资源简介 2024-2025学年庆阳市镇原一中高一第二学期期中考试英语试题时间:120分钟 分值:150分注意事项:1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.What is the man doing A.Giving advice. B.Asking for help. C.Expressing his thanks.2.What are the two speakers talking about A.A garden. B.An apartment. C.A university.3.When will the man pick up the woman A.At 6:00 pm. B.At 6:30 pm. C.At 7:00 pm.4.What is the main topic of the conversation A.Keeping pets. B.Cleaning the dogs. C.Running a company.5.Why did the woman go to Matt’s shop A.For its cats. B.For its coffee. C.For its books.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料,回答第 6 、7题。6.How will the man arrive at the railway station A.By car. B.On foot. C.By subway.7.What’s the relationship between the speakers A.Colleagues. B.Strangers. C.Classmates.听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。8.What are the speakers mainly talking about A.Making a holiday plan. B.Putting on a performance. C.Buying tickets to the theater.9.What will the man do next A.Make a call. B.Search the Internet. C.Check his timetable.听第8段材料,回答第 10至12题。10.Where does the boy usually swim A.In a university pool. B.In the sea. C.In a pool in the park.11.Why does the girl like swimming A.It’s fun. B.It’s good exercise. C.It’s her training course.12.What will the speakers probably do this weekend A.Play beach volleyball. B.Play indoor volleyball. C.Go swimming in the pool.听第9段材料,回答第13至第16题。13.What does the woman do A.A nurse. B.A doctor. C.A teacher.14.Why did the woman get the prize A.She often helped the elders in trouble. B.Her work in teaching was very excellent.C.She often helped children with disabilities.15.How long does the woman stay in the hospital every day A.About two hours. B.About an hour. C.About an hour and a half.16.Why does the woman choose to be a volunteer A.She likes to help nurses out of trouble. B.She likes to make children happy.C.She just wants to experience different work.听第10段独白,回答第17至第20题。17.When did coffee spread globally according to a tale A.By the ninth century. B.By the fifteenth century. C.By the seventeenth century.18.What did Kaldi find about coffee beans A.They smelt good. B.They had him energetic. C.They made his sheep wide awake.19.Who first made coffee beans into a hot drink A.A farmer. B.A leader. C.A chef.20.Where did coffee shops first appear A.In Yemen. B.In Britain. C.In America.第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。ASea Turtle Conservation AmbassadorSea turtles are endangered globally, and several species in the eastern Pacific are nearing extinction. Volunteers are crucial for preserving the sea turtle species on Costa Rica’s Pacific coast,Our program is officially certified, so we must follow established guidelines to ensure its proper functioning.1. Respect schedule work.2. Avoid any activities that impair your ability to work or follow the rules while in the camp and the nursery or during work hours. You will have days off to enjoy as you wish.3. Respect the rest times in the camp.4. Respect the staff and the other volunteers.5. Anyone who is not in a fit state to work will be prevented from entering the camp.Turtle seasonMums laying eggs — June, July, August, September, October, and NovemberBaby turtles hatching-August, September, October, November, December, and January.Volunteer obligations turtle seasonBeach cleaning, maintenance of the hatchery, turtle patrolling, hatchery care shifts, and wildlife monitoring.Time commitmentFrom Monday to SaturdayDaily task9:30 am — 11:00 am, 3:00 pm — 5:00 pmCleaning the camp is the task of the volunteers, so our camp coordinator will assign them tasks to carry out in the camp to keep it clean and tidy.Free-time activitiesVolunteers can expect between 3 and 6 hours of work per day 6 days per week. This leaves plenty of time to explore the beautiful country of Costa Rica and experience all of the activities it has to offer.There is a surfing school down the road from the conservation that offers surf lessons and rentals Beach horseback riding is available just minutes from the site location.21. What is forbidden to do in the camp A. Drinking alcohol. B. Eating on the beach.C. Having days off. D. Chatting with the staff.22. Which of the following is a volunteer’s working time A. 10:00 pm, Friday. B. 9:00 am, Monday.C. 10:00 am, Sunday. D. 4:00 pm, Saturday.23. What free-time activity is available just minutes from the conservation site A. Mountain climbing. B. Beach horseback riding.C. Surfing on the sea beach. D. Learning diving at a surfing school.BNilas Corneliussen feels worried when a city turns quiet at night. “I much prefer to be in a dynamic city that never sleeps, and Bangkok gives me