湖南省岳阳市岳阳县第一中学2024-2025学年高三下学期第六次模拟考试英语试题(含解析,含听力原文及音频)

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湖南省岳阳市岳阳县第一中学2024-2025学年高三下学期第六次模拟考试英语试题(含解析,含听力原文及音频)

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六模英语答案
听力:1-5ABAAB 6-10CBCAA 11-15ACBCA 16-20CACBB
阅读:21-23AAB 24-27ABCD 28-31CABA 32-35CDAC 36-40BDAEF
完形:41-45ACCAD 46-50ABDBC 51-55DADCB
语填: 56.paths 57.braved 58.to reach 59.whose 60.remarkably 61.constructed 62.the 63.dropping 64.what 65.like
应用文范文:
Dear fellow students,
Today, I'm honored to present the findings of our recent survey on weekly exercise duration among our students.
According to the data,40% students work out for 2—4 hours per week, while 28% reach 4—5 hours. However,18% students remain below 2 hours and only 14% of students exercise for more than 5 hours, meeting the recommended standard. From my perspective, the result is far from satisfying. Regular exercise is vital for health and study efficiency, yet many neglect it due to heavy workloads or lack of motivation. Therefore, it's highly recommended that more time should be set aside for physical activities and more interesting games should be organized to arouse students' passion for sports.
Remember, a strong body fuels a sharp mind. Let's take action now!
续写范文:
As I went to grab it, the guards there asked for my ID.A wave of panic welled up in my chest and surged through me as I searched my empty wallet. The guard frowned. “No ID, no item,” he said, glancing at the queue behind me. Upon stepping back, I took a deep breath, pulled out my flute card, and said, “May I prove it another way ” The younger guard exchanged looks with his colleague, uncertain. No sooner had I raised the flute to my lips than the noise of the station seemed to fade away.
Desperate and anxious, I said, “What if I play you a tune ” My fingers trembled at first, but the familiar rhythm soon flowed like a warm current. A child stopped crying. Someone took out a phone. Even the loudspeaker seemed quieter. When I finished, the older guard clapped softly. “You weren’t lying,” he said. Having earned back more than just my flute, I felt a sense of trust restored between strangers. This experience has left an indelible mark, showing me that music, like kindness, always finds its way home.
答案详解:
A篇21.A 22.A 23.B
本文是一篇应用文。主要介绍了四项全球高中生竞赛,涵盖艺术、摄影、科学和科技领域,分别说明其参赛要求、奖项设置及核心主题。
21.细节理解题 根据"The Saatchi Gallery Art Prize for Schools"部分"Eligibility: Students aged 5–18 attending school"可知,参赛者为5-18岁在校学生。排除B(年龄不符)、C(非专业人士)和D(非大学生)。
22. 细节理解题 "National Geographic Student Photo Contest"明确列出主题"wildlife, landscapes, and human connection",选项A涵盖其中两项核心主题。排除B(对应Technovation Girls)、C(对应Regeneron STS)和D(未提及)。
23. 细节理解题"Regeneron STS"的Eligibility注明"open globally for U.S. citizens or residents",强调国籍限制。排除A(未提限制)、C(团队要求对应Technovation Girls)和D(要求高中毕业年级而非年龄)。
B篇26.A 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.B
本文讲述了Robert Parry通过手绘装饰儿童绷带的方法,在家庭面临压力的时候,帮助病人和他们的父母微笑和大笑来鼓舞他们的故事。
24.推理判断题。根据第二段But after the operation, Susan burst into tears for a different reason across the cut on their newborn son's back was a sweet winter scene hand-drawn on his bandages ( 但手术后,苏珊因另一个原因哭了起来,在他们刚出生的儿子的背上,伤口上是一个甜蜜的冬天场景,手绘在他的绷带上)和第三段It was extremely touching and comforting to know that somebody had taken the time to do that for my family.(知道有人花了时间为我的家人做这件事,我感到非常感动和安慰。)可知手术后, Susan却因为另一个原因哭了起来,因为她刚出生的儿子背上的伤口上,是一幅在绷带上手绘的温馨的冬季景象。由此判断出,她被医生的爱心感动, 故选A。
25.细节理解题。根据第四段Robert Parry, who discovered another way to use his hands in the mid 1980 s during his internship (实习期)at a children medical center, where he saw one of his colleagues cut out heart and shark shapes to decorate children' s bandages.和第五段 I especially liked the reactions of the parents and the patients when they saw his artwork. The smiles took everyone' s attention from the surgery. Then I decided to follow suit.可知,Robert Parry80年代中期在儿童医学中心实习期间,看到了一位同事剪心和鲨鱼形状装饰孩子的绷带。他尤其喜欢病人和父母看到他的作品时的反应,因为笑容能把大家的注意力从手术上转移开。然后 Robert Parry决定这样做。由此可知 Robert Parry有装饰儿童绷带的想法是受同事的启发。故选B。
