资源简介

期末复习之阅读理解18篇
（Units7-12单元话题）
Unit 7 Being a Smart Shopper 单元话题： 购物与饮食
Unit 8 Our Blue Planet 单元话题： 自然与环保
Unit9FromHeretoThere 单元话题： 社区与问路
Unit 10 Lending a Helping Hand 单亓台题： 志愿． 阪务
Unit 11 Rules Matter! 单元话题： 守则与制度
12 Better Together 单元话题： 团队运动
本资料共18 篇专训练， 从上到下每单元依次对应三篇单元话专训练
一、阅读理解
Best Shopping Time: Here’s our when-to-buy in 2025!
Want to save money in 2025 Come to Wang’s Store! Buy things at the right time, and you can get anything at a good price.
* January January is a good time to buy winter clothes and bedding things (床上用品). Winter clothes: 50% off (折扣)! Bedding things: 30% off! * May Mother’s Day is in May. It’s a good time to buy flowers and washers (洗衣机). * August It’s a good month to buy summer clothes. School things are cheap, too, because it’s back-to-school time. So you will find a lot of pens, pencils, rulers and schoolbags this month.
Please come to www.. You can get anything you want!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
1．To save money, you can buy things ________.
A．with your friends B．at the right time
C．for your father D．in Wang’s Store
2．________ is a good time to buy things for mothers.
A．January B．August C．May D．November
3．Why can you see a lot of school things in August
A．Because you can save money.
B．Because all people need them.
C．Because it is back-to-school time.
D．Because school things are free.
4．A winter jacket is 200. How much is it in January
A． 100. B． 140. C． 150. D． 200.
5．This passage is mainly about ________ .
A．some festivals B．some months
C．school things D．best shopping time
Qingming Festival, also named Tomb Sweeping Day (扫墓节), is one of the most important Chinese festivals. It falls on April 5th. Today I want to tell you something about it.
Qingming is a day for people to honor (纪念) their lost family members. They usually go to sweep tombs with some beautiful flowers and delicious food. With the coming of spring, days begin to get longer and the weather gets warmer. So Qingming is also a great time for people to enjoy the outdoor activities (户外活动). They can have a lot of outdoor activities like flying kites and hiking. On that day, people usually eat a kind of special food—Qingtuan. It tastes great. Chinese people have a holiday for this festival. And it usually lasts (持续) for three days.
6．When is Qingming festival
A．It falls on April 5th. B．It falls on May 5th.
C．It falls on August 5th. D．It falls on March 5th.
7．Who do people honor on Qingming festival
A．Friends. B．Classmates. C．Their lost family members. D．Sisters.
8．What special food do people usually eat on Qingming festival
A．Dumpling. B．Qingtuan. C．Zong zi. D．Moon cake.
9．How long does the Qingming holiday last
A．Three days. B．Four days. C．Five days. D．Six days.
Welcome to Jeff’s restaurant and enjoy the nice food!
Menu (菜单)
MAIN FOOD (主食) Hamburgers 10.00 Bread 8 Fried chicken 7.00 Rice with eggs 4.50 Dumplings 9 Rice with vegetables 4.00
DRINKS Apple juice 3.50/glass 6.00 for two Orange juice 2.50/glass 4.50 for two Coffee 5.00/cup 9.00 for two Milk 4.00/bottle
DESSERT (甜点) Chocolate 12.00/bar Banana cake 5.00 Ice cream 3.00
10．How much is the rice with eggs
A． 3.00. B． 4.00. C． 4.50. D． 7.00.
11．Jim has three yuan. He wants to buy something to drink. What can he buy
A．A glass of apple juice. B．A glass of orange juice.
C．A bottle of milk. D．A cup of coffee.
12．Helen and Jack want to buy two portions (份) of fried chicken and three ice creams. How much do they have to pay
A． 23. B． 16. C． 26. D． 32.
Earth Hour is a special event that helps us protect our planet. It is organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). The event asks people around the world to turn off non-essential lights and electrical products for one hour.
The theme for Earth Hour 2025 is “Give an Hour for Earth”. It will take place on March 22nd, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. During the hour, we can do many things. For example, we can go outside and enjoy the stars, or have a candlelight dinner with our family. This simple action shows that we care about our Earth.
Our Earth is facing big problems like climate change and the loss of animal homes. By joining Earth Hour, we realize that small actions can add up to make a big change.
13．What does the underlined word “non-essential” mean
A．不必要的 B．重要的 C．昂贵的 D．危险的
14．What’s the main idea of the third paragraph
A．The ways to join Earth Hour. B．The problems Earth is facing.
C．The history of Earth Hour. D．The importance of saving money.
15．What can people do during Earth Hour 2025
A．Watch TV at home. B．Have a picnic with friends.
C．Enjoy the stars outside. D．Play computer games.
16．Where is this passage most probably from
A．A diary. B．A storybook. C．A magazine. D．A novel.
Poyang Lake is China’s largest fresh-water lake. According to the news on China Youth Network on October 9, 2024, the lake came to its dry season, much earlier than before. Fishermen could no longer make a living and people living nearby faced water shortage.
You are wrong if you think this will not happen again. Two-thirds of China’s cities now face water shortage. And about 300 million people living in the countryside drink unhealthy water.
The water shortage in the world looks even sadder. By 2030, about half of the world population could be facing water shortage, said Ban Ki-moon at the Budapest Water Summit in Hungary.
