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2024～2025学年度第二学期高一年级期中考试
英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版必修第二册至必修第三册Unit 1。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
At what time will the speakers arrive in Seattle
A. 4:40 pm. B. 5:00 pm. C. 5:20 pm.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What do the speakers need to buy
A. Bacon. B. Tomatoes. C. Potatoes.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the woman unhappy with about the first skirt
A. Its color. B. Its price. C. Its material.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How does the man prefer to go to London
A. By train. B. By car. C. By plane.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does the man expect the woman to do together
A. Watch TV. B. Do homework. C. Go to the zoo.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. Where does the woman have to go
A. To the hospital. B. To the office. C. To the airport.
7. What is the most probable relationship between the speakers
A. Neighbors. B. Boss and secretary. C. Mother and son.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. What does the man ask the woman to do
A. Stay at home. B. Attend a party. C. Go for a ride.
9. What is the weather like
A. Snowy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
10. What will the woman take
A. Fruit. B. Candy. C. Books.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. Why does the man plan to do sports
A. To keep healthy. B. To lose weight. C. To complete a race.
12. What sport does the man decide to do
A. Basketball. B. Running. C. Swimming.
13. What will the man do tonight
A. Make a phone call. B. Help the woman. C. Visit Susan.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
14. What did the man do yesterday
A. He made a flight change. B. He booked a ticket. C. He studied.
15. Who will meet the man at the airport
A. His aunt. B. His parents. C. The woman.
16. What does the woman remind the man to do
A. Phone back. B. Take photos. C. Say goodbye.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. What does the speaker say about Science World
A. It has science events. B. It is an ordinary museum. C. It is not crowded at all.
18. When will the evening talk be held this week
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Saturday.
19. How much should an adult with a child pay for the museum entrance
A. 1.75 pounds. B. 5 pounds. C. 6.75 pounds.
20. What is the speaker doing
A. Hosting a program. B. Holding a meeting. C. Doing a survey.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Top Four Cities in Africa for a Great Vacation
Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
Getting around: Taxis are fine; walking is better.
Though Ethiopian food is familiar to a lot of people, on the streets of Addis, it’s all about coffee. Social life in Addis is built on its preparation and consumption. It’s a chance to sit down among a mostly local crowd and order a coffee.
Lusaka, Zambia
Getting around: Taxis are affordable.
This city is known for Victoria Falls. Small shops are lit at night, and they sell everything from newspapers to soft drinks. On the way, there is the outdoor Mingling Bar, where customers can enjoy a can of Original American Cola.
Abidjan, C te d’Ivoire
Getting around: Taxis are cheap.
Abidjan’s 5 million people are spread out across four areas. When night falls, Yopougon is worth heading to. The roads are dusty in the part of Abidjan, but like many cities where living spaces are small, Abidjan lives its life on its streets. Just to the east of Yopougon is the Plateau, the business area. This area’s modernist building is great and mostly the result of a cocoa-and coffee-based economic development in the 1950s and 1960s.
Dakar, Senegal
Getting around: Taxis are plentiful.
Possibly the best thing about Dakar is its beach restaurants: special collections of tables and chairs where customers are served the freshly caught fish. Servers will often offer to run out to a nearby corner store to buy beer and bring it to the table.
21. Where is Victoria Falls
A. In Abidjan. B. In Addis Ababa. C. In Lusaka. D. In Dakar.
22. What contributes most to the Plateau’s modernist building
A. Art. B. Coffee business. C. History. D. Population.
23. What is special about the beach restaurants in Dakar
A. They are self-service. B. They are all about coffee.
C. They serve freshly caught fish. D. They offer free Original American Cola.
B
The Chinese New Year parade isn't the only place to watch a lion dance in. the San Francisco Bay Area. At weddings, grand openings of new businesses and other celebrations, the traditional Chinese art is performed year-round, thanks to the contributions of lion dance groups and young people increasingly embracing the activity.
Connie Lu, a senior at Lincoln High School in San Francisco, has been practicing lion dance for three years in a youth lion dance club. She performed as the lion's head at a high school competition during the weekend in San Francisco's Chinatown to celebrate Asian Pacific American Heritage Month.
“I officially started performing in my freshman year, but I had been a ’tail’ in a Chinese school for some years. I was only following the head’s steps,” Lu said. “I think being a head is more fun because you can play out the lion.”
Lu’s team — eleven girls and two boys — participated in the competition, along with four other teams of about 100 players. The event also attracted hundreds of tourists. Blinking big eyes and shaking the body, the yellow lion played by Lu and her teammates jumped up on a narrow bench to the beat of drums and gongs and picked up a hanging flower bouquet. The dancers’ skillful movements won a big round of applause from the audience.
Each performance has a unique meaning. Lu’s performance tells the story of a lion who tries to cross a river to get a flower for his friend, but he is afraid of the river at first. Finally, he conquers the challenge and gets the flower to his friend.
“The meaning is that everyone has struggles in life and it can be scary. But when we work together and work hard, we can achieve it,” said Sophia Lee, a teammate of Lu’s. “The practice of lion dancing serves as a way to celebrate our cultural heritage with audience abroad, giving them a deeper understanding and appreciation for the rich Chinese traditions.”