26.推理判断题。根据第六段Parry quickly graduated from his early hearts and sharks, and started to surprise families with drawings that captured young patients' personalities.和Most kids want superheroes sports team logos or princesses, while babies often receive scenes with flowers trees and sea creatures.可知Parry用绘画捕捉年轻病人的个性,给家人带来惊喜。大多数孩子想要超级英雄运动队的标志或公主,,而婴儿经常收到鲜花、树木和海洋生物的场景。由此推知 Parry 在过去30年的艺术作品考虑到了个别病人的口味。故选C。
27.推理判断题。根据第五段I especially liked the reactions of the parents and the patients when they saw his artwork. The smiles took everyone's attention from the surgery. Then I decided to follow suit.和第七段" During a time of stress for families, it's nice to be able to help them smile and laugh, "Parry said. "This is something positive that I can do for them, which is what I like most about it.可知 Robert Parry决定这样做,他喜欢病人和父母看到他的作品时的反应,因为笑容能把大家的注意力从手术上转移开。在家庭面临压力的时候,能够帮助他们微笑和大笑是很好的。由此判断出,Parry希望做积极的事情来鼓舞病人和他们的父母。故选D。
C篇28. C 29. A 30. B 31. A说明文。文章主要介绍了烟花对鸟类的影响。
28.细节理解题。根据第一段“Research led by ecologist Bart Hoekstra of the University of Amsterdam shows that birds are affected by the mass use of fireworks on New Year’s Eve up to a distance of 10 km (6 miles) away. (阿姆斯特丹大学的生态学家巴特·胡克斯特拉领导的研究表明,除夕夜大量燃放烟花爆竹会影响到10公里(6英里)外的鸟类。)”可知,这项研究告诉读者燃放烟花对鸟类的影响程度。故选C。
29.细节理解题。根据第三段“Last year, other researchers at IBED discovered that geese are so affected by fireworks that they spend an average of 10% longer looking for food than normal during at least the next 11 days. They apparently need that time to restore their energy to their former condition, after fleeing from the fireworks. (去年,IBED的其他研究人员发现,鹅受到烟花的影响很大,至少在接下来的11天里,它们寻找食物的时间平均比正常情况长10%。在逃离烟火之后,他们显然需要时间将精力恢复到以前的状态。)”可知,在逃离烟花之后,它们需要这段时间来补充失去的精力,以恢复到以前的状态。故选A。
30.词句猜测题。根据第四段中“Because 62% of all birds in the Netherlands live within a radius of 2.5 km of inhabited areas, the consequences of fireworks are high for all birds throughout the country. (由于荷兰62%的鸟类生活在居民区半径2.5公里的范围内,因此烟花对全国所有鸟类的影响都很大。)”和划线词后“near forests and semi-open habitats (在森林和半开放的栖息地附近)”可知,烟花对离居民区近的鸟类影响很大,在森林和半开放的栖息地附近,烟花对鸟类的影响不那么明显。所以划线词的含义为“显著的、明显的”A. Predictable可预测的;B. Noticeable显著的;C. Admirable令人钦佩的;D. Avoidable可避免的。故选B。
31.主旨大意题。通读全文,尤其是由文章第一段“Research led by ecologist Bart Hoekstra of the University of Amsterdam shows that birds are affected by the mass use of fireworks on New Year’s Eve up to a distance of 10 km(6 miles)away. (阿姆斯特丹大学的生态学家巴特·胡克斯特拉领导的研究表明,除夕夜大量燃放烟花爆竹会影响到10公里(6英里)外的鸟类)”可知,文章主要介绍了烟花对鸟类的影响。A选项中in the air 暗指鸟类,panic 指烟花带来的影响,故选项A“Panic in the air (空气中弥漫着恐慌)”为最佳答案。故选A。
D篇32.C 33.D 34.A 35.C说明文,主要介绍了中国AI公司DeepSeek的崛起、技术优势、面临的挑战及其对全球人工智能领域的影响,并探讨了AI未来发展的不确定性。
32.主旨大意题。根据文章第二段“Trained on an astonishing 20 trillion tokens, this multimodal model showcases linguistic proficiency, code generation capabilities and reasoning skills that rival or surpass its Western counterparts. What truly sets DeepSeek apart is its remarkable efficiency, delivering GPT-4-level performance with 30 percent less computational power.(这款多模态模型在惊人的20万亿个标记上进行了训练,展现出了媲美甚至超越西方同类产品的语言熟练度、代码生成能力和推理技能。DeepSeek的真正独特之处在于其卓越的效率,仅用30%的计算能力就能达到GPT-4级别的性能)”可知,本段主要介绍了DeepSeek的技术优势,包括语言能力、代码生成能力和推理技能,以及其高效的性能。故选C项。
33.细节理解题。根据文章第四段“There are concerns that US government may block American firms from using DeepSeek, mentioning data security concerns.(有人担心美国政府可能会以数据安全为由,阻止美国企业使用DeepSeek)”可知,DeepSeek可能面临的一个挑战是美国政府可能会禁止美国公司使用DeepSeek。故选D项。
