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七年级英语（外研版）
（试题卷）
注意事项：
1．本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2．请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
3．考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1．What did the boy’s mum do this morning
A． B． C．
2．What pet does Jill have
A． B． C．
3．Who did the girl go to the mountains with yesterday
A．Her friends. B．Her classmates. C．Her family.
4．Where did Lisa go on a trip
A．To the beach. B．To the forest. C．To the park.
5．How often does Sally play tennis
A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week.
Ⅱ．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6．When did the girl call the boy
A．At 9:00 am. B．At 9:30 am. C．At 3:30 pm.
7．What does the boy want to buy
A．Some milk. B．Some bread. C．Some fruit.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8．When does the conversation happen
A．In the morning. B．In the afternoon. C．In the evening.
9．What kind of books does the boy want to buy
A．A storybook. B．A picture book. C．A science book.
10．How old is the boy’s sister
A．8 years old. B．9 years old. C．10 years old.
Ⅲ．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11．What animal is from Russia
A．Lions. B．Tigers. C．Elephants.
12．How much is an adult ticket (门票)
A．10 dollars. B．6 dollars. C．Free.
13．Who can pay half price (价格) for a ticket
A．An adult. B．A child of 12 years old. C．A person with a student card.
14．What time does the zoo open
A．At 8:00 a. m. B．At 9:00 a. m. C．At 5:30 p. m.
15．How many rules must you follow at the zoo
A．One. B．Two. C．Four.
Ⅳ．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Grade 7 students are going 16 tomorrow!
How ·Many students will go by 17 . ·Henry will go there in his neighbor’s 18 .
Time to go Henry will leave at 19 a. m.
What Henry likes Henry loves being 20 near beautiful lakes and hills.
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
Ⅴ．单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21．—What’s wrong with Timmy’s leg
—He cycled round the corner and lost his ______ and fell off.
A．way B．power C．balance D．interest
22．—What do you think of DeepSeek
—It is really ______! I often use it to search for information.
A．fantastic B．mobile C．alive D．cultural
23．‘David’s grandparents started to learn English three years ago and now they can ______ themselves well in English.
A．tell B．talk C．speak D．express
24．My parents are busy with their work, so I have to ______ my little sister at home.
A．look at B．look forward to C．look for D．look after
25．Look! It’s raining ______ now. We can’t go for a picnic.
A．usually B．brightly C．quietly D．heavily
26．I didn’t go to bed ______ my mother came home last night. D．until
A．however B．because C．so
27．There happened a traffic accident (交通事故). The reporters set out ______ the truth just now.
A．finding B．find C．to find D．found
28．—Did Kate listen to the teacher in every class
—Yes, actually, of all the students, she listened ______.
A．the most careful B．more careful C．the most carefully D．more carefully
29．When Jane saw the snake in the grass, she ______ and ran away quickly.
A．is shouting B．shouts C．shouted D．will shout
30．—I think math is the most boring subject.
—______. Math is useful and interesting!
A．I don’t agree B．You’re welcome C．That’s a good idea D．I’m sorry to hear that
Ⅵ．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Hello, everyone! I’m Lily. I’m a student in Grade 7. I think it’s very important to keep fit. So I have some good habits to help me stay healthy.
First, I eat 31 every day. I like vegetables and fruit because they are good for my 32 . I also drink a lot of water. I don’t eat junk food because it’s not healthy. I think it’s important to have a 33 diet.
Second, I exercise every morning. I usually 34 for about 20 minutes. It helps me keep fit and feel 35 . I also like playing basketball with my friends after school. I think 36 is very important for our health.
Third, I have good sleeping habits. I go to bed early and get up early. I sleep for about 8 hours every night. It helps me stay 37 and study better. I also try to 38 before I go to bed. I think it helps me sleep better.
Finally, I always try to stay positive. I think being happy is also important for our health. I often talk to my friends and family when I feel 39 . I believe that a happy heart is a healthy heart.