that,” said the Swedish-born chef of a Nordic-Asian restaurant in Thailand’s capital.While Thailand had long appealed to him, Corneliussen says he never imagined a career in cooking. Instead, he was drawn to Muay Thai (泰拳), or Thai boxing. On high school breaks, he even traveled solo to Thailand to join Muay Thai training camps. After sustaining a hand injury while boxing, he was forced to give up Muay Thai. However, he didn’t stop thinking about Thailand.The very day after graduating from high school in Sweden, Corneliussen booked a one-way ticket to Bangkok and applied for a study visa. It wasn’t until halfway through his studies that he was inspired by a fellow student and friend who ran small Thai restaurants. However, there was something inside of him that was drawn to culinary arts. “The atmosphere inside the kitchen fascinated me-everyone has to work together to make it happen.” Corneliussen recalled.At the time, the chef didn’t think he could pursue his new passion for cooking in Thailand. Instead, he thought it would be best to go back to his roots and understand the flavors he’d grown up with before cooking anything else, so he finished his studies and moved back to Sweden. Starting out in a restaurant in Stockholm, he practised his skills. In 2019, he won the silver in the Bocuse d’Or, a world-famous international cooking competition, as part of the Swedish team.Despite those successes, he knew he wanted to return to Asia to achieve his dream of culinary arts. In 2022, Corneliussen made the move to a high-end restaurant, which opened the same year, and where he showcased casual Nordic food with Asian influences.“In Thailand, I get this feeling of belonging and connection to the people, food and culture,” he said.24. What is presented in the first paragraph A. Corneliussen dislikes working at night. B. Corneliussen feels uneasy in a new city.C. Bangkok is home to Nordic restaurants. D. Bangkok gives Corneliussen the feeling he wants.25. What mainly made Corneliussen choose cooking as a career A. His injured hand. B. His inner passion.C. His friends’ support. D. His tiredness of study.26. How did Corneliussen improve his cooking skills A. By practising in his motherland. B. By improving diverse dishes in Thailand.C. By attending varieties of cooking competitions. D. By summarizing experience from other cooks.27. Why did Corneliussen decide to return to Asia A. To learn Muay Thai. B. To showcase Nordic food.C. To open a high-end restaurant. D. To achieve his dream of culinary arts.CIt's no secret that literature is powerful. For many of us, there have been times in our lives — a loved one's passing, our first heartbreak — that we couldn't have made it through without a few extraordinary books, poems, or perhaps even just a few words strung together. We knew the connective power of literature all along, but now there's science behind it.A number of studies have shown that poetry provides a number of benefits for patients suffering from long-term and life-threatening illnesses. A randomized clinical trial, which set out to “evaluate the effect of passive listening to music and poetry on the variation in pain, depression, and hope scores”of 75 adult patients, came back with fascinating results. Researchers discovered that music and poetry both lessened pain intensity and depression, but only poetry increased hope scores.After listening to poems, one participant said, “I feel calmer when I hear those words. Sadness passes. They are important words; they show me that I'm not alone.”What is it about those words that gives them the power to keep sadness away, and, moreover, to bring peace and comfort As reported in Nautilus,“Poetry has a structure, which is something we can experience with our bodies.”Researchers find that while poetry won't cure the disease, it can help patients deal with the pain, both physical and emotional, associated with the illness. Treatment is important, but what physicians tend to forget is that healing is equally crucial for successful recovery. And healing is not just a matter of the body, but one of the mind and spirit, too.In the context of terminal illness, communication between patient and physician extends beyond mere descriptions of physical pain, and transcends to more personal, and even more difficult to express conditions, such as mood, morale, and tiredness. Through poetry, doctors are able to better understand the mental state of their patients and as a result, better aid patients in the healing or treatment process.28. What did the clinical trial's researchers find A. Music proved ineffective in easing patients' pain.B. Music raised patients' hopes of a speedy recovery.C. Poetry could help cure severe diseases.D. Poetry helped to relieve pain and depression and give hope.29. What did one participant's words show A. Poems often bore hidden meanings.B. Poems should be experienced first-hand.C. Poems had a surprisingly calming influence.D. Poems played a connective role among patients.30. What can be inferred from the last two paragraphs A. Patients' spirit matters the most in the healing process.B. Poetry enables doctors to connect with patients emotionally.C. Poetry can serve as an immediate treatment for most diseases.D. Patients' self-experimentation for a cure should be encouraged.31. