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2024-2025学年第二学期高一4月期中提升考
英语
考生注意：
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What course will the woman take next term
A. Writing. B. Science. C. Geography.
2. What are the speakers likely to do
A. Buy a new ruler. B. Put on their glasses. C. Catch the school bus.
3. Where is the man going
A. To the park. B. To the office. C. To the sports center.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Their work. B. Their hobbies. C. Their weekend plan.
5. How does Mark usually go to work
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By train.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman ask the man to buy
A. Juice. B. Sugar. C. Bread.
7. What will the speakers do this afternoon
A. Play tennis. B. Hold a party. C. Eat out together.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why is the woman in a hurry to board the train
A. For a training course. B. For an interview. C. For a phone call.
9. What will the man do first
A. Do some exercise. B. Finish his work. C. Pick up the children.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and secretary. C. Driver and passenger.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man required to wear
A. A black hat. B. A white shirt. C. Brown trousers.
12. When will the quick training take place
A. This morning. B. This afternoon. C. Tomorrow.
13. Where will the man probably work
A. At a restaurant. B. At a library. C. At a clothing store.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is Pete
A. A musician. B. A salesman. C. An event planner.
15. What does Pete say about his job
A. It features high pay. B. It requires team effort. C. It is targeted at teenagers.
16. What is the woman probably doing
A. Hosting a program. B. Delivering a speech. C. Attending a lecture.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How often does the speaker practice swimming with his father each week
A. About three times. B. About four times. C. About five times.
18. What do the speaker and his father often do in the evening
A. They watch TV. B. They ride a bike. C. They go running.
19. What did the speaker’s father buy for him last year
A. A stopwatch. B. Sports shoes. C. A racing bike.
20. Which is scheduled for the summer
A. A field trip. B. A marathon. C. A swimming race.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Days on the Great Beach Drive
Day 1: Noosa Heads to Rainbow Beach
Rent a car and make your way towards Noosa North Shore. Along the way, cross the Noosa River and take the third beach access road to officially start your drive. One of the very first regions that you meet is the Great Sandy Biosphere. Continue north via Leisha Track to Rainbow Beach, a picturesque seaside town overlooked by colourful, towering sand cliffs (悬崖).
Day 2: Rainbow Beach to K’ gari
After checking out of your accommodation, jump in the car for your next stop—the Great Sandy National Park. The park features K’ gari—the largest sand island in the world and the only place where rainforest grows on sand. Drive to the southern end of the island. Once you get here, enjoy the pleasure of driving along one of Australia’s most famous sand roads,75Mile Beach.
Day 3: K’gari to Hervey Bay
It’s time to continue your Great Beach Drive adventure. Take the inland track west towards Kingfisher Bay and stop at Central Station. Next, make your way towards Lake McKenzie, one of the perfect swimming spots in the world. After a refreshing swim, continue onwards to the town of Hervey Bay, which is a popular base for seeing thousands of whales that make their way along the coast between July and November.
Day 4: Hervey Bay to Noosa
The drive from Hervey Bay to Noosa is still a lovely trip through farmland and forest. At Noosa, relax on one of the many Noosa River sunset cruises (乘船游览), or visit nearby Australia Zoo—made famous by the Crocodile Hunter, Steve Irwin. Here, you can hand-feed kangaroos, meet cockatoos, and learn all about Australia’s crocodiles.
21. What is a feature of the Great Sandy National Park
A. It sits on the largest man-made island. B. It is best known for plant communities.
C. It houses colourful, towering sand cliffs. D. It is home to the world’s largest sand island.
22. What can you do at Hervey Bay
A. Go whale watching. B. Start a cruise on the river.
C. Tour Central Station. D. Swim in Lake McKenzie.
23. When can you feed kangaroos on the trip
A. On day 1. B. On day 2. C. On day 3. D. On day 4.
B
In 1899, a wealthy couple built a summer house in Maryland. Over time, the building had different uses, but today, it is part of a public performing arts campus called Strathmore—complete with a nearby concert hall seating nearly 2,000 people—that has developed around that first building.
Jazz singer Christie Dashiel l first came to Strathmore through its artist-in-residence program. Each year, this program selects six musicians between 16 and 32 years old and helps them with lessons, performances, and career advice.
“I left college having so much music,” Dashiell says. “I had written so much music and I had practiced so much music. But I didn’t know what an artist was and what life looked like.”