Think about our children and our children’s children. We should try to make the world a better place. To deal with the problem, Ban calls on people to use water in a sustainable (sustainable) way. “Farmers should learn to get more ‘crop per drop’ by using good irrigation technologies (irrigation technologies). And also, governments should deal with the problem with all other players, including everyone,” Ban said.
How can we help It’s simple: do not waste even a drop of water! For example, turn off the tap while you are brushing your teeth, drink up bottled water before you throw the bottle away, and don’t pour out water that can be reused. If we can remember and follow this, we will make a difference.
17．Which of the following can show the structure of the passage
A． B． C． D．
18．What does Ban Ki-moon predict about the global water crisis by 2030
A．Only developing countries will suffer from water shortage.
B．Most countries will have solved their water problems.
C．50% of humanity will experience shortage of clean water.
D．New technologies will make water shortage disappear.
19．Which of the following solutions to water shortage is NOT mentioned in the article
A．Individuals should avoid water waste in daily activities.
B．Farmers should improve irrigation methods to save water.
C．Governments should work with different groups to solve the problem.
D．Farmers should develop technologies to create man-made water sources.
20．What is the best title for this passage
A．Poyang Lake: China’s Largest Fresh-water Lake
B．Water Shortage: A Growing Problem Worldwide
C．Small Actions, Big Change: Stop Wasting Water Now
D．Irrigation Technologies: The Solution to Water Shortage
①Trees are important to us. They do a lot for people and animals.
②Trees help to keep the air clean and make us healthy. They take in dirty (脏的) air and give clean air to us. Go for a walk in the park in the morning, and it is nice to be with many trees and clean air.
③Trees are very ▲ . They give us many kinds of beautiful flowers and delicious fruits like apples and oranges. Trees give homes to insects (昆虫), birds and other animals. Even the sap (汁液) of trees can be the food for insects.
④We can use trees in many ways. But we are hurting (伤害) them and they can’t grow back quickly. We cut down trees to make paper, desks and chairs. Also, we sometimes clear the forest to build houses, shops and so on. Many animals lose (失去) their homes because of this.
⑤It is time for us to stop hurting our great friends—trees. Don’t use so much paper and join in tree-planting activities. All of us can do something for our friends!
21．How do trees help us stay healthy
A．They clean the air. B．They share their sap.
C．They make us enjoy flowers. D．They give us delicious fruits.
22．Which of the following is the best for “ ▲ ”
A．smart B．colourful C．fresh D．useful
23．What does the underlined word “clear” in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese
A．建造 B．除去 C．维护 D．排除
24．What is the structure (结构) of the passage
A． B． C． D．
I have a neighbour and we call her “Happy”. She never seems angry at anything and we never hear her say a bad word about anyone.
Happy and her husband Ben, 70, have a big garden. They spend many happy hours together working on it.
Today, Happy and Ben invite most of the neighbourhood over for an “all-day food festival”. They told us to bring gloves and arrive early in the morning. We didn’t know what would happen.
At 9:00 a.m., there are nine of us in the garden picking tomatoes, potatoes and carrots. At 10:00 a.m., we share a lot of stories with each other and laugh happily. By five o’clock, we sit together and enjoy the fresh and tasty food. After dinner, we play games. As we are leaving, Happy and Ben hand each of us a shopping bag of fresh vegetables growing in their garden. What a great gift!
Well, it is not so much about the food. The true gift is a day of friends enjoying one another’s company (陪伴).
25．What do the neighbours think of Happy
A．She is poor but nice. B．She is good at singing.
C．She is kind and helpful. D．She is always angry.
26．What can we learn from the passage
A．The writer takes a bag of fruits back home.
B．Happy and Ben spend little time in the garden.
C．The neighbours bring some food from their homes.
D．Everyone enjoys the food and the time in the garden.
27．The true gift for the writer is ________.
A．the fresh vegetables from Happy and Ben’s garden
B．the delicious meal made by the neighbours
C．the happy time staying together with the neighbours
D．the great fun of making many new friends in one day
These days, community canteens (社区食堂) are very popular with young people. Many of them are very busy and don’t have time to cook, so these community canteens are great places for them to have meals.
Community canteens meet the needs of young people in many ways. For example, a community canteen in Hangzhou extends opening hours for young people. Older people usually eat early, so the canteen closed at 6:00 p.m. before. But now it closes an hour and a half later, so young people have a place to eat after a day of hard work.
Also in Hangzhou, a community canteen has “Happiness mystery boxes” (快乐盲盒). They are just 6 yuan but have a meat dish and a vegetable dish. The workers of the canteen put a sticker (贴纸) on the top of each box so that people can’t see the food from the outside. This makes eating more fun and exciting! So the “mystery boxes” often sell out very quickly.
A community canteen in Beijing even has self-service (自助的) meals. The dishes there are only 2.48 yuan for every 100g. They are very cheap and many young people from the neighborhood always come for food. A young man says, “The canteen is beautiful and clean, and the dishes are very delicious.”
Do you want to eat in a community canteen too If you do, just go and join the fun!
28．What does the underlined word “extends” in Paragraph 2 mean
A．关闭 B．加速 C．延长 D．缩短
29．What is the main idea of Paragraph 3
A．Young people often eat after 6:00 p.m..
B．Dishes in community canteens are cheap.
C．Community canteens meet the needs of young people.
D．A community canteen sells a new and interesting dish.
30．What’s the purpose of the passage
A．To show how the food sells in canteens.
B．To tell people where they can go after work.
C．To ask people to eat in community canteens.