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage A. To introduce the latest scientific research methods in medical treatment.B. To prove that literature is more effective than medical treatment for patients.C. To emphasize the therapeutic power of poetry for patients.D. To encourage doctors to use more literature works in their daily treatment.DWhen we encounter a troublesome problem, we often gather a group to brainstorm. However, substantial evidence has shown that when we generate ideas together, we fail to maximize collective intelligence.To unearth the hidden potential in teams, we’re better off shifting to a process called “brainwriting”. You start by asking group members to write down what is going on in their brains separately. Next, you pool them and share them among the group without telling the authors. Then, each member evaluates them on his or her own, only after which do the team members come together to select and improve the most promising options. By developing and assessing ideas individually before choosing and expanding on them, the team can surface and advance possibilities that might not get attention otherwise.An example of great brainwriting was in 2010 when 33 miners were trapped underground in Chile. Given the emergency of the situation, the rescue team didn’t hold brainstorming sessions. Rather, they established a global brainwriting system to generate individual ideas. A 24-year-old engineer came up with a tiny plastic telephone. This specialized tool ended up becoming the only means of communicating with the miners, making it possible to save them.Research by organizational behavior scholar Anita Woolley and her colleagues helps to explain why this method works. They find that the key to collective intelligence is balanced participation. In brainstorming meetings, it’s too easy for participation to become one-sided in favor of the loudest voices. The brain writing process ensures that all ideas are brought to the table and all voices are brought into conversation. The goal isn’t to be the smartest person in the room. It’s to make the room smarter.Collective intelligence begins with individual creativity, but it doesn’t end there. Individuals produce a larger volume and variety of novel ideas when they work alone. That means they not only come up with more brilliant ideas than groups but also more terrible ideas. Therefore, it takes collective judgment to find the signal in the noise and bring out the best ideas.32. What is special about brain writing compared with brainstorming A. It highlights independent work. B . It encourages group cooperation.C . It prioritizes quality over quantity. D . It prefers writing to oral exchanges.33. Why does the author mention the Chile mining accident in paragraph 3 A. To introduce a tool developed during brain writingB. To praise a young man with brain writing technique.C. To illustrate a successful application of brain writing.D. To explain the role of brain writing in communication.34. How does brain writing promote collective intelligence according to paragraph 4 A. By blocking the loudest voices. B. By allowing equal involvement.C. By improving individual wisdom. D. By generating more creative ideas.35. Which step of brain writing does the author stress in the last paragraph A. Individual writing. B.Group sharing.C. Personal evaluation. D. Joint discussion.第二节: (共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。Learning a foreign language can feel like climbing Mount Everest — there’s so much work to be done, and no shortcuts to take. However, as it turns out, there are many ways to make language learning simpler and more pleasing. ____36____Take a language course. The first tip on our list is obvious — join a course as it will guide you through the foreign language relatively quickly.____37____ But in each case, it is important to ask around and choose a program that focuses on conversation.____38____ This must be everyone’s favorite language learning tip. There’s no better way to learn a foreign language than to visit a given country and talk with the locals.Learn the right words.