34.推理判断题。根据文章第五段“The future of AI, with DeepSeek at the center, remains a mystery. Will it trigger a tech battle between the US and China, or will its open-source roots foster global collaboration (以DeepSeek为核心的人工智能未来仍充满神秘。它是否会引发中美之间的技术战,还是其开源特性会促进全球合作?)”可知,DeepSeek的未来充满了不确定性,可能会引发美中之间的技术战争,也可能促进全球合作。可推理出AI的未来是不确定的。故选A项。
35.推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“Whether we enter an AI arms race or begin a new era of global cooperation depends on how we choose to use and share this technology. As a Brazilian coder said, the future of AI must speak the language of both the developed and developing world to truly succeed.(我们究竟是会陷入一场人工智能军备竞赛,还是开启全球合作的新时代,这取决于我们如何选择使用和分享这项技术。正如一位巴西程序员所说,人工智能的未来必须既能满足发达国家的需求,也能契合发展中国家的期望,才能真正取得成功)”可知,要确保AI的成功,必须考虑全球的需求,包括发达国家和发展中国家。故选C项。
七选五【答案】36. B 37. D 38. A 39. E 40. F
【导语】本文为说明文。文中通过具体事例和建议,向读者介绍了减少家庭浪费的方法,鼓励创意性地减少塑料和其他废物的使用。
36.由上文“My mom is one of the least wasteful people I know. She always brings her own metal containers to buy basic foods like rice and flour. (我妈妈是我认识的最不浪费的人之一。她总是带着自己的金属容器来购买大米和面粉等基本食物。)”可知,本空要说跟“不浪费”有关的话题,由后文“The key is to be creative about reducing plastic and other waste — just like my mom does at home. (关键是要创造性地减少塑料和其他垃圾——就像我妈妈在家里做的那样。)”可知,本句要表达“你也可以像她一样不浪费”有关的话题,故B选项“You can live a low-waste lifestyle too. (你也可以过低浪费的生活。)”能承上启下,符合题意。故选B。
37.由上文“One effective way is to conduct a review of household rubbish. List the rubbish by room or by activity. (一个有效的方法是对生活垃圾进行审查。把垃圾按房间或活动分类。)”可知,本空要说跟“如何进行垃圾分类”有关的话题,故D选项“You might write “used wipes and paper towels” under “nursery.” (你可以在“儿童房”下面写上“用过的湿巾和纸巾”)”能承接上文,符合题意。故选D。
38. 由下文“A lot of low-waste solutions might seem like they require buying special containers like silicone (硅胶) replacements for your Ziplock (带封口的) bags. But you don’t need to spend money on those items. Instead, figure out a way to repurpose the waste. Use empty cans, boxes and other food containers to store leftovers. (许多低浪费的解决方案似乎需要购买特殊的容器,比如硅胶来代替你的带封口的袋。但是你不需要在这些东西上花钱。相反,要想办法重新利用这些废物。用空罐子、盒子和其他食物容器来储存剩饭剩菜。)”可知,该段落主要讲述重新利用容器的建议,故A选项“You can try reusing your containers. (你可以试着重复使用你的容器。)”作为该段的首句,直接点明主题,符合段落大意。故选A。
39. 由上文“Maybe you can mend an old pair of jeans instead of buying a new pair. Or maybe you can cut up old T-shirts into rags, which is what my mom used to do with my dad’s old T-shirts. (也许你可以修补一条旧牛仔裤,而不是买一条新的。或者你可以把旧T恤剪成破布,我妈妈以前就是这样处理我爸爸的旧T恤的。)”可知,本空要进一步说明这种方法的有效性,故E选项“I do this now too and the rags are perfect for household cleaning. (我现在也这样做了,这些抹布非常适合家庭清洁)”能承接上文,符合题意。故选E。
40. 由上文“Remember: Lowering the amount of waste you create doesn’t have to be an all-or-nothing pursuit. (记住:减少你创造的浪费量并不一定是一个孤注一掷的追求)”可知,末段总结,指出减少垃圾的产生不必一蹴而就,故F选项“Find changes that work for you and you’ll be more likely to stick with them. (找到适合你的改变,你会更有可能坚持下去。)”鼓励读者根据自身情况做出调整并持之以恒,作为总结句恰当。故选F。
完形:41.A 42.C 43.C 44.A 45.D 46.A 47.B 48.D 49.B 50.C 51.D 52.A 53.D 54.C 55.B
文章讲述了一对夫妇在遭遇生意失败后,生活陷入困境,但通过一个名为 Vila Reencontro的住房项目以及其他援助机会,他们逐渐重建生活的故事。
41.考查动词词义辨析。句意:当这对夫妇不得不关闭他们的生意时,他们几乎失去了一切。 A. lost失去;B. desired渴望;C. pursued追求;D. discussed讨论。根据后文“With no work, home, car or food(没有工作,没有家,没有车,没有食物)”可知,他们失去了一切。故选A项。
42.考查动词词义辨析。句意:没有工作,没有家,没有车,没有食物,他们的小儿子 Henrique被安置在祖母身边,他们挣扎着生存。A. parked停放;B. teamed合作;C. placed 安置;D. connected 连接。根据后文“Their son is able to live with them again.(他们的儿子又能和他们住在一起了)”可知,此时应是让他们的小儿子Henrique安置在他的祖母家,和祖母住在一起。故选C项。
43.考查动词词义辨析。句意:没有工作,没有家,没有车,没有食物,他们的小儿子 Henrique被安置在祖母身边,他们挣扎着生存。A. parted分开;B. managed 管理;C. struggled挣扎;D. promised承诺。根据前文“With no work, home, car or food(没有工作,没有家,没有车,没有食物)”可知,这对夫妇失去了一切,所以是挣扎着生存。故选C项。
44.考查副词词义辨析。句意:他们在火车站的地板上过夜,偶尔在避难所找到床位。A. occasionally偶尔地;B. unexpectedly出乎意料地;C. purposefully有目的地;D. suddenly突然地。根据前文“They spent nights on the floor at the railway station(他们在火车站的地板上过夜)”可知,他们一般在火车站的地板上过夜,所以应是偶尔在避难所找到床位。故选A项。