D．To tell people why the canteens are popular with young people.
31．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage
A． B．
C． D．
Hello, my name is May. I live in a new community (社区) with my family. It’s big and nice. There is a gym, a supermarket, a community service (服务) centre and a swimming pool in my community. And there are many shops, restaurants, banks, a post office, a big park and a school near my community. So life here is very convenient (方便的).
People in my community are kind and friendly. They like to talk with each other, and they often help each other. I make friends with them, and I learn a lot from them. All of them are my good neighbors. I am happy when I see them near my community.
A good community gives people a sense of belonging (归属感). My community is like a big family. There are many activities like dancing, singing, reading and swimming in my community. My community is unique, so it is different from other community in my city. The people here like it.
32．What is May’s community like
A．It’s big, nice but old. B．It’s nice, new but small.
C．It’s big, nice and new. D．It’s small, old but nice.
33．It is convenient to live in the community, because ________ .
A．it is new B．it is small
C．there are many bus stops D．there are lots of services near it
34．What’s the best title (标题) for the passage
A．My Community B．My Family C．My Favorite City D．My School
When you ask Todd what makes him happy, his answer will surely be helping others. A week ago, Todd said to Mum, “I want to make money to help others.”
“Helping others ” Mum asked.
“Yes. I want to make money by doing housework for our neighbours and use the money to help kids in need in our community (社区). I have even made a table (表) to show how it will work,” Todd said. Then he showed the table to Mum.
Clean the window $2
Walk dogs $1.5
Water plants $1
Take out trash (垃圾) $1
After Mum saw it, she said, “Good. You can try it.”
Then Todd started to do it. Every time he finished doing the housework, he put a sticker (贴纸) on the table. A week later, he showed his mum what he did.
“You cleaned the window two times, walked dogs three times and watered the plants four times. It’s amazing. You have made so much money,” Mum said.
“Can we buy some toys for the kids in need ” Todd asked.
“No. I think we should buy some useful things for them. Let’s buy some food and clothes,” Mum said.
“OK, Mum,” Todd said. He was happy to use the money he made to make a difference in someone’s life.
See Todd finds real happiness in helping others.
35．What did Todd want to do with his money from doing housework
A．Help his neighbours’ dogs. B．Buy new clothes for Mum.
C．Do something good for his school. D．Help kids in need in his community.
36．What does the underlined word “it” refer to
A．The table. B．The trash. C．The money. D．The window.
37．How did Todd keep track of (记录) the housework he did
A．He took pictures of it. B．He wrote it down on paper.
C．He told his mum every day. D．He put a sticker on the table.
38．How much money did Todd make in a week
A．$10.5. B．$11. C．$12.5 D．$13.
39．What did Todd and Mum buy at last
A．Toys and stickers. B．Food and clothes.
C．Stickers and food. D．Toys and clothes.
We need you!
Teach Music Clean People’s Park Help Old People
Are you good at singing or dancing Do you have a loving heart We need three people to work as music teachers in SOS Children’s Villages. If you are free for three hours every weekend, join us. Tel: 0398-8858518 E-mail: lovekids@ We need five people who are strong and can help clean up People’s Park. We need you to help pick up, collect and sort rubbish. If you are free for four hours this weekend, come and join us! Tel: 0398-8651518 E-mail: cleanpark@ We need four people to help at Xinxin Nursing Home. You should be good at talking with old people. Your job is to wash clothes for them. If you can take out two hours on May 6, come and join us! Tel: 0398-8656869 E-mail: homelove@
40．The SOS Children’s Villages want ________ teachers．
A．Dance B．Music C．Maths D．English
41．If you want to help make People’s Park clean, you have to work ________.
A．this weekend B．every weekend C．every weekday D．on May 6
42．The underlined word “sort” most probably means ________.
A．乱扔 B．捡起 C．收集 D．分类
43．To work at Xinxin Nursing Home, you need to do well in ________.
A．washing dishes B．collecting rubbish
C．talking with the old D．singing and dancing
44．According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true
A．Eleven people are needed altogether.
B．It may be tiring to do the cleaning work in People’s Park.
C．Of the three jobs, the work of helping old people takes the shortest time.
D．If you want to do the teaching job, you can call the number 0398-8858518.
45．Where can you most probably find this passage
A．In a newspaper. B．In a Music magazine.
C．In a storybook. D．In a sports magazine.
Do you want to be a volunteer Maybe you need some ideas. Here is some advice.
Help kids learn and grow. Be a big brother or sister at an after-school care center. You can help little kids to learn or play with them.
Give back during the holidays. Serve dinner to the home less (无家可归的), volunteer at an old people’s home, or give out toys to kids.
Help at an animal shelter (庇护所). Most shelters need volunteers to keep the cats and dogs happy and take them to exercise. And when you’re walking dogs, you get some exercise, too.
Protect the environment. Take part in a park clean-up day. Plant a tree. Join a group to work together to protect a river.
Help ill people. Helping others can make you feel good. When you make ill people happy, you also feel happy. If you have several hobbies, find a way to do them all. For example, if you love kids and are good at painting and dancing, visit a children’s hospital and teach them these interesting things.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
46．How does the writer begin the passage
A．By giving an example. B．By telling a story.
C．By asking a question. D．By using pictures.
47．What can a volunteer do at an animal shelter
A．Feed animals. B．Make workers there happy.
C．Clean the shelter. D．Help animals do exercise.
48．Which is NOT mentioned (提到) as a way to protect the environment
A．Protecting rivers. B．Planting trees.
