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2025年初中英语学业水平模拟测试 参考答案
听力材料：
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.M: Lucy, is this your bag
W:It's not mine. Oh, there's a pencil-box with an ID card. It's Tom's.
2.W:What time does the school library close
M: It usually closes at 8:30 pm. But the cleaner can't leave until 9:00 pm. He has to
tidy it up.
3. W:What a day! I am wet allover!
M: Poor you! Come in and have some hot water.
4.W: Hank, congratulations on winning the swimming competition! How often do
you go to the swimming pool
M:I go to the swimming pool every Tuesday and Saturday.
5.W:Mr White, would you like some more
M: No,thanks. I am quite full, it's the most delicious dinner I've had.
第二节：听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有2~3个小题，从各题所给的A、B、C三个选
项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6~7两个小题。
M: Did you go out last weekend, Jenny
W:Yes, we went to the city sports center to watch a football match
M: How was the game
W:It was wonderful. The score was 4:1.But I missed the first ten minutes.
M: What happened
W: My sister was reading books.And it took me some time to wait for her.
M: That's a pity. I also like football, but my friends invited me to skate last weekend.
听下面一段较长对话，回答8至10三个问题。听对话前，你将有15秒钟的时间 阅
读有关内容。
W:Hi,Jack.
M:Hey,Jane. What's the matter You seem unhappy.
W:Emm..It's my parents. I'm a little bit angry with them.
M:Your parents Why
W:They make me busy on weekends.
M: What do you have to do
W:On Saturdays, I have to finish homework and on Sundays, I have to play the guitar for two hours.I
don't have time to do my favourite sports.
M:Oh. That's a pity! Have you ever tried to talk to them
W: No!I don't think they'll listen to me.
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M:You will never know until you try.
W:OK. I will try.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。独白
读两遍。
This is Jim Smith from Daily Radio on FM! Now let's listen to a passage called Easy Steps to
Healthy Living,from Jenny. Step One,start the day with a good breakfast, for example, bread with
fruit and milk. Yes, a healthy breakfast to start a wonderful day. Step Two,take exercise! Don't sit
at your desk in school all day. You'd better go for a walk at break time! Step Three, eat a lot of
fruit and vegetables! You can put fruit like apples and oranges in salads.And then, Step Four, eat a
healthy diet and don't eat too much junk food. Now finally, the last step, have enough sleep.Sleep
at least eight hours every day. Enough sleep helps you work better all day. Well, that's all.
参考答案和评分标准
第一部分 听力理解(共三节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
1-5 BCCBB
第二节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
6-10 CCABC
第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
11-15 ABCAC
第二部分 阅读理 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解 ，每小题2分，满分30分)
16-18 ADB 19-22 ADBD 23-26 DACB 27-30 BCDD
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
31-34 BADE
35.Yes, I do. Because I think dogs are funny./ No, I don't. Because I think dogs are
dangerous.(言之有理即可)
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
36-40 BCDBA 41-45 CDDAC 46-50 BABCD
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
51-55 beginning During Farmers plenty of healthy
56-60 deeply everyday/daily ancient/old married became
61-65 luckwealth stars choose appears
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
66-70 a because problems with joined
71-75 their was invited second proudly closer
第四部分 书面表达(共1题，满分20分)
76.Possible version:
2
The food that brings back a special memory for me is dumplings.
Every New Year's Eve,my family would get together around the table to make dumplings.
The kitchen was filled with laughter and chatter. We'd shape the dough, stuff the fillings, and chat
about our hopes for the new year.
One year, I hid a coin in one of the dumplings as a litte game. My father happened to bite
into it, and his eyes sparkled with joy. That moment of surprise and shared happiness has been
etched in my memory.
For me, dumplings are more than just food.They stand for family togetherness, warmth, and
the joy of celebrating traditions.