45.考查动词词义辨析。句意:该项目允许他们浏览可供出租的潜在房屋列表,这样他们就可以选择最适合自己家庭的房屋。A. persuaded说服;B. required要求;C. reminded提醒;D. allowed允许。根据后文“so they could choose what would be the best      for their family.”可知,他们能选择最适合自己家庭的房屋,所以是允许他们浏览一份可供出租的潜在房屋清单。故选D项。
46.考查形容词词义辨析。句意:该项目允许他们浏览可供出租的潜在房屋列表,这样他们就可以选择最适合自己家庭的房屋。A .available 可用的;B. expensive昂贵的;C. convenient方便的;D. comfortable 舒适的。根据后文“they decided to go with what they are now in(他们决定按照现在的情况走下去)”可知,他们选择了现在的房子,所以应是可供出租的潜在房屋清单。故选A项。
47.考查动词词义辨析。句意:该项目允许他们浏览可供出租的潜在房屋列表,这样他们就可以选择最适合自己家庭的房屋。A. pick采摘;B. fit适合;C. change改变;D. result导致。 根据句意以及上文“The program      them to look through a list of potential homes      to rent”可知,他们可以选择最适合自己家庭的房屋。故选B项。
48.考查名词词义辨析。句意:在看了几个选择之后,他们决定选择现在住的这个房子。A. clients客户;B. applicants申请人;C. programs程序;D. option选项。根据前文“look through a list of potential homes      to rent”可知他们看了一份清单,所以应是在看了几个选择之后,他们决定选择现在住的这个房子。故选 D 项。
49.考查动词词义辨析。句意:他们还获得了其他机会,包括获得医疗保健和找工作。A. reforming改革;B. accessing访问;C. performing执行;D. offering提供。根据后文“medical care and finding jobs(医疗保健和找工作)”可知,是让他们获得医疗服务和找工作。故选B项。
50.考查名词词义辨析。句意:Lee Sousa获得了该市环卫部门的一个职位——他至今仍在那里工作。A. gift礼物;B. contract合同;C. spot职位;D. bonus奖金。根据后文“in the city’s health department — which he still has today.”可知,是给Lee Sousa提供了一个职位。故选C项。
51.考查动词词义辨析。句意:住房计划将为他们支付未来两年的房租。A. keep保持;B. increase增加;C. collect收集;D. pay支付。根据前文可知这对夫妇失去了一切以及“they decided to go with what they are now in(他们决定按照现在的情况走下去)”他们选择一个住房,所以应是住房计划将为他们支付未来两年的房租。故选D项。
52.考查动词词义辨析。句意:他在学校的表现特别好,从来不想缺席一天。A. miss错过; B. celebrate庆祝;C. spend花费;D. save节省。根据前文“And he has been doing exceptionally well at school(他在学校的表现特别好)”可知,他们的小儿子在学校的表现特别好,所以不想缺课。故选A项。
53.考查动词词义辨析。句意:每天早上,在妈妈送他去学校之前,他都会不慌不忙地做头发,确保卷发恰到好处。A. observing观察;B. cutting切割;C. coloring着色;D. doing 做。根据后文“making sure the curls(卷发) are just right(确保卷发恰到好处)”可知,他每天早上都会做头发。故选D项。
54.考查连词词义辨析。句意:每天早上,在妈妈送他去学校之前,他都会不慌不忙地做头发,确保卷发恰到好处。A. once一旦;B. while当……时;C. before在……之前;D. since自从。根据前文“Every morning he takes his time      his hair, making sure the curls(卷发) are just right(每天早上,在妈妈送他去学校之前,他都会不慌不忙地……头发,确保卷发恰到好处)”可知,应是在去学校之前做头发。故选C项。
55.考查名词词义辨析。句意:有了自己的空间,这个家庭的生活又回到了正轨。A. privacy 隐私;B. space空间;C. time时间;D. business生意。根据前文“they decided to go with what they are now in ( 他们决定按照现在的情况走下去)”可知,他们有了自己的房子,也就是自己的空间。故选B项。
语填:
11.paths 12.braved 13.to reach 14.whose 15.remarkably 16.constructed 17.the 18.dropping 19.what 20.like
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。主要介绍的是云南山区学生陈红韩(音译)通过“云端校车”摆脱危险上学路、实现安全求学的感人故事。
11.考查名词复数。句意:泥珠河村坐落在深山之中,曾经与万全小学之间靠悬崖边的小路连接,这段路十分危险。path 为可数名词,根据语境,“悬崖边的小路”不止一条,需用复数形式作宾语。故填paths。
12.考查动词。句意:每个上学日,陈和她的同学们都要冒着泥泞狭窄的道路和临时搭建的石阶,到达位于悬崖顶上的学校。陈述过去的动作,用一般过去时。故填braved。
13.考查动词不定式。句意:每个上学日,陈和她的同学们都要冒着泥泞狭窄的道路和临时搭建的石阶,到达位于悬崖顶上的学校,不定式to do 结构可作目的状语,此处“to reach” 表示 “为了到达”。故填to reach。
14.考查定语从句。句意:难怪那些孩子每天在这些路上面临安全风险的家长们一直忧心忡忡。先行词为 parents,空格后 children 与 parents 为所属关系,关系词为whose 。故填whose。
15.考查副词。 句意:2017 年,随着泥珠河大峡谷生态旅游项目的启动,这段充满挑战的旅程发生了显著变化。空格处修饰动词 changed,需用副词形式 remarkably。故填 remarkably。
16.考查过去分词。句意:2022 年建成的悬崖电梯和缆车为村民提供了免费登顶的通道。空格前A cliffside lift and a cable car (缆车)与construct为被动关系,用过去分词作定语。故填constructed。
17.考查定冠词。句意:如今,“云校车” 结合了巴士、268 米的电梯和 200 米的缆车,将之前危险的旅程变成了安全愉快的体验。定冠词 the 用于特指前文提到的事物,此处指代孩子们过去上学的危险路径。故填the。
18.考查动名词。句意:曾经因危险考虑辍学的陈,现在可以安全地带着妹妹们去上学了。consider doing sth. 为固定搭配,意为“考虑做某事”。动词 drop 需用动名词形式 dropping 作 consider 的宾语。故填dropping。
19.考查宾语从句。句意:除了保护孩子们,这个项目还促进了旅游业,把曾经被忽视的村庄变成了旅游目的地。空格处引导宾语从句,且在从句中作主语,连接词为what”。故填what。
20.考查介词。句意:村民们抓住了这个机会,通过开办农场住宿、咖啡馆和宾馆等企业,大大改善了他们的生计。farmstays, coffee shops, and guesthouses 是对 businesses 的举例,like 作为介词,意为 “例如”,用于列举具体事例。故填like。
听力原文:
Text 1(第1题为推断题)
M: Good morning. I’d like to apply for a startup loan.
W: The clerk is on the go. I’ll put you on a waiting list first. Here are some snacks and drinks. Just help yourself.
on the go 非常忙碌
Text 2
M: Honey, go upstairs to change your clothes. It’s time to go out for dinner.