C．Setting up a green club. D．Cleaning up the park.
49．What can we learn from the passage
A．Volunteering at a children’s hospital is boring (无聊).
B．An after-school care center is a place for homeless kids.
C．Volunteers can feel good when they help ill people.
D．The old people’s home needs more volunteers than the children’s hospital.
50．What’s the structure of the passage
A．①/②③④⑤⑥ B．①②/③④⑤/⑥
C．①/②③④⑤/⑥ D．①/②③④/⑤⑥
My name is Kate. There are many rules in my life. I think these rules are important for me. At home. I can’t play computer games for more than half an hour. I think it is good for my study because I can have more time to study. I must make the bed after I get up. And I must clean my room every day. So my bedroom is always clean and tidy. My mother says keeping room tidy is good for my health.
I study at Fuxing Middle School. At our school, we also have some rules. We can’t be late for school. So we must arrive at school on time. We must get to school before half past seven in the morning. We need to wear the school uniform every day. In the class, we have to be quiet. We can’t listen to music. We can’t eat in the class. We must eat in the dining hall. After class, we can’t run in the hallways.
Do you have rules in your life Tell me about it.
51．What does Kate think of the rules in her life
A．Strict. B．Important. C．Terrible. D．Interesting.
52．How long can Kate play computer games according to this passage
A．One and a half hours. B．One hour.
C．35 minutes. D．25 minutes.
53．What time can Kate arrive at school according to the passage
A．At 7:35 a. m. B．At 7:40 a. m. C．At 8:00 a. m. D．At 7:25 a. m.
Family rules are very important in every family. They help children develop (培养) good habits and behaviors (行为). Different families have different rules. Here are the family rules of four children.
Name Family Rules
Peter 1. Finish homework before watching TV. 2. Go to bed before 10 p. m. on weekdays. 3. Clean his room every Saturday.
Jane 1. Help with housework like washing dishes after meals. 2. Don’t go out alone (独自地) at night. 3. Read books for at least 30 minutes every day.
Sam 1. Practice the piano for one hour every day. 2. No phone games on school days. 3. Do some outdoor sports on weekends.
Lisa 1. Keep her things tidy. Put away toys (收好玩具) after playing. 2. Be polite to elders, and say “please” and “thank you” often. 3. Share food with family members.
As we can see, these family rules are about the daily life. Although the rules are different, they can all help the children to be responsible (有责任心的). Each rule is good for the children’s growth (成长).
54．What time does Peter have to go to bed on weekdays
A．Before 9 p. m. B．Before 10 p. m. C．Before 11 p. m. D．Before 12 p. m.
55．Which of the following is one of Jane’s family rules
A．Help with housework like washing clothes. B．Go out with friends on weekdays.
C．Read books for about 30 minutes every day. D．Play games for an hour every day.
56．What does Sam have to do every day
A．Play phone games on weekdays. B．Practice the guitar for one hour.
C．Play outdoor sports on weekdays. D．Practice the piano for one hour.
57．What should Lisa do to keep things tidy
A．Wash the dishes after meals. B．Share food with family members.
C．Put away toys after playing. D．Be polite to family members.
58．Why are family rules important according to (根据) the article
A．Because they help children develop good habits and behaviors.
B．Because they help children learn everything well.
C．Because they make children’s life happy.
D．Because they let children play games.
阅读短文，从下面所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有一个多余的选项。
Electricity is very important in our daily lives, but it can also be dangerous if we don’t use it properly. 59
Don’t overload (超负荷) your sockets (插座).
Plugging (插入) too many things into one socket can cause a fire. You’d better plug one thing into each socket.
Be careful when you are using a power strip (排插).
Keep electrical appliances away from water.
60 Keep them away from water sources like sinks and bathtubs. Remember not to use hairdryers in the bathroom.
61
Never leave appliances plugged in when they’re not being used. Unplug them when you’re finished using them.
Ask an electrician (电工) for help if you have any problems.
Check your electrical appliances from time to time. 62 Stop using it at once and get it repaired by an electrician.
Staying safe around electricity is important for you and your family. Follow these tips to keep your home safe and enjoy the most convenient form of energy without any danger.
A．Most electricians are smart and hard-working.
B．Unplug electrical appliances when not in use.
C．Don’t touch electrical appliances or sockets with wet hands.
D．If there is a problem, don’t try to repair the appliance yourself.
E．Here are some tips to help you stay safe around electricity at home.
Last month, I went to England with my family. We visited a middle school in London and saw a duty chart (值勤表). Let’s have a look.
Class Duties in 2025
Duty Students Time
Cleaning the black-boards Amy and Nick At the end of every day
Washing the erasers (黑板擦) Becky and Jeff At the end of every day
Sweeping the floor Carol and Lisa Before school every day
Watering the plants Lucy and Sam After lunch every other day
Feeding the class rabbit John and Molly Before and after school every day
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
63．What did the writer do last month
A．Played football. B．Had an English class.
C．Cleaned the blackboard. D．Visited a middle school.
64．Who feed the rabbit every day
A．Lucy and Sam. B．Carol and Lisa.
C．Becky and Jeff. D．John and Molly.
65．What do Amy and Nick do every day
A．Clean the blackboards. B．Water the plants.
C．Take out the litter. D．Feed the class rabbit.
66．When do Carol and Lisa sweep the floor
A．At the end of every day. B．After school every day.
C．Before school every day. D．After lunch every other day.