____39____This is, of course, nearly impossible and you should try a different approach. For example, you can focus on learning a highly specific group of words.Use a language learning app. We mentioned several studying solutions that involve human interaction.____40____ Such platforms help you to learn individually and choose your own pace.A. Spend some time abroad.B. Hang out with native speakers.C. Every student is going through the same phase.D. However, you can also find many language learning mobile apps.E So let’s check out the list of some tips for learning a foreign language.F It can be a traditional classroom course or a modern version of online training.G. Too many students make a mistake of trying to learn a foreign language in its entirety.第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节,满分30分)第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。Every year I’d read over 2,000 college applications from students all over the world. It is quite ___41___ to choose whom to admit. ___42___, in the chaos of SAT scores and recommendations, one ___43___ is always irresistible in a candidate: kindness.The most surprising ___44___ of kindness I’ve ever ___45___ came from a student who had excellent scores and a supportive recommendation from his college counselor (顾问). Even with these qualifications, he might not have ___46___. But one letter of recommendation caught my eye. It was from a school security ___47___. Letters of recommendation are typically written by people like former presidents, celebrities, and Olympic athletes.The security guard wrote that he supported this student’s admission because of his ___48___. This young man was the only person in the school who knew the names of every member of the guard staff. He turned off lights in empty rooms, consistently ___49___ the hallway monitor each morning and tidied up the classroom after his peers left school ____50____ nobody was watching. This student, the security guard wrote, had a(n) ____51____ respect for every person at the school, regardless of position, popularity or power.It gave us a ____52____ onto a student’s life in the moments when nothing “counted”. That student was admitted by unanimous (一致的) vote of the admissions committee.Next year there might be a flood of security guard recommendations ____53____ this essay. But if it means students will start paying as much ____54____ to the people who clean their classrooms as they do to their principals and teachers, I’m happy to help start that ____55____.41. A. definite B. difficult C. delicate D. desperate42. A. However B. Otherwise C. Besides D. Therefore43. A. ability B. quality C. limitation D. assumption44. A. signal B. detector C. appearance D. indication45. A. come out B. picked up C. come across D. brought up46. A. stood up B. stood out C. given up D. given out47. A. guard B. teacher C. principal D. counselor48. A. wisdom B. bravery C. encouragement D. consideration49. A. bothered B. answered C. visited D. thanked50. A. as if B. now that C. even if D. so that51. A. weird B. accurate C. equal D. initial52. A. passion B. trouble C. method D. window53. A. due to B. in need of C. except for D. along with54. A. money B. notice C. attention D. curiosity55. A. policy B. trend C. arrangement D. career第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容或括号内单词的正确形式。May 21st this year marks the first International Tea Day, 56__________was named officially 57 the United Nations on November 27th, 2019. To celebrate the festival, a number of events took place at the Chinese Businessman Museum in Beijing on Thursday. The chairman of the China Culture Promotion Society58 (address) the opening ceremony. "As a main promoter of the International Tea Day, the birthplace of tea and the 59 (large) tea-producing country, China has a 60 (responsible) to work with other countries to promote the healthy development of the tea industry. It can help to build a community with a 61 (share) future for mankind," he said. The "First International Tea Day Tea Road Cooperative Initiative" issued(发布) at the ceremony calls for people working in the tea industry to come together to promote international cooperation 62 cultural exchanges. A four-year tea promotion—Tea Road Cooperative Plan—was also issued in accordance with the initiative. To strengthen the connection with young people, the event included a number of public 63____________ (activity)on social media, 64 (invite) twenty-nine tea professionals from around the world to have thirty-six hours of uninterrupted live broadcasts. The Chinese Ancient Tea Museum was officially unveiled(揭幕) at the ceremony, opening 65 (it) first exhibition: The Avenue of Truth—A Special Exhibition of Pu'er Tea.