评分标准
档次(分数) 评分标准
准确理解并按要求完成写作任务，词数符合要求，涵盖所有要
满分档(20分) 点，结构规范，条理清楚，逻辑 严密，语言丰富，没有语法、
词汇错误，格式正确，书写规范。
理解并按要求完成写作任 务，词数符合要求，涵 盖
第五档(17-19分) 所 有要点，结构 规范，条 理 清楚，逻辑严密，
语言丰富，有少量语法、词汇错误，格式正确，书写规范。
理解并按要求完成写作任务，基本涵盖所有要点，结构较为完
第四档(14-16分) 整，行文基本连贯，语句完整，意思清楚，语法和词汇错误较
少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
基本理解并按要求完成写作任务，要点不完整，行文不连贯，
第三档(10-13分) 少数语句不通顺，词汇不够丰 富，意思基本清楚，语法和词汇
错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
未能按要求完成写作任务，只有少数要点，结构不完整，多数
语句欠完整，意思不够清楚，语 法和词汇错误较多，勉强看出
第二档(6-9分) 写作意图，格式不够正确，书写欠规范，词数与要求有明显差
距。
未能按要求完成写作任务，只写出少数句子或一些英语单词，
第一档(0-5分) 语句不完整或意思不明，书写 不规范。
32025年初中英语学业水平模拟测试卷
考生注意：
1.本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和考号。必须在答题纸的对应位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
3.做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
4.考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解(共三节，满分20分)
第一节(共 5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳 选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关
小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.Whose bag is this
A.Tony's. B. Tom's. C.Lucy's.
2. When does the cleaner leave the library
A.At 8:00 pm. B. At 8:30 pm. C.At9:00 pm.
3. What is the weather like now
A. Snowy. B.Cloudy. C. Rainy.
4.How often does the man have swimming lessons
A.Once a week. B.Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A.In an office. B.In a restaurant. C.In a bookstore.
第二节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选
项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小
题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What did Jenny do last weekend
A. She had a picnic. B. She went skating. C. She watched a match.
7. Why was Jenny late
A.Because she read a book.
B. Because she went to see a doctor.
C. Because she waited for her sister.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. Who is Jane unhappy with
A.Her parents. B. Her teachers. C. Her classmates.
9. What is Jane's problem
A. She is weak at her study.
B. She has no free time on weekends.
C.She can't get on well with her classmates.
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10. What might Jane do next
A.Have more lessons. B.Ask teachers for help C. Have a talk with parents.
第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选
出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题
5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11.Who wrote Easy Steps to Healthy Living
A.Jenny. B.Jim. C.Bob.
12.How can people start a good day
A.By taking exercise. B. By listening to the radio. C.By eating a healthy breakfast.
13. What does the writer tell people to do at break time in Step 2
A.To drink milk. B. To sit at the desk. C. To go for a walk
14. What fruits are talked about in Step 3
A.Apples and oranges. B. Bananas and oranges C.Apples and bananas.
15.How many steps are there in the radio program
A.Three. B. Four. C. Five.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Singapore started to put labels on every drink this year. The labels are from A to D.A is the
healthiest,and D is the least healthy. The more sugar and saturated fat(饱和脂肪)a drink has, the
less healthy the drink is.
NUTRL-GRADE Grade AWater
ABCD Unsweetened tea <1sugar<0.7saturated fat
Milk with no fat
NUTRL-GRADE
Grade BLow-fat milk
ABC 1 sugarDiet drinks such as Diet Coke <1.2saturated fat
NUTRL-GRADE Grade C Full-fat milk
Flavor-added milk 5 0sugarA BCD
Sweetened tea, drinks <2.8saturated fat
NUTRL-GRADE Grade D Most soft drinks
ABCD Energy drinks
>10sugar
Juice >2.8saturated fat
2
16.How much saturated fat may Diet Coke have
A.1.1%. B.1.3%. C.1.4%. D.5%.