I think these habits are very important for my health. I hope you can also have a healthy lifestyle. Remember, keeping fit is not just about our bodies, but also about our 40 .
31．A．vegetables B．candy C．ice cream D．snacks
32．A．family B．sports C．school D．health
33．A．healthy B．busy C．strict D．simple
34．A．sleep B．run C．study D．work
35．A．tired B．hungry C．happy D．busy
36．A．exercise B．food C．sleep D．study
37．A．sad B．lazy C．active D．quiet
38．A．clean B．watch TV C．play games D．read
39．A．interested B．excited C．angry D．relaxed
40．A．minds B．bodies C．habits D．lifestyle
B
Children need free time to find their own interests, be with friends or just relax. Parents 41 to know more about their kids. So if parents and their kids can find free time activities to enjoy 42 , it’ll be useful to them.
How children spend free time
All children are different. But many like to spend their free time doing things like shopping, going to the park, playing games or other 43 activities. Children also like to 44 their free time through after-school activities. Most children join in after-school activities 45 arts and sports.
Free time with parents
Children always like spending their 46 time with their parents. Parents are very happy when they can spend their free time with their 47 . They also think it’s a great 48 to know about each other. Usually the mothers like seeing a movie or doing shopping with their kids in their free time, while the fathers like going to football games or other sports games.
Sometimes children just want to spend time by themselves. Maybe they just 49 something. Parents should 50 children enough free time, and children should learn to balance the time spent with friends and family.
41．A．forget B．try C．help D．happen
42．A．easily B．differently C．together D．quickly
43．A．online B．full C．boring D．difficult
44．A．take B．prove C．put D．enjoy
45．A．such as B．thanks to C．because of D．more than
46．A．busy B．lonely C．free D．blue
47．A．kids B．friends C．teachers D．partners
48．A．problem B．mind C．way D．programme
49．A．look after B．think about C．put up D．find out
50．A．give B．read C．stay D．treat
Ⅶ．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Dave, let’s go to the zoo this afternoon.
B: 51 I love animals very much.
A: 52
B: I like many kinds of animals, such as lions, tigers and pandas. But my favorites are elephants.
A: 53
B: Because they are very smart. They can dance and draw. What animals do you like best
A: I like koalas best. They look very cute.
B: Linda, the zoo is a little far from my home. I need to go there by bus. 54
A: My home is near. 55 Let’s meet outside the zoo gate (门口).
B: OK. See you.
A．Good idea.
B．I can ride here.
C．What about you
D．I don’t like them.
E．Because they can run fast.
F．What are your favorite animals
G．Why do you like them best
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Helen is in a hospital with Ms Smith.
“I can’t be too fat. What can I do, Ms Smith ” Helen says.
“Here is my advice. You can read and do it like this,” Ms Smith says.
Name: Helen King Age: 12 Time: Food: 7:00-8:00 Have milk, eggs, bread or rice for breakfast. 10:00 Have some fruit. 12:00-13:00 Have vegetables (carrots, beans, tomatoes), meat and juice for lunch. 18:00-19:00 Have noodles (fish, beef or chicken) for dinner. Remember: 1．Drink lots of water but not coffee or cola every day. 2．No cold food; swim or play tennis every day.
Helen wants to be healthy, so she must follow the advice.
56．Why is Helen in a hospital
A．Because she is too fat. B．Because she is ill.
C．Because she works in the hospital. D．Because she lives in the hospital.
57．What can be Helen’s breakfast
A． B． C． D．
58．What can’t Helen eat or drink from the passage
A．Water or eggs. B．Vegetables or meat. C．Noodles. D．Coffee, cola or cold food.
B
How do you know about the weather in this week Is it rainy, cloudy, windy, sunny… Do you know it by listening to the radio, by using the Internet or by watching TV We can know it by watching some animals too. They can know the change of the weather easily and do something to prepare for the bad weather.