At Strathmore, Dashiell learned how to perform on stage, promote her music online, and plan concerts. And of course, she worked with other musicians to write songs and put on shows. It’s where Dashiell says she began to find not only her vocal talents, but the unique sonic signature that defines and distinguishes (区分) a jazz artist: her sound.
Dashiell gave several concerts at Strathmore. In 2016, she released her first album (专辑) in its small music room. Later, when she created her second album, Journey in Black, she performed in a bigger venue at Strathmore. Journey in Black, which came out in late 2023,tells stories of love, loss, joy and friendship—all of us can relate to that. It combines jazz with gospel, R&B, and hip-hop. That recording has been nominated (提名) for the Grammy Award for best jazz vocal album. It is her first Grammy nod.
“It feels good to be recognized in this way,” Dashiell says. “Very few artists are making music with the purpose of being nominated for a Grammy. That’s definitely not where I was coming from when I was making this music. I just wanted to make music that was honest and true in a way.”
24. What is a purpose of the artist-in-residence program at Strathmore
A. To explore the century-old building. B. To build a well-developed training system.
C. To offer practical education on music. D. To select winners in a music competition.
25. After leaving college, Dashiell felt a sense of ________.
A. loneliness B. uncertainty C. confidence D. satisfaction
26. What can be learned about the album Journey in Black
A. It came out in 2016. B. It mainly tells about love.
C. It is widely relatable. D. It is Dashiell’s first album.
27. What does Dashiell think is more important for her
A. Producing heartfelt music. B. Getting a nomination for best singer.
C. Winning a Grammy Award. D. Releasing albums as soon as possible.
C
A new study looked at data from more than 10,000 12- and 13-year-olds and their parents, who were asked about their screen-use habits, including texting, social media, video chatting, watching videos and surfing the Internet. The researchers also asked if their screen-use caused problems, like struggling to stop using screens or having trouble with school and daily life.
One key finding stood out: One of the biggest factors of how much time kids spend on screens—and whether that use is problematic—is how much parents themselves use their screens when they are around their kids.
“It’s really important to role-model screen behaviors for your children,” says Jason Nagata, lead author of the study. “Even if teens don’t think they are influenced by their parents, the data shows they are.”
“Instead of beating ourselves up about it,” says Jenny Radesky, a researcher at the University of Michigan, “it’s important for parents to realize that just like kids, we are open to the draws of technology that is purposely designed to keep us scrolling (浏览).”
But even if parents are fighting against bigger forces designed to keep us glued to screens, that doesn’t mean we are completely helpless. Nagata’s research also looked for solutions that worked best to limit screen-use specifically among teenagers because we tend to see kids spending a lot more time on social media once they hit their teenage years.
Keeping meal times and bedtime screen-free helps kids spend less time on screens. Nagata’s earlier research also found that keeping screens out of bedrooms helps kids sleep better. Another key point: When parents use screens too much, kids notice that. Teens often feel their parents are distracted (注意力分散的) and unavailable because they are focused on their own phones. Given the design of technology, Radesky says the message shouldn’t be to blame (指责) the parents. The message should be to talk with your kids about why you feel so pulled in by screens.
28. What were the parents and kids asked to do during the study
A. Record their daily lives. B. Answer some questions.
C. Send texts to each other. D. Have a chat with friends.
29. Who does the study show are a bigger influence on kids’ screen behaviors
A. Parents. B. Teachers. C. Classmates. D. Researchers.
30. What does the underlined word “draws” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Concerns. B. Principles. C. Attractions. D. Achievements.
31. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The primary goals of Nagata’s research. B. Reasons why parents act as a role model.
C. The advantages of living a screen-free life. D. Strategies for limiting screen time for kids.
D
About 4,700 years ago, King Djoser, the first ruler of Egypt’s Third Dynasty, built a pyramid in Saqqara, an ancient burial site in Egypt.
No one knows exactly how the pyramid was built. It took millions of massive blocks. Some of those blocks weighed up to 2,500 kilograms. Experts have proposed several techniques—including ramps and cranes—to move such heavy stone blocks. They have also thought about rope-and-pulley devices and wooden rollers.
Researchers now suggest that ancient people used a water-powered system to construct this pyramid. How Builders would have controlled flows of water into and out of a large shaft (竖井) inside the pyramid. The water’s movement would have lifted and lowered a platform that carried building stones to higher levels.