17. What can you buy in the supermarket if you want to take in the least sugar
A. Energy drinks. B. Coke. C. Sweat tea. D.Non-fat milk.
18.In which part of a newspaper can you probably read the text
A. Music and art. B.Life and health.
C. Sports and travel. D. History and story.
B
Some rich and beautiful ladies were sitting on the bank of a river,enjoying their picnic. When
they were washing their hands and feet in the clean water,they saw their reflections(倒影).
Seeing their reflections in the water, they started to praise their own beauty. One of them said,
“How beautiful my hands are!”
Another woman said her hands were even more beautiful. A third one said the same things.
Soon,an argument broke out among them.
They saw an old woman passing by. She was walking with the help of a stick and her clothes
were dirty.
Seeing her, one lady suggested asking the old woman about whose hands were the most
beautiful. They all agreed. When the old woman came near,they showed her their hands and asked,
“Who has the most beautiful hands ”
The old woman said, "I am hungry and thirsty. Give me something to eat and then I will give
you my answer."
But they refused and asked her to go away.
A poor woman saw all of this. She went to the old woman and made her sit comfortably. She
opened her lunch box and shared food and water with her. Then she helped wash the old woman's
hands and feet, while giving great comfort to the old woman.
After the old woman felt a little better, she went back to those rich ladies. Pointing to that
poor woman, she said, “She has the most beautiful hands.”
All the ladies laughed, “What do you know about beauty ” The old woman replied,
“Beautiful hands belong to those who do good things and serve the people who need help.”
19. Why did the rich ladies go to the river bank
A.For a picnic. B.For praise. C.For a discussion. D. For an argument.
20. What caused the argument
A.The dirty clothes of the old woman.
B. Reflections of the bank of the river.
C.The relationship among these rich ladies.
D.Disagreement on the most beautiful hands.
21. Which word best describes the poor woman
A.Polite. B. Kind. C. Hard-working. D.Good-looking.
22. What's the purpose of this passage
A.To tella very funny story. B.To stop the ladies'argument.
C. To praise the old woman's action. D.To show the true meaning of beauty.
C
At the age of 19,I graduated from high school and moved to a place where it snowed often.I
felt free,independent and completely in control of my life there until I knew I had bacterial
3
meningitis(细菌性脑膜炎).
When my parents wheeled me out of the hospital, I felt like I had been pieced back together
like a doll with my“new legs”. They hurt so badly that all I could think was what I could do with
these things. Tears streamed down my face. I was completely emotionally(情绪上)broken.
But I knew I had to let go of the old Amy and learn to welcome the new Amy. Four months
later I was back up on a snowboard,although things didn't go quite as expected: My legs went
flying down the mountain,and I was on top of the mountain still. I was so discouraged. But I
knew that ifI could find the right pair of legs, I would be able to do this again. And this is when I
learned that difficulties we met would bring two kinds of results: stop us on the road or▲.
I did a year of research, but still couldn't find out what kind of legs to use,so I decided to
make a pair myself. It was these legs and the best 21st birthday gift I could ever receive—a new
kidney(肾)from my dad—that allowed me to follow my dreams again. I started snowboarding,
and then I went back to work.
In 2005, I founded an organization for the youth and young adults with physical disabilities
so they could join in sports. From there, I had the chance to go to South Africa, where I helped to
put shoes on thousands of children's feet so they could attend school. With my effort, I got three
World Cup gold medals which made me the highest ranked female snowboarder in the world.
Twenty-six years ago,when I lost my legs, I had no idea what to expect. But my legs haven't
disabled me. They've forced me to depend on my imagination and to believe in the possibilities,
because in my mind, we can do anything and we can be anything!
23. What happened to Amy at the age of 19
A. She went to college.
B. She began snowboarding.
C. She helped disabled children.
D. She moved to a snowy place and got sick.
24. Which of the following can be put into“▲”in Paragraph 3
A.push us to get creative B.help us get gold medals
C.make us become healthy D.encourage us to make friends
25. What's the right time order of the following events
①Amy tried to snowboard but failed. ②Amy found she got a serious illness.
③Amy helped some disabled children. ④Amy created a pair of new legs herself.