It is easy for bees (蜜蜂) to know the change of the weather in a short time because they can “talk” to others by dancing and a lot of bees can live very well with each other. But do you know why bees don’t go out on rainy days Because they may get hurt (受伤) in the rain. So now you may know this saying well, “If bees fly away, fine will be the day.”
We can also know the coming up of the rain by other animals. It’s really interesting, isn’t it Learn more and know more from now on.
59．How does the writer begin the text
A．With a story. B．With a song. C．With some questions. D．With some numbers.
60．How can bees predict (预测) rainy weather
A．By listening to the radio. B．By flying away before the rain comes.
C．By dancing to communicate with each other. D．By watching TV for weather reports.
61．What does the underlined word “They” refer to
A．People. B．Animals. C．Bees. D．Parents.
62．Why is it easy for bees to know about the weather
A．Because they love dancing with each other. B．Because they love living with other animals.
C．Because they can “talk” and live with each other. D．Because they don’t want to get hurt in the wind.
C
When you get up, you see a lot of fish out of the window (窗子). What’s going on Are you having a dream No. You’re in an underwater hotel in Sweden.
The hotel’s name is Utter Inn. It’s in the center of a lake. The hotel isn’t big. Its bedroom is 3 meters under the water. People can climb down to the room by ladder (梯子).
The bedroom is small with just two beds and a table. But the room has windows on all sides (面), so people can see fish swimming around them. Above the water, there’s a bathroom. Out of the bathroom, there’s a table and chairs. People can sit on the chair to enjoy the sunshine or do some fishing.
The hotel gives people water, juice, coffee and tea for free. People can also get a small boat from the hotel to visit places near the hotel.
Swedish artist Mikael Genberg made the hotel. He hopes people can enjoy life under the water. The hotel is only open in the summer months, from June to August. The price of staying in the hotel is $386 a night.
63．What can’t you see in the bedroom of Utter Inn
A．A table. B．A bed. C．A window. D．A chair.
64．How much will you pay if you live in the hotel for two nights
A．$286. B．$386. C．$586. D．$772.
65．What’s the best title for the passage
A．An underwater hotel in Sweden B．How to live in the underwater hotel
C．When to visit the underwater hotel D．A hotel that you can see fish swimming
D
The Great Wall is a very special and famous wall. It is very, very long and goes across North China. It is more than 20,000 kilometres long! That’s a distance for a car to run for many days! It was built many, many years ago to keep enemies (敌人) away.
The Great Wall is made of big stones and bricks, and some parts are very high and steep. It goes through mountains, valleys, deserts and grasslands. You can imagine how hard it was for the people to build it! One of the most famous sections of the Great Wall is the Badaling section. This part of the wall was rebuilt during the Ming dynasty and is famous for its well-preserved state and solid forts (堡垒).Visitors can walk along its ramparts (防御土墙), feeling the stones and bricks under their feet and imagining the soldiers (士兵) who once stood guard here.
Today, the Great Wall is a very popular place for tourists to visit. People from all over the world come to see it to learn about its history. They walk on the wall, take photos and enjoy the beautiful view.
In short, the Great Wall of China is a special place that tells us a lot about China’s history and culture. If you ever visit China, don’t forget to pay a visit to it.
66．How long is the Great Wall
A．Less than 10,000 kilometres. B．Over 20,000 kilometres.
C．Less than 20,000 kilometres. D．Exactly 20,000 kilometres.
67．The Badaling section of the Great Wall is famous for ______.
A．its steep slopes B．being the longest section
C．its well-preserved state and solid forts D．being the oldest section
68．What can visitors do when they visit the Great Wall
(1) walk on the wall (2) build it with bricks (3) learn about its history
(4) drive cars on it (5) take photos
A．(2)(4)(5) B．(1)(3)(5) C．(1)(2)(5) D．(3)(4)(5)
69．What does the text mainly talk about
A．The Great Wall is a symbol of China’s history and culture.