This idea comes from a study led by Xavier Landreau, a scientist who researches ancient technology. The team found that a branch of the Nile River once flowed near 31 pyramids, including Djoser’s. It’s dried up now. But boats carrying workers and building blocks could have traveled this branch of the Nile between 3,700 and 4,700 years ago. Landreau believes designers of Djoser’s pyramid developed techniques for controlling water flow.
Landreau’ s team created a computer model using data from the pyramid, underground waterways, and satellite images of the region. The model also included a nearby structure called Gisr el-Mudir, which may have collected rainwater. During heavy rains, this area might have turned into a lake, sending water into the pyramid’s shaft. Inside the shaft, a huge wooden float (浮子) may have been connected to ropes and pulleys. When water filled the shaft, the float would rise, lowering a platform to pick up stones. As the water drained (排空), the float would sink, pulling the platform and stones upward.
Not all experts agree with this idea. Kamil Kuraszkiewicz, an Egyptologist at the University of Warsaw in Poland, questions whether the lake Gisr el-Mudir existed, as ancient records do not mention it. “Building the water-powered system,” he says, “would have required much more effort than to move the stone blocks using just manpower.”
32. What can we know about building the pyramid
A. Scientists have reached an agreement on it. B. Few stone blocks were transported by boat.
C. There’s no widely accepted explanation for it. D. Rope-and-pulley devices were the main method.
33. What does Landreau’s study find
A. Waterpower likely gave a big lift to the pyramid builders.
B. The branches of the Nile River were once badly polluted.
C. The 3D model offers insights into the life in ancient times.
D. Pyramid designers developed techniques for fighting floods.
34. What does the author want to explain in paragraph 5
A. The exact purpose of Gisr el-Mudir. B. How the water-powered system works.
C. The discovery of an underground river. D. Why Djoser’s pyramid was constructed.
35. What is Kamil’s attitude towards the new finding
A. Positive. B. Doubtful. C. Unclear. D. Uncaring.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Food gets wasted everywhere. 36 . But the biggest share of wasted food comes from households across the country. So we put together a list of recommendations for cutting your food waste at home.
·Buy less. While this isn’t particularly groundbreaking, it really is the key to reducing home waste. 37 . This is what many of us become guilty (羞愧的) of without even realizing it. In this case, mark it down every time you throw away something, asking yourself “Am I buying too much food ” This is the first step in breaking the cycle.
· 38 . Have you noticed that every time you buy fresh vegetables, they wilt (发蔫) before you can use them Storing these things right makes a difference. Use clear storage containers so you can see what’s inside. Marking the contents with dates is also a good way to keep what you’ve got at the front of your mind.
·Reconsider “best by” dates. We pull a can of soup out of the cupboard only to see that its “best by” date has long since passed. But these dates are widely misunderstood. 39 . There are a small subset of products that can have some kind of increased risk related to them. Give things a taste. If it seems fine, it probably is. Of course, this doesn’t apply to everything.
·Try weekly fridge clean-outs. 40 . These are the items that are most likely to be thrown away unnecessarily. But you can reduce these occurrences with a specific day to use them up. Maybe you cook up all the extras into a soup.
A. Store food properly
B. We have reasons for wasting food
C. Buy fresh vegetables at good prices
D. It’s normal to collect extras in your fridge
E. Many actually refer to best quality, not actual safety
F. It happens on farms, at factories, at restaurants, and at home
G. We usually buy more food than necessary within a given time period
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In a recent cross-country event in Navarre, Spain,24-year-old Spanish runner Ivan Fernandez Anaya faced a difficult decision. The 41 was fierce (激烈的), with Ivan in second place behind Abel Mutai, a Kenyan runner. With victory within reach, Ivan was expected to 42 first place. However, something 43 happened near the finish line.
As the runners neared the end, Mutai 44 thought the end of the race came about 10meters sooner than it did. Believing he had already 45 the finish line, Mutai stopped running. Ivan noticed the 46 immediately. At the last moment, he heard the audience telling Mutai to 47 , but Mutai, who did not speak Spanish, could not 48 the calls.
Realizing what had happened, Ivan made a 49 decision. Instead of 50 the situation, he slowed his pace and stayed behind, guiding Mutai to the 51 finish line. Ivan later explained, “I didn’t deserve (应得) to win it. I did what I had to do. He was the 52 winner.”
Although Ivan’s action may not have won him the match, it won him 53 . His sportsmanship was celebrated by many. Ivan’s act of 54 reminds us that true victory lies not only in winning a race but also in 55 the right thing, even when it comes at a personal cost.