写作(共两节, 满分40分)第一节(满分15分)66.假定你是李华,你的笔友 Mike对中国的传统节日非常感兴趣,在端午节来临之际,他写信向你询问端午节的相关习俗。请你用英语写一封回信,向他介绍中国的端午节。要点包括:1.端午节是中国的重要传统节日之一;2.人们庆祝端午节是为了纪念中国伟大的诗人屈原;3.人们在端午节吃粽子、观看赛龙舟比赛;4.欢迎他来到中国。注意:1. 写作词数应为80左右;2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。3. 参考词汇:端午节(The Dragon Boat Festival),习俗(customs),纪念( in memory of),粽子( rice dumpling),赛龙舟( dragon boat races),庆祝( celebrate)Dear Mike,_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________第二节、读后续写(满分25分)67.阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。As the next school’s concert band took their places onstage, the stage lights in the music hall dimmed. a young man, the First Chair violinist (首席小提琴) , called upon each section to play, tuning them with precision and grace. The moment the musical director appeared, a wave of applause filled the air.The annual High School Music Festival was the highlight of my year. As a music teacher, I never missed a session, always amazed by the extraordinary talents the musical directors inspired in their students. But this year might be my last visit. With age catching up, my desire for retirement was growing stronger.Honestly, there was always a touch of dissatisfaction and envy in my heart as I watched these school bands, because I had never been able to develop a band to this level. I taught in a small primary school. My students played beginner music, and they were happy when we managed to play from the start all the way to the end of a piece, with all the instruments finishing together. The complexities of full tone, dynamic control, and balance were beyond their abilities.As the band opened with their first piece, the striking sound of violins, accompanied by the lively notes of pianos, set my heart pounding. Wouldn’t it be great to be the musical director for one of these massive high school bands I thought as the music transported me. When the last notes rang out, there was a brief silence before thunderous applause erupted. My aging eyes scanned the stage, seeking familiar faces among the performers. But my vision was no longer sharp enough to recognize anyone.During the tea break, I headed toward the entrance hall. “Miss Jones! ” a young man’s voice cut through the crowd. I recognized the concert uniform he was wearing. It was the very violinist I had been admiring. Puzzled, I searched his face for familiar features. It turned out to be Bradley, a former student of mine who was difficult to forget. Schoolwork had been hard for him, and he had struggled through all his subjects. It was a pleasant surprise to meet him here. We sat down and had a chat.注意:1.续写词数应为150左右;2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。I remembered the day when he asked to join the school band._______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________I was still smiling as I made my way back to the music hall._______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________答案1-5 CBAAA 6-10 CBCBA 11-15 ABCCB 16-20 BCCBA21-23 ADB24-27 DBAD28-31DCBC32-35 ACBD36-40 EFAGD41-45 BABDC 46-50 BADDC 51-55 CDACBwhich 57. by 58. addressed 59. largest 60. responsibilityshared 62. and 63.activities 64.inviting 65. its66略。67.I remembered the day when he asked to join the school band. I was initially hesitant, aware of his academic struggles and the complexity of the music we were rehearsing. Yet, the determined gleam in little Bradley’s eyes moved me. I agreed, tailoring parts of the music piece to let him shine without being overwhelmed. “It was you who set me on the music path,” Bradley spoke with gratitude. He then recounted his musical journey with the violin, from junior to senior high school, ultimately landing the lead role of First Chair in his school’s concert band. I listened attentively, amazed at the transformative power of music. As he returned to his band, a proud smile spread across my face.I was still smiling as I made my way back to the music hall. As I took my seat, my heart swelled with quiet pride in knowing the role I had played in a young man’s music journey. The lights dimmed again, and the stage came alive with the energy of young musicians. They began to play, each note resonating with the memory of the first tentative sounds my students had made under my guidance. As the final piece began, I closed my eyes, letting the music wash over me. The music hall, once a place of my longing and unfulfilled dreams, now echoed with a life well-spent in the service of art and education. 展开更多...... 收起↑ 资源列表 庆阳市镇原一中高一第二学期期中考试英语试题.docx 庆阳市镇原一中高一第二学期期中考试英语试题听力MP3.mp3