B．The Great Wall was built to keep enemies away.
C．The Great Wall is a long wall in China.
D．The Great Wall is a popular place for taking photos.
E
Going green seems to be a fashion for a lot of people these days, but for the two of us, going green is not a fashion but a lifestyle.
On April 22, 2019, we started our plan to go green every day for a year. This meant doing 365 different green things. For example, we reused water and cut down the use of our energy. Also, we had to think of something different to do and this was not easy.
With the idea of going green every single day for a year, Our Green Year started. My wife and I taught people how they could go green in their lives. We hoped we could show people all the green things that we could do to make the environment better.
During Our Green Year, we completely changed our lifestyles. We now shop at organic (有机的) stores. We eat less meat, choosing green food. We greatly cut down our buying. We give away half of what we have on the Internet. We clean our home with vinegar (醋) and lemon juice instead of chemical cleaners. We make our own butter, enjoying the smell of home-made bread.
We changed a lot during Our Green Year. We are thankful for the chance to be able to go green and teach others. We believe that we do have the power to change things and help our planet.
70．Why was it hard for the writer and his wife to live a green life for the whole year
A．Because they needed to do something green and unusual.
B．Because they didn’t know how to teach other people.
C．Because they would not like to cut down their use of energy.
D．Because they wanted to follow the green fashion.
71．What did the writer and his wife do during the Green Year
A．They stopped others’ green behavior (行为).
B．They tried to stop their ungreen (非绿色的) habits.
C．They used better chemical cleaners.
D．They sold their home-made food.
72．What can we learn from the last paragraph
A．The government will give support to the green project.
B．Some people disagree with the writer’s green ideas.
C．Our Green Year is becoming a national fashion.
D．The writer may continue his lifestyle in the future.
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
F
During the Warring States Period, there was a man called Lu Ban. He was known as the best carpenter (木匠) then. It was said that he made a bird of wood. It was so lifelike that it flew in the sky for three days.
One day, a young carpenter came to a house which had a big red door. He held up his ax (斧) and said, “I am a great carpenter. No matter what kind of wood it is, I can make it into anything.” Hearing this, people around him all laughed. “This young carpenter talks big now,” they thought. One of them pointed to the big red door behind him and said, “Young man, can you make a better door than this one ” The young carpenter raised his head high to show his confidence. Then he said, “No problem! I used to be a student of Lu Ban.” The crowd laughed again. Someone said, “This is Lu Ban’s home. He makes this door himself.” The young carpenter’s face turned red and he ran away quickly.
Thus came the proverb “Ban Men Nong Fu”. It said showing off slight skills in front of an expert.
73．What material does Lu Ban use to make a bird （不超过5个词）
74．Why do people laugh when the young carpenter says he can make wood into anything （不超过10个词）
75．What does the proverb “Ban Men Nong Fu” mean （不超过15个词）
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
Ⅸ．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76．Frank felt happy about visiting a______ (古代的) buildings in China.
77．I sent an email to my English teacher, but he didn’t r______ (回复).
78．The green leaves start to turn g______ (金色的), and then brown in autumn.
79．I checked the school lunch m______ (菜单) and saw that pizza was today’s special.
80．Many c______ (顾客) come to the restaurant for dinner every day.
Ⅹ．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
为鼓励同学们养成健康的生活方式，某国际学校计划发起健康生活倡议。请你根据提示，写一份英文倡议书。
注意：1．词数60左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）；
2．包含以上必要的信息点，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3．不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Hello, everyone! As we all know, _____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ．1～5 CBCBB
Ⅱ．6～10 BCCAB
Ⅲ．11～15 BACBB
Ⅳ．16．camping 17．bus 18．car 19．8/ eight 20．outside
评分标准：1～20题每小题1分。16～20中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
第二部分 英语知识运用
Ⅴ．21～25 CADDD 26～30 DCCCA
评分标准：21～30题，每小题1分。
Ⅵ．31～35 ADABC 36～40 ACDCA 41～45 BCADA 46～50 CACBA
评分标准：31～50题，每小题1分。
Ⅶ．51～55 AFGCB
评分标准：51～55题，每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读
Ⅷ．56～58 ACD 59～62 CCBC 63～65 DDA 66～69 BCBA 70～72 ABD
73．Wood.