67．【文章出处】Where can we find this duty chart
A．At home. B．On the bus.
C．In the hotel. D．In the classroom.
[情境题]每当秋冬季节，大雁便会成群结队地迁徙，它们互相协作，共同应对旅途中的种种困难。
①There are many kinds of amazing animals in the world. Have you ever watched one of them—Canada geese (雁) They can teach us a lesson about teamwork.
②In autumn, Canada geese have to fly to the warm south to get away from Canada’s cold winter. When they leave the ground and rise into the air, they fly in no order. Then they quickly form a V shape, with one bird leading (引领) the group.
③This V shape allows Canada geese to save energy (力气). The head bird moves its wings (翅膀) up and down. The resulting (产生的) force of the air helps lift (抬起) the next bird. Each bird will do so until they get to the southern part. The bird at the head of the group has the hardest job. When it gets tired, another bird moves to the front and takes its place (代替它). By sharing this job, the group can travel great distances (距离). Canada geese flying in a V shape can fly seventy percent farther without having a rest than the birds flying alone.
④During the long flying journey, Canada geese communicate (交流) with one another. They honk (鸣叫) to encourage (鼓励) the birds up front to keep up the speed. They also cheer one another up while working toward the same destination (目的地).
⑤What have we learned from the lovely Canada geese’s experience and skills Work together! Whether in our personal lives or our jobs, we need the spirit of teamwork!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
68．Why does the head bird move its wings up and down during the journey
A．To lead other birds. B．To help lift the next bird.
C．To encourage other birds. D．To tell other birds that it is in danger (危险).
69．What kind of shape do Canada geese form during the journey
A．V. B．S. C．Z. D．A．
70．[篇章结构]Which of the following shows the structure of the passage (①= Paragraph 1)
A． B．
C． D．
71．How do the Canada geese encourage the birds up front to keep up the speed
A．By honking. B．By keeping up the speed.
C．By flying in the higher sky. D．By moving their wings up and down.
72．What can we learn from the Canada geese
A．Never give up. B．Work together.
C．Be happy to help others. D．Keep calm (镇静) when you are in danger.
The FIFA World Cup came to an end in December 2022. But the love for soccer is still very strong in Shandong Province.
Shandong is called “the home of soccer ball”. It’s the birthplace (发源地) of the old Chinese sport of cuju (蹴鞠). In 2004, FIFA paid attention to it and that is the earliest soccer.
“Side-flicking” “chest down” and “shoulder stopper” are some of the key moves (动作) of cuju. Li Weipeng, 34, from Linzi is a seventh-generation inheritor (传承人) of cuju. He has been practising these skills for eighteen years.
______ “At the beginning, I spent eight hours a day practising juggling a ball. It was tiring,” Li told China Daily. He now can juggle a ball with his foot over 10,000 times once.
Teaching students cuju moves is a part of Li’s job. The traditional Chinese sport cuju is now popular at primary and middle schools in Linzi. Its moves have made their way into dances and morning exercises.
“Students show great interest in playing cuju. So I want to ask more people to join in the old sport, ” Li told China Daily.
73．The traditional Chinese sport cuju ______.
A．has two key moves B．is becoming popular in Linzi
C．is the same as football D．became a game of FIFA in 2004
74．The underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refers to “______”.
A．Shandong Province B．the soccer ball
C．The FIFA World Cup D．the old Chinese sport of cuju
75．Which of the following can be put in the “ ______” in Paragraph 4
A．It’s interesting to practice cuju skills. B．Practising different cuju skills is not easy
C．It takes little time to practise the skills D．More students began to like the sport of cuju