A.①②④③ B.①④②③ C.②①④③ D.②④③①
26. What's the best title for the passage
A.Being the Best Snowboarder B.Growing Stronger After Hard Times
C.Keeping Healthy for a Better Life D. Following and Achieving Great Dreams
D
①A typical morning: you wake up,take a shower, brush your teeth, and then prick(刺，扎)
your arm with a tiny needle. Wait, what Unless you have a serious disease such as diabetes, you
probably haven't ever tested your own blood. But in the future, that might change.
②The company Cor already sells a system for home blood testing.You stick your arm using a
painless, one-off, blood-drawing cartridge(针筒)about the size of a lipstick. Then you put the
cartridge into a device that looks like the bottom for an electric toothbrush. A few minutes later,an
app on your phone reminds you with new information,including your present health data and tips
on what to eat and how to exercise during the day.
③It's true that blood includes a lot of information about a person's health. Blood tests can show
4
if a person is ill or at risk for some problems,including a heart problem.But most people don't test
their own blood until a doctor says it's time. Healthy young people get blood tests about every five
years. These tests happen at a lab, where a nurse put a long needle into the arm to get some blood.
Cor and similar companies, such as WellnessFX,are trying to change all that. They think people
have chances of knowing more information about their own health.
④But not everyone is sure that usual blood testing for healthy people is a great idea. Cor's
system is expensive and may not offer many advantages. “The lightest result here is that you lose
your money and then you're reminded to get more sleep and to eat more fruits, vegetables, and
fish,"Pieter Cohen of Harvard Medical School told the New York Times. "The worst thing is that
you will get scared by probably unusual results,but that are actually normal for you.”
⑤Moreover, the results of a home blood test might be wrong. It's hard to get correct results
from a tiny number of blood. So what do you think Is caring about your own health through the
system in the future Or is it better to leave blood testing to the doctor in the hospital
27. Why does the writer mention the typical morning in the Paragraph 1
A.To explain a scene. B. To introduce the topic.
C.To provide an example. D.To make a comparison.
28. What does the word “device”in Paragraph 2 probably refer to
A.a mobile phone B.a toothbrush head
C.a special machine D.a blood sample
29.What can we learn about the company Cor's blood testing system
A.It is painless and cheap to use.
B. It was very popular among people.
C.It offers correct health information about our body.
D. It may give advice on our diet according to the health data.
30.If we divide the passage into three parts,how will you deal with it
A.①②③④/⑤ B.①②③④⑤
C.①②③④/⑤ D.①②③④⑤
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余的),
将其序 填入第31~34小题，并回答第35小题。
Dogs do not use words. But dogs still tell us things. They move their body to show us how
they feel. Ifyou watch and listen, you can know what dogs are saying.
Why does this dog wag its tail Most of the time,a dog wags its tail to show that
it's friendly. The dog is saying, "I feel happy! I am not afraid of you!” is
31How can you tell The dog's tail is in the air. Its ears are up. It seems to
be smiling. The dog is saying, "I want to play!"
This dog is scared. How can you tell It is hiding. It is saying,“32”
You should never pet a dog that is scared.A scared dog might think you are trying to hurt
it. Some dogs use other ways to show they are scared.They may drop their tails between
their legs. They may make their ears flat. They may bark. These dogs are also saying, “I
feel afraid."
33How can you tell It is making a deep sound called a growl. It is showing
its teeth. It is saying, “Stay away from me!”You should never play with a dog that is
angry. It might bite.
5
Young dogs like to play together.They may growl. They may roll in the grass
and bite each other. But don't worry. That is just the way that young dogs play. It
is also a safe way to learn about fighting.34 But we hope they never have
to fight!
Now you know how to watch and listen. You can look at dogs' ears and tails and hair. You can
look at how dogs stand. You can listen to the sounds dogs make. Now you can understand how
dogs talk!