74．Because (they know) this young carpenter talks big.
75．It means showing off slight skills in front of an expert.
评分标准：56～75题，每小题2分。（73～75意思对即可）
第四部分 写
76．ancient 77．reply 78．golden 79．menu 80．customers
评分标准：76～80题，每小题1分。
Ⅹ．【范文】One possible version:
Hello, everyone! As we all know, a healthy lifestyle is of great importance to us. It not only helps us stay in good physical condition but also enables us to study and live more efficiently. So, how can we develop a healthy lifestyle
Firstly, regular exercise is important. We can choose activities we like, such as running or playing basketball. Secondly, a balanced diet matters a lot. We should eat a variety of foods, including fruits, vegetables and proteins. Thirdly, we need to get enough sleep. Going to bed early and getting up early is a good habit. Moreover, we should also try to stay happy. Owning a pet you like, listening to music, and reading books are all great ways to maintain a good mood. After all, a good mood is beneficial to our health.
Let’s take action now and start living a healthy life!
听力部分录音文字稿
Ⅰ．短对话理解
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1．M: Did you water flowers in the garden this morning, Mum
W: No. I went to the supermarket and did some shopping.
2．M: Nick has a pet dog. What about you, Jill
W: My pet is really cute. It’s a rabbit. Now it’s one year old.
3．M: What did you do yesterday
W: I went to the mountains with my family.
4．M: Hey, Lisa! How was your trip to the forest
W: Wonderful. We saw many plants and animals there.
5．M: Do you like to play tennis, Sally
W: Yes. I play it on Tuesday and Friday.
Ⅱ．长对话理解
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。
W: Hey, Frank. I called you at 9:30 am, but you didn’t answer.
M: Sorry, Helen. I was in the library this morning.
W: That’s OK. I want to go to the supermarket this afternoon. Will you join me
M: Sure. I’d like to buy some fruit.
W: Well. Let’s meet in front of your house at 3:30 pm.
M: OK.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
W: Good evening! What can I do for you
M: Yes, please. I want to buy a book for my little sister. Her birthday is on Thursday.
W: OK. What kind of books does your sister like
M: She likes stories.
W: OK. How old is she
M: She is nine years old.
W: OK, these books are for children from eight to ten.
Ⅲ．短文理解
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Dear tourists,
Welcome to Happy Zoo. You can see all kinds of animals like elephants from Thailand, tigers from Russia and snakes from India. And lovely pandas from China and koalas from Australia are waiting for you. The adult ticket is 10 dollars. The ticket for children aged 12 and over is 6 dollars. If you take your student card, you can have a ticket at half price. It is free for children under 12. The opening hours are from 9:00 a. m. to 5:30 p. m. During the tour, please keep the zoo clean. And don’t touch or feed the animals. Thanks for listening. Have a good trip!
Ⅳ．信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
The students in Grade 7 are going camping tomorrow. Many of them will go there by bus but Henry will not. His neighbor Ricky will drive him there. Henry will leave at eight o’clock. It will take them about an hour to get to the place. Henry loves being outside near beautiful lakes and hills. Henry’s best friend John is not brave enough to go camping. “Don’t worry”, said Henry. “I’ll take care of you. I’m sure we’ll have a good time.”