41. A. competition B. discussion C. arrangement D. conflict
42. A. visit B. record C. win D. lose
43. A. unequal B. unexpected C. annoying D. relaxing
44. A. angrily B. luckily C. thankfully D. mistakenly
45. A. crossed B. ignored C. decorated D. missed
46. A. audience B. excuse C. honour D. error
47. A. continue B. stop C. smile D. jump
48. A. remember B. understand C. break D. answer
49. A. boring B. useless C. formal D. surprising
50. A. putting up with B. taking advantage of C. cutting back on D. making fun of
51. A. close B. yellow C. actual D. false
52. A. rightful B. final C. respected D. energetic
53. A. advice B. complaint C. distrust D. admiration
54. A. warning B. relief C. fairness D. bravery
55. A. repeating B. doing C. facing D. testing
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
It is a kind of scenery that’s 56 (unbelievable) amazing. If it were a painting or a photograph, you’d be sure that a certain degree of creative license had taken place. But it hasn’t. It’s all real. This is Sanjiangyuan, the largest in China’s new system of national parks.
In the south of Qinghai Province, Sanjiangyuan covers an area about 57 size of England. The national park is part of a big plan 58 (create) a huge network of parks across China by 2030, with the primary objective to protect the country’s iconic (标志性的), and in many cases, endangered species.
China is a country 59 has long sought to conserve (保护) the celebrated landscapes and rich biodiversity, with tens of thousands of protected areas nationwide. Most people visiting China have probably seen 60 (it) forest parks, scenic areas 61 nature reserves, but a fragmented (分散的) approach has prevented effective conservation of these areas through the years.
WildChina explorer Kyle Obermann explains that “by uniting hundreds of protected areas 62 (manage) by various provinces, the new system’s goal is to make conservation 63 (easy)and stronger under the central authority of the new National Forestry and Grassland Administration.”
This is good news for China’s wildlife. The plan, which 64 (begin) in 2015 with ten pilot parks, will cover 2.3% of China’ s land area, 65 (combine) separate reserves to provide larger protected habitats for the country’s most at-risk creatures.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
随着科技的发展，人们庆祝春节的方式发生了很多变化。请你以Changes in Spring Festival Celebrations为题给校英文网站写一篇短文，内容包括：
1.描述变化；
2.你的看法。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Changes in Spring Festival Celebrations
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My garden plants were well on their way to drying up. I stepped from the coolness of the house into the heat of a summer day in Texas.
“Wow, it’s better to make this quick,” I said to myself. As the sun beat down hard, I generously watered these plants. My dear daughter, Katherine, popped her head out the back door.
“What are you doing out here, Mom ”
I turned, using my shirt to wipe (擦拭) the sweat from my forehead so I could see her.
“I’ve got to water everything, or they will die.”
“Well, be careful. I’m off to class. ”
I continued my work to save my yard, ignoring the spots dancing before my eyes. Finally, I watered the last plant. With a sense of relief, I reached the back door, expecting the rush of cool air on my red face. Relief quickly turned to disbelief and shock: Katherine had locked the back door from the inside out of habit.
My mind quickly processed a slideshow of reality: keys are in the house; my cellphone is in the house; three hours until my husband, Jonathan, comes home. I’m going to cook! My backyard was an oven (烤炉), and I was the picnic ham.
I told myself to calm down and think. There had to be a way. I walked back and forth around the yard shouting “Help me!” at the top of my voice. No response at all, only the hot, dead-quiet heat. There was no shade (阴凉处) in the yard. The yard, so inviting in early morning, was now unbearable in the sun.
Hopeless, I stood in front of the back door, looking at the kitchen through the opening on the door. Suddenly, I had an idea, and the idea had a name: Alexa—an AI voice service. Jonathan had told me that I could make hands-free phone calls with Alexa. Now she was there, just twenty feet away on the kitchen counter. Maybe Alexa could save the day.
注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I struggled to push my head through the small opening, and shouted “Alexa!”_________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
When I heard the phone ringing, I was filled with all the joy. ______________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年第二学期高一4月期中提升考·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
(Text 1)
W: Hey, Jack. Are you still taking the science course next term
M: I’m not sure. I’m thinking about trying the creative writing course. What about you
W: I’ll stick to the geography course.
(Text 2)
W: Have you put your glasses in your schoolbag, Andy
M: Yes, and my ruler. I forgot that yesterday! Come on. Let’s go or we’ll miss the school bus.