A. I feel afraid.
B. This dog is having fun.
C. It may seem like these dogs are fighting.
D. The dog is angry.
E. Dogs need to know how to protect themselves from other animals.
35.Do you like dogs Why or why not (不超过15词)
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，
使文章完整、通顺。
“Going to Noah's!”I cried, heading to the front door. But my parents stopped me.
Something was 36.
"Jaiven, hold on,"said Dad.“Your Mum and I spoke with Noah's parents just now.”
I sat down, wondering if Noah was in 37_
"Sad news,"said Ma."Noah's grandmother just passed away." She put her hand on my
shoulder. "This will be a 38 time for your friend. If you want to go to the funeral, we can
take you.”
Noah's grandma didn't live with Noah but often39 him. Sometimes, when Id gone
next door,she watched over both of us. She 40when I told jokes and once taught me
how to make gingerbread(姜饼). I was sad I wouldn't see her again, but I couldn't 41
how Noah felt.
I had 42been to a funeral before. But this time, when I saw my friend crying,I
didn't know what to do. I was worried about what to 43to my friend. So I searched the
Internet, but the answers weren't 44 :There is no "right" thing to say at a funeral. Say
what is in your 45_.
Ma knocked on my door.“Jaiven, are you okay Do you have any 46 ”
"Ma I don't know what to say to Noah."
"Do you remember when your uncle Bhaskar died People didn't know what to say to me,
but that was okay. I just needed to know they 47me."
The next morning, I was dressed in dark clothes. Outside, I saw Noah sitting alone on his
front steps.
"Hey,Noah,"I said, walking up to 48 slowly.
6
"Oh, hey, Jaiven,"he said,looking back down.
“I'm really sorry," I said. "Is it okay 49 I sit here too ”
Noah smiled a little and moved to one side. I sat down beside him,and we were just there,
50 .He was still sad.But I think it kind of helped.
36.A.missing B. wrong C. valuable D. similar
37.A.surprise B.love C.trouble D.progress
38.A.scary B.dangerous C.boring D.difficult
39. A.followed B.visited C.missed D.fed
40.A.laughed B.played C. refused D.sang
41. A.control B.explain C.imagine D. realise
42. A.often B. sometimes C.always D.never
43.A.enjoy B. read C.give D. say
44.A.helpful B. real C.popular D.lovely
45. A.mouth B.hands C.heart D.eyes
46. A.ways B.questions C.messages D. plans
47.A.cared about B. joined in C.depended on D. believed in
48.A.her B.him C.them D.it
49.A.though B.until C.if D. since
50.A.dully B.excitedly C.nervously D. silently
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
farmer plenty of during begin health
The Minor Heat, or Xiao Shu, is one of the 24 solar terms(节气)in China, marking the 51
of the hotter days. It usually starts around July 7.52 this period, the weather starts to get
warm, but it is not the hottest time yet. People often eat refreshing foods, such as cucumbers, cold
noodles, and watermelon, to stay cool.53begin to prepare for the upcoming summer
harvest, taking care of their crops. Families might enjoy outdoor activities like swimming to beat
the heat. The Minor Heat reminds us to drink54 water and wear light clothing. It's a time to
enjoy the summer while staying safe and 55 in the warming weather.
B.阅读下面短文，根据 号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Red is a national colour in China. It has 56(深)influenced Chinese culture and traditions.
People use it a lot,from celebrations and festivals to 57(日常)life.
The use of red dates back to58(古老)times. During the Han Dynasty,red showed how
important someone was. And people often used it when they got 59(结婚)or in other
celebrations. In the Tang Dynasty, red 60(变成)a popular colour for clothing.
In Chinese culture, red is a special colour. It means a lot of good things and feelings. It's a
colour of joy and good 61(运气). People use it to bring happiness and drive bad things
away. It's common to see it at weddings, on birthdays, and during the Chinese New Year. It's a
colour of 62 (财富)and health. People often wear or carry something red. It's also a colour
of power and energy.