76．Which of the following is the best title of the passage
A．The home of soccer ball B．The history of cuju
C．Cuju and its inventor D．Cuju and FIFA World Cup
《【精准提分】期末复习之阅读理解18篇（Units7-12单元话题）》参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B C C A D A C B A C
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 B A A B C C D C D B
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 A D B C C D C C D D
题号 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
答案 A C D A D A D C B B
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
答案 A D C A A C D C C A
题号 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
答案 B D D B C D C A E C
题号 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
答案 B D D D A C D B A B
题号 71 72 73 74 75 76
答案 A B B D B A
1．B 2．C 3．C 4．A 5．D
本文主要介绍了2025年在Wang’s Store不同月份适合购买的商品及优惠情况，指者在恰当时间购物以省钱 。
1．细节理解题。根据文中“Buy things at the right time, and you can get anything at a good price.”可知，在合适的时间购物能省钱，故选B。
2．细节理解题。根据文中“Mother’s Day is in May. It’s a good time to buy flowers and washers”可知，五月适合给妈妈买东西，故选C。
3．细节理解题。根据文中“School things are cheap, too, because it’s back-to-school time.”可知，八月有很多学习用品是因为开学季，故选C。
4．推理判断题。根据文中“January is a good time to buy winter clothes and bedding things. Winter clothes: 50% off!”可知一件200元的冬夹克，打五折后是100元，故选A。
5．主旨大意题。文章围绕2025年不同月份在Wang’s Store的最佳购物时间及对应商品展开。故选D。
6．A 7．C 8．B 9．A
本文介绍了中国传统节日——清明节的时间、活动内容、节日食物和假期安排等信息。
6．细节理解题。根据文中“It falls on April 5th”可知，清明节是在4月5日。故选A。
7．细节理解题。根据文中“Qingming is a day for people to honor their lost family members”可知，人们在清明节纪念逝去的亲人。故选C。
8．细节理解题。根据文中“people usually eat a kind of special food—Qingtuan”可知，清明节人们通常吃青团。故选B。
9．细节理解题。根据文中“And it usually lasts for three days”可知，清明节假期通常持续三天。故选A。
10．C 11．B 12．A
本文是Jeff餐厅的菜单，包含主食、饮品和甜点的价格信息，要求学生根据菜单内容回答价格计算和购买选择问题。
10．细节理解题。根据“Rice with eggs 4.50”可知，鸡蛋炒饭价格为4.5元。故选C。
11．细节理解题。根据“Orange juice 2.50/glass”可知，Jim只有3元钱，因此只能购买一杯橙汁。故选B。
12．细节理解题。根据“Fried chicken 7.00”以及“Ice cream 3.00”可知，两份炸鸡和三个冰淇淋需支付7×2+3×3=23元。故选A。
13．A 14．B 15．C 16．C
本文主要介绍了“地球一小时”的相关情况。
13．词义猜测题。根据“Earth Hour is a special event that helps us protect our planet...The event asks people around the world to turn off non-essential lights and electrical products for one hour.”可知，“地球一小时”是保护地球的一个活动，此处应是指在这小时内关闭不必要的灯和电器。故选A。
14．主旨大意题。根据“Our Earth is facing big problems like climate change and the loss of animal homes.”可知，此段主要说明我们的地球正面临着的问题。故选B。
15．细节理解题。根据“The theme for Earth Hour 2025...For example, we can go outside and enjoy the stars,”可知，在2025年“地球一小时”活动期间，我们可以在室外看星星。故选C。
16．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了“地球一小时”的相关情况，因此可以推断本文出自一本杂志。故选C。
17．D 18．C 19．D 20．B
本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了全球及中国面临的水资源短缺问题，并提出了可持续用水和节约用水的建议。
17．篇章结构题。根据文章结构： 第一段以鄱阳湖为例引出水资源短缺问题； 第二、三段说明中国及全球的水危机现状； 第四、五段提出解决方案（可持续用水和个人节约行动）。D选项的层级结构（问题→现状→解决方案）与文章一致。故选D。
18．细节理解题。根据文章第三段“By 2030, about half of the world population could be facing water shortage”可知，到2030年约50%的世界人口将面临水资源短缺。故选C。
19．细节理解题。文章提到的解决方案包括： 个人节水（第5段“do not waste even a drop of water”）对应A选项；农民改进灌溉技术（第4段“get more ‘crop per drop’ by using good irrigation technologies”）对应B选项；政府合作（第4段“governments should deal with the problem with all other players”）对应C选项；D选项“开发人造水源技术”未提及。故选D。
20．主旨大意题。文章核心围绕全球水资源短缺问题展开（中国案例、全球预测、解决方案），选项B“Water Shortage: A Growing Problem Worldwide”最全面概括主题。故选B。
21．A 22．D 23．B 24．C
本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了树木对人类和动物的重要性：树木能净化空气、提供花果和栖息地，而人类的砍伐行为正伤害树木及动物家园，最后呼吁人们保护树木。
21．细节理解题。根据文章第②段“Trees help to keep the air clean and make us healthy. They take in dirty (脏的) air and give clean air to us.”可知，树木通过清洁空气帮助人们保持健康。故选A。
22．推理判断题。根据“They give us many kinds of beautiful flowers and delicious fruits like apples and oranges. Trees give homes to insects (昆虫), birds and other animals ...”可知，这一段主要介绍了树木的用途，它们提供花朵、果实、栖息地等，所以树木是有用的，useful“有用的”符合语境。故选D。