(Text 3)
M: I’m going to play basketball in the park now.
W: Why don’t you go to the sports center
M: After being in the office all day, I really need to get some fresh air.
(Text 4)
W: Do you want to see the collection of Sun Yat-sen’s personal things in the museum this Saturday
M: I’d like to, but I’ve got to see a doctor that day. How about visiting it the next day
W: Sounds good to me.
(Text 5)
W: Mark, how do you go to work
M: I live near the factory, so most days I ride a bike. It takes about 20 minutes. But when it rains I go by bus.
(Text 6)
M: Honey, I’m going shopping. Do we need anything
W: I don’t think so... Oh, hang on. We haven’t got any sugar.
M: It’s OK. It’s on my list. I’m going to buy some. What about bread
W: We still have some. Er, what time will you be back
M: I don’t know. I might stop at Nick’s. It depends on how much time I’ve got.
W: Don’t forget we’ re playing tennis with Dave and Donna this afternoon.
M: Don’t worry. I’ll be back before then.
W: OK.
(Text 7)
M: Bye, darling! Good luck with the interview!
W: Thanks. I’ll need it. I hope the train is arriving on time. If I’m late for the interview, I’ll be angry with myself!
M: Just stay calm! Call me when you can.
W: I will. I’ll call you on my mobile as soon as the interview is finished. Are you going to work now
M: Well, I’m going to take exercise before I go to work.
W: Don’t forget to pick up our children as soon as you finish your work.
M: Don’t worry. I won’t forget. You’d better get going. If you don’t hurry, you’ll miss the train.
W: OK. I’ll see you this evening. Bye!
(Text 8)
M: So, um... What time do I have to start
W: 11:00 in the morning or 4:00 in the afternoon. And you have to wear the same uniform as everyone else—a white shirt, black trousers, and a red hat.
M: What do I do exactly
W: You’ll serve the customers. Remember--you must always be polite. When they tell you what they want, you have to enter it into the computer. When they’ re finished, you should read back what they’ve ordered. Then you take their money, and you put together their food. That’s it.
M: I see. When can I start
W: Well, this afternoon, you’ll get quick training. So, you’ll start tomorrow morning. We’ve paired you up with one of our experienced team members—Dave. You can meet him now and discuss your future job.
M: OK, I will.
(Text 9)
W: What do you do, Pete
M: I’m an event planner at a company called Kasima.
W: What kind of events do you organize
M: Mainly personal events, such as birthday parties.
W: Do you spend a lot of time out of the office
M: No, I don’t. I work in the office most of the time. My team develops ideas for events, like places, food, music and so on. I also have a lot of meetings with customers to discuss their needs.
W: Do you work long hours
M: Yes, I do. Just before an event I often work a 14-hour day, but I don’t mind. I’m lucky my company pays me to organize parties, and I love parties.
W: And what abilities are required for the job
M: Well, you need to be creative, and also very...
(Text 10)
M: My dad is a teacher as well as an athlete. He trains hard in his spare time, especially if he’s got a race coming up. I join him whenever I can. I now go to practice swimming with him about three times a week. We swim before school. I don’t like the early mornings, but once I’m there, it feels great. I’ve always been a good swimmer so it’s really fun. When Dad comes home from work in the evening, we’ll go out for a run. We do it four times a week. I’m faster than him, but he can run for a longer distance. At the weekend we go biking. Dad bought me my first racing bike last year, and it’s amazing. It took some time to get used to it, but I love it. We’ re now preparing for a marathon which will be held at the end of the summer. It is the perfect time as we have the summer holiday to do lots of training. I’m quite excited.
参考答案
1~5 CCACB 6~10 BABAA 11~15 BBACB 16~20 AACCB
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了澳大利亚昆士兰州南部的四天海滩驾车之旅。
21. D 细节理解题。根据Day 2: Rainbow Beach to K’gari一节“... jump in the car for your next stop—the Great Sandy National Park. The park features K’ gari—the largest sand island in the world and the only place where rainforest grows on sand.”可知，大沙国家公园（Great Sandy National Park）拥有世界上最大的沙岛K’gari.