W: I’m sorry, but I’ll be tied up in a business meeting until 7:30 p.m. (2)
M: Lily’s kid will feel a bit down if you’re not there. She is looking forward to meeting you.
Text 3
W: John, do you know how to get to the Science Museum
M: Yes, it’s near my uncle’s house. I’m going to visit him this afternoon, and I can drop you off on my way there. (3)
W: Really That’ll be great. Thank you.
Text 4
W: Wow, you’ve given our room a completely new look!
M: I just made the bed and put the table and chairs back in their proper place. (4)
W: Good job! I’ll buy some flowers to brighten up the room.
Text 5(第5题为主旨大意题)
W: Kate turns 21 in December. Have you decided on the gift
M: A camera. She’s been really passionate about photography these days. What about you
W: I’m going to give her a necklace that she mentioned at the Christmas party last year.
Text 6
W: Jim, have you heard that there will be the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon in our city this Saturday (6) (7)
M: Yes. Joe casually brought it up at the weekly online meeting. (6) What a novel contest!
W: The poster says it’s open to all. So, do you plan to go
M: No, I checked the latest weather forecast, and it said the outdoor temperature will reach 37 degrees Celsius. It’s hard even for a little walk.
W: Don’t you think it’s a good chance to open your mind
M: You’re right. But I prefer to prepare myself for the coming computer programming exam. (7)
W: Well, I respect your choice. But you really should get more exercise.
novel 【熟词生义】 新颖的;与众不同的
Text 7
M: When did you buy this scarf (8) I’ve never seen you wear it.
W: Maybe last month It was on sale for $60. (8) It was such a tempting deal, and I couldn’t help but buy it.
M: I guess the shop assistant said the original price was $100, right
W: No, the original price was double what I paid. (8)
M: That price was set on purpose. In that case, even if the actual price of the item is $60, compared to the so-called “original price”, it makes you feel like you’re getting a bargain when you pay $60 for it. (9)
W: No wonder I always pay more in order to save money. But those discounts are too attractive, especially for well-known brands. How can I avoid falling into this trap
M: Well, you can try to figure out whether you actually need the product, and I think it’s most important to only buy what’s truly necessary. (10)
Text 8
M: Hey, Linda. (12) How was your family trip to Türkiye (11)
W: We had a very tight schedule, and we were always on our way to different tourist destinations. Many places were jam-packed with tourists. Surprisingly, my brother Tom ended up pleased, though he initially thought it was boring. (11)
M: What do you do to relax when travel wears you down
W: I always slow the pace of my trip and even rest in the hotel to recharge. What about you
M: I usually hurry to tour as many scenic spots as possible. I don’t even think about taking a break.
W: You don’t have to visit every single tourist attraction. You can stop for a rest if you feel tired. Sometimes short breaks can make a big difference. You don’t have to stick strictly to the plan. (12)
M: You’re right. By the way, I want to drive to the seaside to watch a band’s live performances next weekend. Would you like to join me (13)
W: Sure. I’ll bring my camera and take some photos. (13)
Text 9(第14题为推断题)
M: Hey, Susan, (16) I haven’t seen you for ages.
W: Yes. We haven’t met since you retired from our company.
M: I heard you became a mother again two years ago.
W: Yeah, I gave birth to twin girls, Janice and Jane. Bob is the older brother now.
M: That’s amazing! It must be challenging to raise them, but it’s also really rewarding and emotionally fulfilling, right
W: Yes. David and I have been working hard for our kids all these years. How about you
M: My wife and I are living the dream — traveling the world.
W: Wow. So is that why I ran into you here
M: Yes. We are flying to Germany.
W: I went there for the Oktoberfest last year. The beer festival was incredible. Which cities are you planning to visit (15)
M: We’ll start in Berlin to visit the historic sites like the Berlin Wall. (15) Then we’ll head to Munich and explore the Bavarian countryside. My wife is a big fan of German castles, so we’ll definitely go on a tour of Füssen.
W: Oh, Neuschwanstein Castle is like the building of a fairytale world! Make sure to try some regional specialties, like bratwurst and sauerbraten. And don’t miss the Black Forest cake. (16)
M: Thanks for the tips! Oh, I have to go in. My flight will take off soon. (17)
Text 10(第18题为推断题)
In today’s program, we are featuring a famous author, Michel Faber. (20) He was born in the Netherlands in 1960, brought to Australia as a child, and has lived in Scotland since 1993. We met in London, where he was on the occasion of his book tour. I interviewed him in a flat that was not far from Chepstow Villas, one of the settings of The Crimson Petal and The White. This novel became a bestseller soon after it was published in 2002. His first collection of short stories, Some Rain Must Fall, published in 1998, was followed two years later by Under the Skin, (19) a novel adapted for a movie in 2013. Faber’s other books include The Fahrenheit Twins, a 2005 short story collection, as well as his last novel, The Book of Strange New Things. He is extremely hard on writing, but when it comes to his personal life, he sounds casual. He told me that he only used his mobile phone a couple of times in his entire life. He didn’t have a laptop, and I offered him mine as he still needed to check his emails, but there was no Wi-Fi connection in the flat. (20)岳阳县一中2025届高三第六次模拟考试
英 语 试 卷
总分:150分 时量:120分钟
命题人:
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt
19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C.
1. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a bank. B. In a supermarket. C. In a restaurant.