试题解析
21．C 考查名词辨析。句意：——蒂米的腿怎么了？——他骑车拐了个弯，失去平衡摔了下来。way方式；power权力；balance平衡；interest兴趣。根据“lost his… and fell off”可知，这里指的是骑车时失去了平衡，摔了下来。故选C。
22．A 考查形容词辨析。句意：—你觉得DeepSeek怎么样？—它真的很棒！我经常用它来搜索信息。fantastic极好的；mobile移动的；alive 活着的；cultural文化的。根据“I often use it to search for information.”可知，DeepSeek很棒。故选A。
23．D 考查动词辨析。句意：大卫的祖父母三年前开始学习英语，现在他们能用英语很好地表达自己。tell告诉；talk谈话；speak说话；express 表达。根据“David’s grandparents started to learn English three years ago”可推知，此处是说David的祖父母经过三年的英语学习，现在能用英语很好地表达自己的想法，express“表达”符合题意。故选D。
24．D 考查动词短语辨析。句意：我的父母亲忙于他们的工作，因此我必须在家照顾我的小妹妹。look at看；look forward to期待；look for寻找；look after照顾。根据句意可知，父母亲忙于工作所以“我”要照顾妹妹，look after“照顾”妹妹符合语境。故选D。
25．D 考查副词辨析。句意：看！现在雨下得很大。我们不能去野餐了。usually通常，表示习惯性的频率；brightly明亮地；quietly安静地；heavily大量地、猛烈地，常用来描述雨、雪等天气的强度。根据“We can’t go for a picnic ”及语境可知，此处描述雨势较大，heavily符合句意。故选D。
26．D 考查连词辨析。句意：昨天晚上直到我的妈妈回家了，我才上床睡觉。however无论怎样，because因为，so所以，until直到。not…until… 直到……才……，是固定搭配。故选D。
27．C 考查动词短语。句意：发生了一起交通事故。记者们刚刚出发去查明真相。根据“set out… the truth just now.”可知，“set out to do sth.”出发去做某事，后接动词不定式。故选C。
28．C 考查副词最高级。句意：——凯特每节课都认真听讲吗？——是的，事实上，她是所有学生中听得最认真的。根据“of all the students”可知是比较范围是所有学生，需要最高级，且修饰动词用副词，空处需用最高级the most carefully。故选C。
29．C 考查时态。句意：当Jane看到草丛中的蛇时，她大喊一声并迅速跑开了。根据“ran”可知，句子描述的是过去发生的动作，时态应为一般过去时。故选C。
30．A 考查情景交际。句意：——我认为数学是最无聊的科目。——我不同意。数学既有用又有趣！根据“I think math is the most boring subject”和“Math is useful and interesting!”可知，后者不同意他的看法，故选A。
31．A 考查名词辨析。句意：首先，我每天吃蔬菜。vegetables蔬菜；candy糖果；ice cream冰激凌；snacks小吃，零食。根据“I like vegetables”可知，作者喜欢蔬菜，因此每天吃蔬菜。故选A。
32．D 考查名词辨析。句意：我喜欢蔬菜和水果，因为它们对健康有益处。family家庭；sports运动；school学校；health健康。根据“they are good for my…”可知，表示“蔬菜和水果对健康有益处”。故选D。
33．A 考查形容词辨析。句意：我认为拥有一个健康的饮食习惯很重要。healthy健康的；busy忙碌的；strict严格的；simple简单的。固定搭配a healthy diet“健康饮食”，强调饮食结构合理。故选A。
34．B 考查动词辨析。句意：我经常跑步20分钟。run跑步。故选B。
35．C 考查形容词辨析。句意：它帮助我保持健康和快乐。tired疲倦的；hungry饥饿的；happy开心的；busy忙碌的。根据语境可知，此处表示运动的好处，因此运动后让人开心, happy符合语境。故选C。
36．A 考查名词辨析。句意：我认为锻炼对健康很重要。exercise锻炼；food食物；sleep睡眠；study学习。前文强调运动的重要性。故选A。
37．C 考查形容词辨析。句意：它使我保持活力，学习更好。sad难过的；lazy懒惰的；active积极的，活跃的；quiet安静的。根据“I sleep for about 8 hours every night.”可知，作者每晚睡8个小时；推测可知睡眠可以让作者保持积极的状态，active符合语境。故选C。
38．D 考查情境理解。句意：我同样在睡前阅读。clean打扫；watch TV看电视；play games玩游戏；read读书。根据“it helps me sleep better”可知，上文提到的活动有助于睡眠；根据常识可知，睡前阅读有助于睡眠。故选D。