22. A 细节理解题。根据Day 3: K’gari to Hervey Bay一节“... continue onwards to the town of Hervey Bay, which is a popular base for seeing thousands of whales...”可知，在Hervey Bay可以观赏鲸鱼。
23. D 细节理解题。根据Day 4: Hervey Bay to Noosa一节“... visit nearby Australia Zoo—made famous by the Crocodile Hunter, Steve Irwin. Here, you can hand-feed kangaroos...”可知，在行程的第四天，可以参观澳大利亚动物园并亲手喂袋鼠。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了爵士歌手Christie Dashiell的成长经历以及她取得的音乐成就。
24. C 细节理解题。根据第二段“Each year, this program selects six musicians between 16 and 32 years old and helps them with lessons, performances, and career advice.”可知，Strathmore的艺术家驻地项目（the artist-in-residence program）目的之一是为年轻音乐家提供实用的音乐教育。
25. B 细节理解题。根据第三段可知，大学毕业后Dashiell对未来感到迷茫。
26. C 推理判断题。根据第五段“Journey in Black, which came out in late 2023, tells stories of love, loss, joy and friendship—all of us can relate to that. It combines jazz with gospel, R&B, and hip-hop. That recording has been nominated（提名）for the Grammy Award for best jazz vocal album.”可推断，Journey in Black这张专辑讲述的主题能引起大家的情感共鸣。
27. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段“... Dashiell says. ‘Very few artists are making music with the purpose of being nominated for a Grammy. That’s definitely not where I was coming from when I was making this music. I just wanted to make music that was honest and true in a way.’”可推断，对Dashiell而言，创作真情实感的音乐更有意义。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。一项新研究发现，父母的行为会显著影响孩子使用电子设备的时间。文章强调了父母以身作则的重要性，并提出了减少孩子使用电子设备的解决方案。
28. B 细节理解题。根据第一段“A new study looked at data from more than 10,000 12-and 13-year-olds and their parents, who were asked about their screen-use habits...”可知，在研究过程中，家长和孩子需回答若干问题。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第二、三段可知，研究认为父母对孩子使用电子设备行为的影响更显著。
30. C 词义猜测题。根据画线词后“‘that is purposely designed to keep us scrolling (浏览).’”可推断，画线词与Attractions的意思最接近。
31. D 段落大意题。通读最后一段，并结合第五段“Nagata’s research also looked for solutions that worked best to limit screen-use specifically among teenagers...”可知，本段主要介绍限制孩子使用电子设备的策略。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。科学家们通过研究提出了一种新的理论，认为古埃及人在建造金字塔时可能利用了一种水力系统，但这一观点也遭到了一些专家的质疑。
32. C 细节理解题。根据第二段，尤其是“No one knows exactly how the pyramid was built.”可知，关于金字塔是如何建造的，并没有公认的解释。
33. A 细节理解题。根据第三、四段可知，Landreau的研究认为金字塔的建造可能利用了水力系统。
34. B 推理判断题。根据第五段的主要内容，并结合第四段“Landreau believes designers of Djoser’ s pyramid developed techniques for controlling water flow.”可推断，作者在第五段主要解释了水力系统的工作原理。
35. B 观点态度题。根据最后一段“Kamil Kuraszkiewicz... questions whether the lake Gisr el-Mudir existed, as ancient records do not mention it. ‘Building the water-powered system,’ he says, ‘would have required much more effort than to move the stone blocks using just manpower.’”可推断，Kamil质疑此项新发现的合理性。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要提出了减少家庭食物浪费的建议。
36. F 根据空前“Food gets wasted everywhere.”及空后“But the biggest share of wasted food comes from households across the country.”可知，选项F列举了农场、工厂、餐馆和家庭这些具体的场景，与前一句相呼应，因此正确答案是选项F.
37. G 根据本段主题句及空后“This is what many of us become guilty (羞愧的) of without even realizing it.”可知，本段主要讨论购买适量的食物以减少浪费，而选项G指出错误做法——购买超过在一定时间内所需的食物。
38. A本段主要讨论如何妥善储存食物以减少浪费。选项A“妥善储存食物”能够准确概括段落内容，因此选项A适合作本段主题句。
39. E 根据空前“But these dates are widely misunderstood.”可知，选项E指出这些日期通常指的是（食品的）最佳质量而非安全性，承接前句给出详细解释，因此正确答案是选项E.
40. D 根据本段主题句及空后“These are the items that are most likely to be thrown away unnecessarily.”可知，选项D指出在冰箱中积存多余食物是正常的，与段落内容一致，因此正确答案是选项D.