2. Why can’t the woman go out for dinner now
A. She feels very tired.
B. She is occupied with work.
C. She has to look after her kids.
3. What does the man offer to do for the woman
A. Give her a lift.
B. Pick up her uncle.
C. Show her around the museum.
4. What did the man do
A. He tidied up the room.
B. He bought some flowers.
C. He repaired the table and chairs.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Kate’s plan for Christmas.
B. Kate’s birthday presents.
C. Kate’s new hobby.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. How did Jim know about the marathon
A. From a poster. B. From the Internet. C. From his colleague.
7. What will Jim do this Saturday
A. Work overtime. B. Study for a test. C. Run a marathon.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What is the original price of the scarf
A. 60 dollars. B. 100 dollars. C. 120 dollars.
9. What does the man say about the price of the scarf
A. It was a marketing trick.
B. It was adjusted frequently.
C. It was within a reasonable range.
10. What does the man consider most important when shopping
A. Personal needs. B. Product quality. C. Brand names.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. How did Tom feel about the trip to Türkiye in the end
A. Satisfied. B. Disappointed. C. Bored.
12. What does Linda suggest the man do when he travels
A. Visit each famous scenic spot.
B. Make detailed plans in advance.
C. Have proper rest.
13. What do the speakers plan to do next weekend
A. Buy a camera. B. See a live band. C. Put on performances.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. What is the probable relationship between Susan and Bob
A. Former colleagues. B. Brother and sister. C. Mother and son.
15. Which city will the man explore first
A. Berlin. B. Munich. C. Füssen.
16. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. Visit the historic sites.
B. Attend a beer festival.
C. Try local dishes.
17. What is the man going to do
A. Board a flight. B. Do some shopping. C. See a friend off.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. What does the speaker probably do
A. A writer. B. A director. C. A program host.
19. When was Under the Skin published
A. In 1998. B. In 2000. C. In 2013.
20. What can we learn about Michel Faber
A. He moved to Australia in 1993.
B. He doesn’t rely on electronic devices.
C. He made a film about his personal life.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
4 Competitions for High School Students
The Saatchi Gallery Art Prize for Schools
About: A global art competition celebrating emerging talent in visual arts. Submissions include drawings, paintings, sculptures, and installations created by school students.
Location: London, UK (open globally).
Eligibility: Students aged 5–18 attending school.
Prizes: Cash prizes of up to 10,000 for the winners and their schools.
Competition Dates: Exhibition in spring 2025.
National Geographic Student Photo Contest
About: This competition invites young photographers to capture the beauty and diversity of the world around them. Themes include wildlife, landscapes, and human connection.
Location: Online (open globally).
Eligibility: Students aged 13–18.
Prizes: Cameras, gear, and publication in National Geographic.
Competition Dates: Results announced in June 2025.
Regeneron Science Talent Search (Regeneron STS)
About: Known as the “Nobel Prize for High School Students,” the Regeneron STS is one of the most prestigious STEM competitions. It recognizes students who conduct original, independent research in science, technology, engineering, or mathematics. Finalists present their projects to professional judges and compete for scholarships and accolades.
Location: USA (open globally for U.S. citizens or residents).
Eligibility: High school seniors with independent research projects.
Prizes: Top winner receives $250,000; over $1.8 million in awards for other finalists.
Competition Dates: June 1, 2025.
Technovation Girls
About: This global competition encourages young women to develop mobile applications that solve real-world problems. Teams of girls aged 8–18 receive mentorship to learn coding, entrepreneurship, and project management skills, fostering innovation and leadership in STEM.
Location: Global (virtual and regional events).
Eligibility: Girls aged 8–18, working in teams with an adult mentor.
Prizes: Cash awards and recognition; opportunities to present projects at international forums.
Competition Dates: June 2025.
21. Who can join the Saatchi Gallery Art Prize
A. School students aged 5–18. B. Young artists under 20.
C. Professional sculptors. D. Global university students.
22. What is the focus of the National Geographic Student Photo Contest
A. Wildlife and landscapes. B. Mobile app development.
C. Scientific research projects. D. Traditional handcraft skills.
23. What is unique about Regeneron STS eligibility
A. Open to global participants. B. Limited to U.S. citizens or residents.
C. Requires team participation. D. Accepts students under 18.
B
One of the most stressful days of Susan McFrederick’s life was watching her son get wheeled away for surgery hours after he was born in 2011.
But after the operation, Susan burst into tears for a different reason: across the cut on their newborn sons back was a sweet winter scene, hand-drawn on his bandages(绷带).
“There were rolling hills of snow, a pine tree and a snowman with a hat and broom, she recalled. It was extremely touching and comforting to know that somebody had taken the time to do that for my family. It was a moment I'll never forget.”
Susan soon learned the artist was her sons surgeon, Robert Parry, who discovered another way to use his hands in the mid-1980s during his internship(实习期)at children's medical center,where he saw one of his colleagues cut out heart and shark shapes to decorate children’s bandages.
“My first reaction was, 'What is he doing Hey, that’s kind of neat,’ ” Parry recalled. “I especially liked the reactions of the parents and the patients when they saw his artwork. The smiles took everyone's attention from the surgery. Then I decided to follow suit.”
Parry quickly graduated from his early hearts and sharks, and started to surprise families with drawings that captured young patients' personalities. From Snoopy to Spider-Man and bears to butterflies, there isn’t much he hasn’t drawn. Most kids want superheroes sports team logos or princesses, while babies often receive scenes with flowers trees and sea creatures. During the last 30 years, Parry estimates he has left examples of his handiwork over the stitches(伤口缝线) of more than 10, 000 children.
“During a time of stress for families, it's nice to be able to help them smile and laugh," Parry said. This is something positive that I can do for them, which is what I like most about it.”
For Parry, the reward is knowing he hopefully made a difference in a child’s life, and except for his drawings on bandages, they can go on and live their lives and never know I was in it.” he said.
He's not ready to retire, but he's found a new hobby to keep his hands skillful in the years to come.
“I've taken up knitting(编织),” Parry said. “Hats, sweaters, gloves —I enjoy it all. But mostly, I enjoy giving everything away.”
24.Susan burst into tears after her baby's operation because she was__________.
A.moved B.amused C.stressed D.heartbroken
25.How did Parry get the idea of decorating children's bandages
A.He was motivated by his patients.
B.He was inspired by his colleague.
C.He was required to learn the skill during his internship.
