Have you read (the book) Little Women。
80．根据“How do the children learn English ”可知，此处回答孩子们如何学习英语，结合图片，此处表示他们分组学习英语，故填They learn English with a group/They learn English in group/with groups。
81．例文
My favorite Chinese traditional story
There are many traditional stories in China. Among all of the stories, I like Yugong moves the mountains best.
Once upon a time, there was an old man called Yugong. There were two high mountains near his home. They were so high that it took him a long time to walk to the other side. So he decided to move the mountains. Yugong and his family began to move the mountains. They kept moving them day after day, year after year. Finally, a god was so moved that he took the mountains away.
The story reminds us that nothing is impossible as long as we work hard. We should not give up.
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇材料作文；
②时态：时态为“一般过去时”；
③提示：根据题干，介绍自己最喜欢的中国故事；适当补充，使文章内容充实。
[写作步骤]
第一步，介绍自己最喜欢的故事是《愚公移山》；
第二步，详细描述故事内容；
第三步，介绍故事带给自己的启发。
[亮点词汇]
①so…that 如此……以至于
②give up 放弃
[高分句型]
①There are many traditional stories in China.（there be句型）
②The story reminds us that nothing is impossible as long as we work hard.（that引导的宾语从句；as long as引导的条件状语从句）

展开更多......

收起↑