23．词句猜测题。根据文章第4段“We cut down trees to make paper, desks and chairs. Also, we sometimes clear the forest to build houses, shops and so on.”可知，“clear the forest”与“cut down trees”为并列行为，这里表示“清除、砍伐森林”，以便建造房屋和商店等，所以划线词clear的意思是“除去，清除”。故选B。
24．篇章结构题。通读全文可知，文章第①段总述树木的重要性，第②③段分述树木的具体作用，第④段说明人类对树木的伤害，第⑤段总结呼吁保护树木。所以选项C中图片符合文章整体结构。故选C。
25．C 26．D 27．C
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了作者的邻居“Happy”和她的丈夫Ben如何通过举办“全天美食节”活动，邀请邻居们一起在花园中劳作、分享故事、享受美食并增进彼此之间的友谊，展现了邻里之间的和谐与欢乐。
25．细节理解题。根据文章第一段“She never seems angry at anything and we never hear her say a bad word about anyone.”可知，邻居们认为Happy从不生气，也从未说过任何人的坏话，这表明她是一个善良且乐于助人的人。故选C。
26．推理判断题。根据文章第四段“By five o’clock, we sit together and enjoy the fresh and tasty food. After dinner, we play games.”以及最后一段“The true gift is a day of friends enjoying one another’s company (陪伴).”可知，每个人都喜欢花园里的食物和与朋友们共度的时光。故选D。
27．细节理解题。根据文章最后一段“The true gift is a day of friends enjoying one another’s company (陪伴).”可知，作者认为真正的礼物是与邻居们共度的快乐时光。故选C。
28．C 29．D 30．D 31．A
本文主要介绍了社区食堂越来越受欢迎。
28．词义猜测题。根据第二段“Older people usually eat early, so the canteen closed at 6:00 p.m. But now it closes an hour and a half later, so young people have a place to eat after a day of hard work.”可知，杭州某社区食堂之前在下午6点闭餐，现在社区食堂7点半后关门，关门时间较之前延长，方便年轻人辛苦劳作后去用餐，故划线单词“extends”意为“延长”。故选C。
29．段落大意题。根据第三段“Also in Hangzhou, a community canteen has ‘Happiness mystery boxes’ (快乐盲盒). They are just 6 yuan but have a meat dish and a vegetable dish. The workers of the canteen put a sticker ( 贴纸)...the ‘mystery boxes’ often sell out very quickly.”可知，第三段围绕杭州某社区食堂的 “快乐盲盒” 展开，介绍其价格、搭配、包装设计及趣味性，最终提到盲盒很快售罄。故本段主要介绍了社区食堂销售一种新型且有趣的餐食。故选D。
30．主旨大意题。通读全文可知，本文主要介绍了社区食堂越来越受欢迎。故选D。
31．篇章结构题。第一段总述社区食堂受年轻人欢迎及其背景；第二段至第四段分述不同地区食堂的具体做法 (杭州延长时间、盲盒；北京自助称重)，解释受欢迎的原因； 第五段总结并邀请读者体验，呼应开头。故本文为总——分——总结构。故选A。
32．C 33．D 34．A
本文主要介绍了May所居住的新社区环境优美、设施齐全，邻里友好，生活便利，给她带来归属感。
32．细节理解题。根据“Hello, my name is May. I live in a new community (社区) with my family. It’s big and nice.”可知May的社区又大又好又新，故选C。
33．细节理解题。根据“There is a gym, a supermarket, a community service (服务) centre and a swimming pool in my community. And there are many shops, restaurants, banks, a post office, a big park and a school near my community.”可知社区生活便利是因为周边有许多服务设施，故选D。
34．最佳标题题。全文围绕May对自己社区的描述展开，重点介绍了社区环境和生活体验，因此最佳标题是“我的社区”，故选A。
35．D 36．A 37．D 38．C 39．B
本文主要讲述了Todd通过做家务赚钱来帮助社区里需要帮助的孩子们。
35．细节理解题。根据“I want to make money by doing housework for our neighbours and use the money to help kids in need in our community (社区).”可知，Todd想用做家务赚钱帮助社区有需要的孩子们。故选D。
36．词句猜测题。根据“Todd said. Then he showed the table to Mum.”可知，Todd给了妈妈一张表，妈妈看了这个表，故it指代“表格”。故选A。
37．细节理解题。根据“Every time he finished doing the housework, he put a sticker (贴纸) on the table.”可知，他每完成一件家务活，他会在表格上贴一张纸。故选D。
38．推理判断题。根据“You cleaned the window two times, walked dogs three times and watered the plants four times.”及表格内容可知，擦窗户两次，共计$4，遛狗三次，共计$4.5，给植物浇水四次，共计$4，一共赚了$12.5。故选C。
39．细节理解题。根据“Let’s buy some food and clothes,”可知，他们最后买了食物和衣服。故选B。
40．B 41．A 42．D 43．C 44．A 45．A
本文主要介绍了社区志愿者的招聘广告。
40．细节理解题。根据“Teach Music”的“We need three people to work as music teachers in SOS Children’s Villages”可知，SOS儿童村需要音乐教师。故选B。
41．细节理解题。根据“If you are free for four hours this weekend, come and join us!”可知，城市人民公园这个周末需要人。故选A。
42．词句猜测题。根据“We need you to help pick up, collect and sort rubbish.”可知，我们需要你帮忙捡、收集和分类垃圾。此处划线词“sort”的意思是“分类”。故选D。
43．细节理解题。根据“You should be good at talking with old people. Your job is to wash clothes for them.”可知，在疗养院工作你应该善于和老人交谈。故选C。
44．推理判断题。根据“We need three people to work as music teachers in SOS Children’s Villages.”“We need five people who are strong and can help clean up People’s Park.”“We need four people to help at Xinxin Nursing Home.”可知，总人数计算为音乐教师3人+公园清洁5人+老人护理4人=12人，但A项称需要11人，与文本不符，因此A项错误。故选A。
45．推理判断题。通读全文可知，本文为社区志愿者招聘广告，内容涉及多类公益服务，信息简洁且提供联系方式，符合报纸“招聘/公告”栏目的特征。故选A。
46．C 47．D 48．C 49．C 50．A
本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了成为志愿者的几种方式和相关建议。
46．细节理解题。根据文章开头“Do you want to be a volunteer Maybe you need some ideas. Here is some advice.”可知，作者以提问的方式开篇。故选C。