D.He was encouraged by Susan to show his genius for art.
26.Parry's artworks during the last 30 years show that he__________.
A.devoted himself more to art than to medicine.
B.knew more about his patients than their parents.
C.took into consideration the tastes of individual patients.
D.created a large number of works beyond his expectations.
27.What does Parry expect to achieve with his artworks
A.To get a reward from the artistic circle.
B.To win the admiration of his colleagues.
C.To make a difference in his dull medical career.
D.To lift the spirits of his patients and their parents.
C
Research led by ecologist Bart Hoekstra of the University of Amsterdam shows that birds are affected by the mass use of fireworks on New Year’s Eve up to a distance of 10 km (6 miles) away.
With data from weather radars and bird counts, an international team of researchers revealed how many birds take off immediately after the start of the fireworks, at what distance from fireworks this occurs and which species groups mainly react. “Birds take off as a result of an acute flight response due to sudden noise and light. We already knew that many water birds react strongly, but now we also see the effect on other birds throughout the Netherlands, ”says ecologist Bart Hoekstra of the University of Amsterdam. In the scientific journal Frontiers in Ecology and the Environment, the researchers therefore argue for large fireworks-free zones.
Last year, other researchers at IBED discovered that geese are so affected by fireworks that they spend an average of 10% longer looking for food than normal during at least the next 11 days. They apparently need that time to restore their energy to their former condition, after fleeing from the fireworks.
Because 62% of all birds in the Netherlands live within a radius of 2. 5 km of inhabited areas, the consequences of fireworks are high for all birds throughout the country. “Flying requires a lot of energy, so ideally birds should be disturbed as little as possible during the cold winter months. Measures to ensure this are especially important in open areas such as grasslands, where many larger birds spend the winter. The effects of fireworks on birds are less pronounced near forests and semi-open habitats. In addition, smaller birds such as tits and finches live there, which are less likely to fly away from disturbance.”
The authors argue for fireworks-free zones in areas where large birds live. Hoekstra: “These buffer zones could be smaller in areas where light and sound travel less far, such as near forests. Furthermore, fireworks should mainly be lit at central locations in built-up areas, as far away from birds as possible. It would be best for birds if we moved towards light shows without sound, such as drone shows or decorative fireworks without very loud bangs.”
28. What can we learn about the research
A. It’s the first one about fireworks’ effects on birds.
B. It’s conducted by collecting data from weather radars.
C. It shows the extent of the fireworks’ influence on birds.
D. It keeps track of birds throughout Netherlands and beyond.
29. Why did geese spend more time looking for food
A. To make up for the lost energy. B. To store more food in case.
C. To find a new source of energy. D. To find a place without fireworks.
30. What does the underlined word “pronounced” in Para. 4 mean
A. Predictable. B. Noticeable. C. Admirable. D. Avoidable.
31. What can be the best title for the passage
A. Panic in the air. B. Fireworks-free zones.
C. Fireworks in the world. D. Birds throughout the country.
D
In the cutthroat world of artificial intelligence, long dominated by Silicon Valley, DeepSeek has emerged as an impressive new player. Since its debut in late 2023, this Chinese AI has stirred global attention, representing more than just another technological innovation. It’s a complex phenomenon that reflects the shifting landscape of innovation, power and cultural influence in the AI-driven era.
Developed by QuantumThink Labs in Shenzhen, DeepSeek was created by a team of ex-Google Brain engineers and Peking University experts. DeepSeek is not your average chatbot. Trained on an astonishing 20 trillion tokens, this multimodal model showcases linguistic proficiency, code generation capabilities and reasoning skills that rival or surpass its Western counterparts. What truly sets DeepSeek apart is its remarkable efficiency, delivering GPT-4-level performance with 30 percent less computational power.
In a strategic move, QuantumThink made a “lite” version of DeepSeek open source, a decision that has sparked widespread adoption across the globe. Developers from cities like Lagos to Jakarta have quickly embraced it to create poetry generators and AI-powered farm management tools for rural India.
However, DeepSeek’s growing influence is not without challenges. There are concerns that US government may block American firms from using DeepSeek, mentioning data security concerns. Tariff (关税) war could also be on the cards. Yet, such moves might backfire, potentially harming US startups that benefit from DeepSeek’s cost advantages.
The future of AI, with DeepSeek at the center, remains a mystery. Will it trigger a tech battle between the US and China, or will its open-source roots foster global collaboration DeepSeek’s story is not just about technology; it’s about the power of innovation and agency.
For too long, the AI narrative has been dominated by Western powers. Now, a Chinese lab has shown that innovation is not exclusive to the West. Whether we enter an AI arms race or begin a new era of global cooperation depends on how we choose to use and share this technology. As a Brazilian coder said, the future of AI must speak the language of both the developed and developing world to truly succeed.
32.What does the second paragraph mainly talk about
A.The creation of DeepSeek. B.The definition of DeepSeek.
C.The strengths of DeepSeek. D.The efficiency of DeepSeek.
33.What might be a challenge DeepSeek faces
A.Involvement in tariff war. B.The possibility of data leaking.
C.A decline in its competitiveness. D.A ban on its use from US government.
34.Which of the following best describes the future of AI
A.Uncertain. B.Secure. C.Promising. D.Depressing.
35.What can we infer from the last paragraph
A.AI should prioritize Western languages.
B.We will enter a new era of global AI cooperation.
C.Considering global needs is required to ensure AI’s success.
D.Developing countries will eventually dominate AI innovation.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
My mom is one of the least wasteful people I know. She always brings her own metal containers to buy basic foods like rice and flour. ____36____ The key is to be creative about reducing plastic and other waste — just like my mom does at home.
One effective way is to conduct a review of household rubbish. List the rubbish by room or by activity. ____37____ This examination will help you assess your waste output and identify the ways to reduce it. For example, use reusable bags if you find a lot of plastic bags piling up under your sink.