39．C 考查形容词辨析。句意：当我感到生气的时候，我会与家人朋友倾诉。interested感兴趣的；excited激动的；angry生气的；relaxed放松的。根据“I often talk to…”和语境可知，此处是指负面的情绪，angry符合语境。故选C。
40．A 考查名词辨析。句意：记住，保持健康不仅是身体健康，还包括心理健康。mind心理；body身体；habits习惯；lifestyle生活方式。根据“keeping fit is not just about our body, but also about our…”可知，健康不仅是身体，还包括心理。故选A。
41．B 考查动词辨析。句意：父母试图更多地了解他们的孩子。forget忘记；try尝试；help帮助；happen发生。根据“Parents… to know more about their kids.”可知，此处是指父母试图更多地了解他们的孩子，try to do sth意为“试图做某事”，符合语境。故选B。
42．C 考查副词辨析。句意：因此，如果父母和他们的孩子能找到空闲时间一起享受活动，这对他们来说会很有用。easily容易地；differently不同地；together一起；quickly迅速地。根据“So if parents and their kids can find free time activities to enjoy…”和“it’ll be useful to them”可知，此处指一起享受活动。故选C。
43．A 考查形容词辨析。句意：但许多人喜欢把空闲时间花在购物、去公园、玩游戏或其他在线活动上。online在线的；full满的；boring无聊的；difficult困难的。根据“shopping, going to the park, playing games or other… activities.”可知，此处把孩子们的活动分成两大类，一类是购物、去公园、玩游戏等线下活动，一类是其他的线上活动。故选A。
44．D 考查动词辨析。句意：孩子们也喜欢通过课外活动来享受他们的空闲时间。take带走；prove证明；put放；enjoy享受。根据“Children also like to… their free time through after school activities.”可知，此处指享受他们的空闲时间，enjoy符合语境。故选D。
45．A 考查短语辨析。句意：大多数孩子参加课外活动，如艺术和体育。such as例如；thanks to多亏；because of因为；more than超过。根据“after school activities”和“arts and sports”可知，此处举例说明课外活动。故选A。
46．C 考查形容词辨析。句意：孩子们总是喜欢和他们的父母一起度过空闲时间。busy繁忙的；lonely孤独的；free空闲的；blue蓝色的。根据“Children always like spending their…time with their parents.”可知，此处指度过空闲时间。故选C。
47．A 考查名词辨析。句意：当父母可以和孩子一起度过空闲时间时，他们非常高兴。kids孩子；friends朋友；teachers老师；partners搭档。根据“Parents are very happy”和“they can spend their free time with their…”可知，此处指父母可以和孩子一起度过空闲时间。故选A。
48．C 考查名词辨析。句意：他们也认为这是一个了解彼此的好方法。problem问题；mind头脑；way方式；programme节目。根据“They also think it’s a great… to know about each other.”可知，此处指这是一个了解彼此的好方法。故选C。
49．B 考查动词短语辨析。句意：也许他们只是在想什么。look after照顾；think about考虑；put up张贴；find out找出。根据“Sometimes children just want to spend time by themselves.”可知，有时，孩子们只想独处，应是自己思考事情。故选B。
50．A 考查动词辨析。句意：父母应该给孩子足够的空闲时间，孩子应该学会平衡与朋友和家人相处的时间。give给；read读；stay停留；treat对待。根据“Parents should… children enough free time”可知，此处指父母应该给孩子足够的空闲时间。故选A。
56．A 细节理解题。根据“Helen is in a hospital with Ms Smith.”和“I can’t be too fat. What can I do, Ms Smith ”可知，Helen在医院是因为她担心自己太胖。故选A。
57．C 细节理解题。根据“7:00-8:00 Have milk, eggs, bread or rice for breakfast.”可知，Helen的早餐可以是牛奶、鸡蛋、面包或米饭。图片3显示的是牛奶，符合早餐的内容。故选C。