47．细节理解题。根据文章第4段“Most shelters need volunteers to keep the cats and dogs happy and take them to exercise.”可知，志愿者可以在动物庇护所帮助动物锻炼。故选D。
48．细节理解题。根据文章第5段“Take part in a park clean-up day. Plant a tree. Join a group to work together to protect a river.”可知，文中未提到“成立绿色俱乐部”。故选C。
49．推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“Helping others can make you feel good. When you make ill people happy, you also feel happy.”可知，帮助病人会让志愿者感到快乐。故选C。
50．篇章结构题。文章结构为：开头提出问题（①），随后分段给出具体建议（②③④⑤⑥）。因此结构为①/②③④⑤⑥。故选A。
51．B 52．D 53．D
本文主要讲述了Kate在生活中和学校中需要遵守的规则。
51．细节理解题。根据“I think these rules are important for me.”可知，Kate认为生活中的规则对她来说很重要。故选B。
52．细节理解题。根据“At home, I can’t play computer games for more than half an hour.”可知，Kate每天玩电脑游戏的时间不能超过半小时。故选D。
53．细节理解题。根据“We must get to school before half past seven in the morning.”可知，Kate必须在早上7:30之前到达学校。故选D。
54．B 55．C 56．D 57．C 58．A
本文讲述了家庭规则在家庭教育中的重要性，并通过四个孩子的具体家规展示了不同家庭的教育方式。
54．细节理解题。根据表格中Peter的家庭规则第二条“Go to bed before 10 p. m. on weekdays”可知，Peter在工作日需在晚上10点前睡觉。故选B。
55．细节理解题。根据表格中Jane的家庭规则第三条“Read books for at least 30 minutes every day”可知，Jane每天至少要阅读30分钟。故选C。
56．细节理解题。根据表格中Sam的家庭规则第一条“Practice the piano for one hour every day”可知，Sam每天要练习一小时钢琴。故选D。
57．细节理解题。根据表格中Lisa的家庭规则第一条“Keep her things tidy. Put away toys after playing”可知，Lisa要保持物品整洁，玩完玩具后要收好。故选C。
58．细节理解题。根据“Family rules are very important in every family. They help children develop (培养) good habits and behaviors (行为).”可知，家规的重要性在于帮助孩子培养好习惯和行为。故选A。
59．E 60．C 61．B 62．D
本文主要讲述了在家安全用电的一些建议。
59．根据“Electricity is very important in our daily lives, but it can also be dangerous if we don’t use it properly.”及后文的建议可知，此处是介绍一些安全用电的建议，选项E“这里有一些小技巧可以帮助你在家里用电时保持安全。”符合语境。故选E。
60．根据“Keep them away from water sources like sinks and bathtubs.”可知，说的是远离水源，选项C“不要用湿手触摸电器或插座。”符合语境。故选C。
61．根据“Never leave appliances plugged in when they’re not being used.”可知，说的是不用时要拔下来，选项B“不使用电器时，拔掉电源插头。”符合语境。故选B。
62．根据“Stop using it at once and get it repaired by an electrician.”可知，说的是修理问题，选项D“如果出现问题，不要试图自己修理电器。”符合语境。故选D。
63．D 64．D 65．A 66．C 67．D
本文讲述了作者和家人去英国参观了伦敦的一所中学并看到了一张2025年的班级值勤表。表中详细列出了不同值日任务的负责学生及执行时间，包括擦黑板、洗黑板擦、扫地、给植物浇水和喂班级兔子等，展现了该校班级日常管理的分工情况。
63．细节理解题。根据“Last month, I went to England with my family. We visited a middle school in London”可知，作者上个月参观了一所中学。故选D。
64．细节理解题。根据值勤表中“Feeding the class rabbit”对应的学生是“John and Molly”可知，每天喂兔子的是John和Molly。故选D。
65．细节理解题。根据值勤表显示“Amy and Nick”负责的任务是“Cleaning the blackboards”可知，Amy and Nick每天擦黑板。故选A。
66．细节理解题。根据表中“Sweeping the floor”对应的时间“Before school every day”可知，Carol和Lisa每天上学前扫地。故选C。
67．推理判断题。值勤表涉及班级日常值日任务，属于教室内部的管理工具。故选D。
68．B 69．A 70．B 71．A 72．B
本文介绍了加拿大大雁为了躲避加拿大寒冷的冬天，不得不飞到温暖的南方，在飞行途中团队合作相互鼓励的故事，告诉我们团队合作的重要性。
68．细节理解题。根据“The head bird moves its wings (翅膀) up and down. The resulting (产生的) force of the air helps lift (抬起) the next bird.”可知，领头鸟上下摆动翅膀。由此产生的空气力有助于举起下一只鸟。故选B。
69．细节理解题。根据“Then they quickly form a V shape, with one bird leading (引领) the group.”可知，它们形成了V形，一只鸟带领着这群鸟。故选A。
70．篇章结构题。通读全文可知，第一段提出主题；第二三四介绍加拿大大雁在飞行途中团队合作相互鼓励；第五段总结。故选B。
71．细节理解题。根据“They honk (鸣叫) to encourage (鼓励) the birds up front to keep up the speed.”可知，它们鸣叫鼓励鸟儿跟上速度。故选A。
72．细节理解题。根据“What have we learned from the lovely Canada geese’s experience and skills Work together!”可知，我们可以从加拿大大雁的经验和技能中学到“团队工作”。故选B。
73．B 74．D 75．B 76．A
本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了中国传统运动蹴鞠的起源、发展及其在山东临淄的传承情况，并提到传承人李伟鹏的努力和蹴鞠在当地学校的普及。
73．细节理解题。根据“The traditional Chinese sport cuju is now popular at primary and middle schools in Linzi.”可知，蹴鞠在临淄的中小学中很受欢迎。故选B。
74．词句猜测题。根据“It’s the birthplace of the old Chinese sport of cuju...FIFA paid attention to it”可知，“it”指代前文提到的中国传统运动蹴鞠。故选D。
75．推理判断题。根据“At the beginning, I spent eight hours a day practising juggling a ball. It was tiring”可知，李伟鹏提到练习蹴鞠技巧很辛苦，因此填入“Practising different cuju skills is not easy”最符合上下文逻辑。故选B。
76．最佳标题题。全文围绕蹴鞠的起源、传承及普及展开，标题“The home of soccer ball”最能概括文章核心。故选A。

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