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇记叙文。西班牙选手Ivan Fernandez Anaya在越野赛跑中，面对本可以轻松夺冠的机会，选择坚守体育精神，帮助误判比赛结束的对手完成比赛，最终赢得人们的钦佩，体现了真正的胜利在于坚守道德和公平。
41. A 当时比赛（competition）异常激烈，Ivan在肯尼亚选手Abel Mutai之后位居第二。
42. C 胜利似乎触手可及，大家都觉得Ivan会赢得（win）第一名。
43. B 然而，就在终点线附近，意想不到的（unexpected）事情发生了。
44. D 当选手们接近终点时，Mutai误（mistakenly）以为比赛在大约10米之前就结束了。
45. A 他以为自己已经冲过了（crossed）终点线，于是停下了脚步。
46. D Ivan立刻察觉到了这个错误（error）.
47. A 在这紧要关头，他听到观众大声疾呼告诉Mutai继续跑（continue），但Mutai不会说西班牙语，听不懂（understand）这些呼喊。
48. B 见上题解析。
49. D 意识到事情的原委后, Ivan做出了一个令人惊讶的（surprising）决定。
50. B 他没有趁机（taking advantage of）超越，而是放慢脚步，跟在后面，指引Mutai到达实际（actual）终点线。
51. C 见上题解析。
52. A “他才是真正的（rightful）冠军。”
53. D 尽管Ivan的行为没能让他赢得比赛，但却赢得了大家的赞赏（admiration）.
54. C Ivan展现公平（fairness）的行为告诉我们，真正的胜利不仅在于赢得比赛，还在于即使要付出个人代价，也要做（doing）正确的选择。
55. B 见上题解析。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了三江源国家公园的规模、位置以及它在中国自然保护系统中的重要性等。
56. unbelievably 考查词形转换。根据空后形容词amazing可知，此处需要一个副词来修饰amazing，因此填unbelievably.
57. the 考查冠词。the size of表示“……的大小”，为固定搭配。
58. to create 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，此处填非谓语动词；再结合句意和空前名词plan的用法及by2030可知，此处需要填动词不定式来表示目的。
59. that/which 考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知，该空引导一个限制性定语从句，且从句中缺少主语；先行词为a country,指物，故此处填关系代词that或which.
60. its 考查代词。从结构上讲，该词需修饰后面的名词短语forest parks, scenic areas and/ or nature reserves;从意义上说，该词指称的是China。因此，应将代词it变为属格形式，即形容词性物主代词its.
61. and/or 考查连词。分析空前后的名词短语之间的关系可知，此处需要用and连接前后的并列成分或用or.
62. managed 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，此处填非谓语动词；hundreds of protected areas与动词manage之间为被动关系，且有by引出施动者，故此处填过去分词作后置定语。
63. easier 考查形容词的比较级。根据空后and stronger可知，此处填easier.
64. began 考查动词时态。根据空后时间状语in 2015可知，此处谓语动词填过去式。
bining 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，这里需要一个现在分词作状语，表示伴随。
第一节
One possible version:
Changes in Spring Festival Celebrations
The way people celebrate the Spring Festival has evolved over time. In the past, families would gather to put up red couplets and set off fireworks to welcome the new year. Now, many people prefer grabbing digital red envelopes online or sending video New Year greetings.
This shift mirrors the advances in technology, which offers convenience and environmental benefits, while the essence of family unity and hope for the new year remains unchanged. Therefore, embracing these changes doesn’t mean abandoning tradition but finding new ways to keep our culture alive in a fast-paced world.
第二节
One possible version:
I struggled to push my head through the small opening, and shouted “Alexa!” As Alexa droned on, I squeezed my head back outside. Alexa had heard me! My interaction with Alexa up to this point had been limited to ordinary questions, such as “What’s the time ” “What is the capital of Montana ” or “How old is Jane Fonda ” Could Alexa send a text or call someone for me Please, let the answer be yes. I lifted up my chin as far as possible and shouted, “Alexa, call Jonathan!” “Did you say” Jonathan“ ” she replied. “Yes!” I shouted.
When I heard the phone ringing, I was filled with all the joy. Several minutes later, my husband finally answered the phone. “Honey,” I screamed, “don’t hang up. I’m locked out in the backyard!” Rushing to my aid, my husband drove home as fast as possible. Soon, I heard the blessed sound of the garage door opening and then saw him walking to the back door. He opened the door and offered me a cup of ice-cold water. I took a few sips, struggled to my feet, and shuffled further inside to collapse in a chair.

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