7
Today,red continues to play an important role in Chinese culture and society. The National Flag
of the People's Republic of China is red with five yellow63(星星)on the top left. And now,
red is a hot colour in fashion. More and more people 64(选择)to wear traditional wedding
dresses at weddings. Red also65(出现)in phrases. For example, “Mianhong erchi” stands
for being angry.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Tina is a thirteen-year-old middle school student. Last year, she went to66 summer
school in France and stayed with a local family,the Truffauts.
At first, things didn't go well67 she couldn't speak French. Even simple things like
finding the right bus stop were big 68(problem) for her. The Truffauts helped her a lot and
treated her like part of the family. They played games and shared traditional food 69 her.
Tina was helpful as well. She did some housework with the family every day. On the weekend,
she 70(join) a community club and did volunteer work. For most of the time,she used body
language to communicate. People showed 71(they) thanks with smiles and she would
always smile back. Language was not a problem for her any more. As a new member of the club,
Tina 72(invite)to have parties with the other members. Day by day,she made more friends.
Tina began to love her new life.“Asmile is a 73(two) language we were born to speak. It
is also the best gift I have got."she often said 74(proud).
Smiles and a helping hand can always make people 75(close) than a language can
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
76.学校英语俱乐部正在筹备一期主题为“My Delicious Memory”的英文小报，现向全
校同学征稿。请你参考海报内容要点，选择一种食物，写一篇英语短文，讲述你与它之间的
故事，并分享它对你的特殊意义。
the speeialfood
your memory
sbout the
food ● the meaning of
the delicious
memory
注意：(1)文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
(2)词数80词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
The food that brings back a special memory for me is_
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(用户名和初始密码均为准考证号)
2025年初中英语学业水平模拟答题卷
姓名： 班级：
准考证号
考场/座位号：

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
注意事项
1．答题前请将姓名、班级、考场、准考证号填写清楚。 [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
2．客观题答题，必须使用2B铅笔填涂，修改时用橡皮擦干净。 [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
3．主观题答题，必须使用黑色签字笔书写。 [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
4．必须在题号对应的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写无效。 [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]
5．保持答卷清洁、完整。 [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5]
[6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6]
正确填涂 缺考标记 [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7]
[8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8]
[9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9]
选择题答题区（1-5 题每题1分，6-15题每题1.5 分，16-34 题每题 2分 ，36-50每 题1 分，总分 73 分）
1 [A] [B] [C] 6 [A] [B] [C] 11 [A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [C] [D] 21 [A] [B] [C] [D]
2 [A] [B] [C] 7 [A] [B] [C] 12 [A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C] [D] 22 [A] [B] [C] [D]
3 [A] [B] [C] 8 [A] [B] [C] 13 [A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C] [D] 23 [A] [B] [C] [D]
4 [A] [B] [C] 9 [A] [B] [C] 14 [A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C] [D] 24 [A] [B] [C] [D]
5 [A] [B] [C] 10 [A] [B] [C] 15 [A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C] [D] 25 [A] [B] [C] [D]
26 [A] [B] [C] [D] 31 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 36 [A] [B] [C] [D] 41 [A] [B] [C] [D]
27 [A] [B] [C] [D] 32 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 37 [A] [B] [C] [D] 42 [A] [B] [C] [D]
28 [A] [B] [C] [D] 33 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 38 [A] [B] [C] [D] 43 [A] [B] [C] [D]
29 [A] [B] [C] [D] 34 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] 39 [A] [B] [C] [D] 44 [A] [B] [C] [D]
30 [A] [B] [C] [D] 40 [A] [B] [C] [D] 45 [A] [B] [C] [D]
46 [A] [B] [C] [D]
47 [A] [B] [C] [D]
48 [A] [B] [C] [D]
49 [A] [B] [C] [D]
50 [A] [B] [C] [D]
任务型阅读（回答问题 2 分 ）
35.
词汇运用（每小题 1 分，共 15 分）
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
语法填空（每题 1 分，共 10 分）
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
书面表达 (共 1 题，计 20 分)
67.

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