58．D 细节理解题。根据“Remember: 1．Drink lots of water but not coffee or cola every day. 2．No cold food；swim or play tennis every day.”可知，Helen不能喝咖啡、可乐或吃冷食。故选D。
59．C 细节理解题。根据“How do you know about the weather in this week… by using the Internet or by watching TV ”可知，本文以一些问题开头。故选C。
60．C 细节理解题。文章提到蜜蜂通过跳舞（dancing）互相交流，从而感知天气变化（第二段第一句）。选项A、D（收音机、电视）是人类获取天气的方式，与蜜蜂无关。选项B部分正确，但文章强调的是蜜蜂通过行为（跳舞）预知天气后躲避，而非直接“飞走”预测。故选C。
61．B 词句猜测题。根据“We can know it by watching some animals too.”可知，观察动物可以很容易知道天气的变化，因此划线词指的是前文提到的“动物”。故选B。
62．C 细节理解题。根据“It is easy for bees (蜜蜂) to know the change of the weather in a short time because they can ‘talk’ to others by dancing and a lot of bees can live very well with each other.”可知，蜜蜂很容易在短时间内知道天气的变化，因为它们可以通过跳舞和别人“交谈”，并能通过群体和谐生活预知天气。故选C。
63．D 判断理解题。由第三段第一二两句“The bedroom is small with just two beds and a table. But the room has windows on all sides.”可知，在Utter Inn，能看到两张床和一个桌子，墙的所有面都有窗子，没有提到Utter Inn的卧室有椅子。故选D。
64．D 数字计算题。由最后一段尾句“The cost of staying in the hotel is $386 a night.”可知，住在这个酒店一晚的花费是386美元，两个晚上则是：386×2=772美元。故选D。
65．A 标题概括题。全文主要介绍瑞典的这家水下酒店。故选A。
66．B 细节理解题。根据“It is more than 20,000 kilometres long”可知，长城长度超过20,000千米，more than 与over意思相近。故选B。
67．C 细节理解题。根据“This part of the wall was rebuilt during the Ming dynasty and is famous for its well-preserved state and solid forts”可知，八达岭段长城因保存完好的状态和坚固的堡垒而闻名。故选C。
68．B 细节理解题。根据“People from all over the world come to see it to learn about its history. They walk on the wall, take photos and enjoy the beautiful view”可知，对应（1）在长城上行走、（3）了解其历史、（5）拍照。故选B。
69．A 主旨大意题。通读原文可知，文章围绕长城展开，介绍其多方面信息后，说明长城是中国历史和文化的象征，A选项符合主旨。故选A。
70．A 细节理解题。根据“This meant doing 365 different green things.”和“Also, we had to think of something different to do and this was not easy.”可知作者在“绿色年”期间要做365件不同的有利于环境的事，不得不考虑做一些不同的事，这是不容易的，故选A。
71．B 推理判断题。根据“During Our Green Year, we completely changed our lifestyles. We now shop at organic stores… We make our own butter, enjoying the smell of home-made bread. In our home office, anyone doing something ungreen may be punished”可知作者和他的妻子在“绿色年”期间在有机商店购物，少吃肉，选择绿色食物，削减购买，不使用化学清洁剂，自己做面包，所以判断在这期间，作者和妻子尽量停止他们的不绿色习惯，故选B。
72．D 推理判断题。根据“We believe that we do have the power to change things and help our planet”可以推断作者在将来可能继续他的绿色生活方式，故选D。

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