____38____ A lot of low-waste solutions might seem like they require buying special containers like silicone (硅胶) replacements for your Ziplock (带封口的) bags. But you don’t need to spend money on those items. Instead, figure out a way to repurpose the waste. Use empty cans, boxes and other food containers to store leftovers.
Beyond repurposing food containers, explore ways to save household items before throwing them away. Maybe you can mend an old pair of jeans instead of buying a new pair. Or maybe you can cut up old T-shirts into rags, which is what my mom used to do with my dad’s old T-shirts. ____39____ I don’t feel bad about getting grease (油脂) on them.
Remember: Lowering the amount of waste you create doesn’t have to be an all-or-nothing pursuit. ____40____
A. You can try reusing your containers.
B. You can live a low-waste lifestyle too.
C. She used to bring reusable bags to the market.
D. You might write “used wipes and paper towels” under “kids’ room.”
E. I do this now too and the rags are perfect for household cleaning.
F. Find changes that work for you and you’ll be more likely to stick with them.
G. You can try sourcing your own food by growing a garden in your community.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When the couple had to close their business, they 41 almost everything. With no work, home, car or food, and their young son, Henrique, 42 with his grandmother, they 43 to survive. They spent nights on the floor at the railway station and 44 found beds in a shelter.
A housing program called Vila Reencontro noticed them. The program 45 them to look through a list of potential homes 46 to rent, so they could choose what would be the best 47 for their family. After seeing several 48 , they decided to go with what they are now in.
And they were provided with other opportunities, including 49 medical care and finding jobs. Lee Sousa was offered a(n) 50 in the city’s health department — which he still has today. The housing program will 51 their rent for the next two years.
Their son is able to live with them again. And he has been doing exceptionally well at school, never wanting to 52 a day. Every morning he takes his time 53 his hair, making sure the curls(卷发) are just right, 54 his mom walks him to school.
Having their own 55 , the family is getting their life back on track.
41.A.lost B.desired C.pursued D.discussed
42.A.parked B.teamed C.placed D.connected
43.A.parted B.managed C.struggled D.promised
44.A.occasionally B.unexpectedly C.purposefully D.suddenly
45.A.persuaded B.required C.reminded D.allowed
46.A.available B.expensive C.convenient D.comfortable
47.A.pick B.fit C.change D.result
48.A.clients B.applicants C.programs D.options
49.A.reforming B.accessing C.performing D.offering
50.A.gift B.contract C.spot D.bonus
51.A.keep B.increase C.collect D.pay
52.A.miss B.celebrate C.spend D.save
53.A.observing B.cutting C.coloring D.doing
54.A.once B.while C.before D.since
55.A.privacy B.space C.time D.business
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
For Chen Honghan, a student from Nizhuhe Village in Xuanwei, Yunnan, the dangerous three-hour mountain hike to school has been replaced by a safe 30-minute journey thanks to the “cloud school bus”.
Nizhuhe Village, situated deep in the mountains, was once linked to Wanquan Primary School by a dangerous journey along cliffside (悬崖边) 56 (path). Every school day, Chen and her classmates 57 (brave) muddy, narrow routes and makeshift stone steps just 58 (reach) their school high atop the cliffs. It was no wonder that those parents 59 children faced safety risks on these daily trips remained constantly worried.
This challenging journey changed 60 (remarkable) in 2017 with the launch of Nizhuhe Grand Canyon eco-tourism project. A cliffside lift and a cable car (缆车), 61 (construct) in 2022, offer villagers free access to the peak. Today, the “cloud school bus ”combines a bus ride, a 268-meter lift, and a 200-meter cable car, transforming 62 previous dangerous trip into a safe and enjoyable experience.
The impact has been far-reaching. Chen, who once considered 63 (drop) out due to the dangers, now safely takes her younger sisters to school. Beyond safeguarding children, the project has boosted tourism, turning 64 was once an overlooked village into a tourist destination. Villagers have seized the opportunity and significantly improved their livelihoods by launching businesses, 65 farmstays, coffee shops, and guesthouses.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
学校英语社团在高中生中开展了每周参加体育锻炼时长的调查和讨论。请你结合调查图表内容写一篇发言稿,内容包括:
1.简述调查结果;
2.评价并提出建议。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear fellow students,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
There's an image of big cities as soulless places, where everyone appears to be looking out only for themselves. However, my own experiences tell a different story. During some of the most challenging times of my life, when I was struggling to find proper housing, I worked as an artist on the street. For years, I played my flute (长笛) there, and in doing so, I discovered the natural kindness of people. They showed compassion without expecting anything in return, driven purely by human goodwill.
This profound realization took hold when I was 21, living in Sydney. I worked at a local pub, feeling lost and directionless. Amid the chaos of my life, playing the flute was my only constant source of comfort. Looking back, my connection with the flute began when I was 16. Earning a mere $2.35 an hour at the supermarket, I saved for two long years to buy it. Every day after work, playing the flute became my way of processing the day’s emotions.
One day, while working at the pub, someone asked me what I was doing that night. “I’m going to be playing the flute at —” I started to say, but then it struck me: I had forgotten to pick up my flute when I got off the train. Panic set in immediately. In a fit of frustration, I threw the plastic chair I was holding across the room.
I rushed to the train station, hoping someone had handed in my flute. No luck. Still, I left my number, clinging to the slim hope that it would turn up. Convinced that it was gone forever—after all, I hadn’t even written my name on the case—I spent the next week drowning in self-blame, drinking heavily and feeling sorry for myself.
Then, out of the blue, I received a call from CityRail. They had my flute. I hurried to the lost property office at Central Station. And there it was, among all the other lost items.
Paragraph 1:
As I went to grab it, the guards there asked for my ID._____________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Desperate and anxious, I said, “What if I play you a tune ”__________________
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