24. What might be Lu’s favourite role in a lion dance
A. The head. B. The tail. C. The body. D. The leg.
25. How many teams joined in the competition in total
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
26. What can we learn about Lu in the competition
A. She was unfamiliar with a lion dance. B. Her role is still scary for her.
C. She gave up in the face of difficulty. D. Her performance tells a story of a brave lion.
27. What does Sophia Lee agree with about the lion dance
A. It focuses on individual spirit. B. It's a chance to share Chinese culture.
C. It's hardly accepted abroad. D. It doesn't require a high level of skills.
C
In recent years, I have tried to appreciate younger artists such as Doja Cat, Lil Nas X and Sabrina Carpenter, but songs from the 2000s hold a special place in my heart and mind.
As I see other generations of music lovers say music was so much better when they were younger, I wondered why. We can’t all be right—or maybe we are, I talked to experts about how music influences our brains to find out.
“It’s not that music was better when we were younger, it’s that music brings out very, very strong emotions,” said Dr. Rita Aiello, a music psychologist at New York University. “Music is a very strong reminder of things that happened in our past.”
But why does music hold such power “Music is episodic (情景性的),” said Dr. Robert Cutietta, a professor of music at the University of Southern California. “If you look at an artwork or something, you can look at it and leave, Music is over time. There’s a part of our brain called episodic memory—that’s where it goes.”
The feelings connected to music during our younger years create a strong, lasting connection, with both happy and sad emotions mixing together when we listen to a song.
What if you see the 1970s and 1980s as the best time for real music, even though every decade has some high- or low-quality songs It may be because you’re remembering the songs that were meaningful to you and forgetting the ones that weren’t. “There are situations that made certain songs special to you, and the memories of those situations will come back when you hear the songs,” Aiello said.
“Every era has some songs that are not of high quality but still become huge hits,” Cutietta said. “They’re still there somewhere in our memory, but we choose not to pull those up. Naturally, we tend to pull up the songs we like.”
28. Why do people prefer music from their youth according to experts
A. New music lacks creativity. B. Today’s songs have a really quick beat.
C. It can connect their feelings with the past. D. It always brings out happy emotions.
29. Why does Cutietta mention an artwork in paragraph 4
A. To make a comparison. B. To lead in the topic.
C. To give a warning. D. To offer a suggestion.
30. What does the author say about music from different times
A. The 1970s and 1980s had the worst music.
B. The 2000s is the only time with good music.
C. Each decade has a mix of good and bad songs.
D. Bad music from the 1980s has become popular today.
31. What does the underlined word “those” in the last paragraph refer to
A. Pop singers. B. Bad experiences.
C. Favourite songs. D. Popular but low-quality songs.
D
Titania Jordan, working at Bark Technologies, knows that parents today face a tough challenge: raising kids in a world filled with technology. That’s why she’s devoted to helping them navigate the digital landscape. “Parents need to be aware of what their children are exposed to online,” she stresses. “It’s not just about monitoring; it’s about understanding and leading them through this new world.”
Jordan and her team work on developing tools that allow parents to protect their children from the dangers of the Internet. “We help parents filter out things like cyberbullying, inappropriate contents, and even potential attackers,” she explains. The platform sends warnings to parents when it detects something concerning, giving them the power to take action.
Jordan believes that education is key. “We need to educate parents about the risks and how to talk to their kids about them,” she says. She often holds classes and talks, explaining why it’s important to talk openly and set good limits on how much technology we use.
One of the biggest problems Jordan addresses is the fear of missing out that children experience when they see their friends posting about fun events which they’re not part of. “It’s crucial for parents to help their children understand that social media often shows the best parts, not reality,” she says. “We need to teach them to appreciate real-life experiences rather than comparing themselves to others online.”
Jordan also stresses the importance of setting a good example. “Parents should model healthy tech habits,” she advises. “If parents are always on their phones, their kids will follow suit. But if parents show balance, it sends a strong message about the role of technology in our lives.”
“Despite the challenges,” Jordan adds, “technology is here to stay, and we just need to ensure it’s used in a way that enriches our children’s lives, not harms them.”
32. What does Jordan suggest parents do when their children use the Internet
A. Offer instruction. B. Turn a blind eye.
C. Monitor everything. D. Cut Internet access.
33. What does the underlined phrase “filter out” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Add. B. Remove. C. Keep. D. Mix.
34. How are parents advised to deal with their children’s fear of missing out
A. By asking them to post fun events.
B. By showing them social media’s best parts.
C. By setting a good example in communicating with teachers.
D. By telling them to value reality over online comparisons.
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. Internet Developments and Threats B. A Parent’s Guide in Kids’ Digital World
C. Social Media and Mental Health in Teens D. The Impact of Technology on Child Development
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
One can age healthfully and live an active life by making wholesome lifestyle choices. A healthy diet is the number one factor (因素) influencing an active life. ____36____ Exercise! People tend to think of exercise being beneficial for now. Actually, your workout today will pay off tomorrow. Here are some workout tips to keep you feeling energetic and young at heart.
●Do cardiovascular (心血管的) exercises
Health and longevity can be achieved by doing cardiovascular exercises, as shown in a study. ____37____. You can also include some other activities, such as hiking, riding a bike quickly, or climbing stairs.
●____38____
Don’t focus on cardio alone. As one ages, there is a natural loss of muscle mass, so adding in weight-bearing exercises helps to build up bone mineral, according to Well+ Good. ____39____. As they get older, their bones become much less strong than men, making them more likely to have broken bones. Yoga and mountain climbing can help you build up strength and also work on flexibility (柔韧性), which is the next important area for your workout.
●Increase flexibility
As one ages, one may have less mobility and range of motion. Flexibility is more important than anything else: If you do not do flexibility exercises, your muscles can actually shorten! Practicing yoga flows is the best exercise for working on flexibility. Staying flexible will give you a wider range of mobility and improve your balance as you age. ____40____.
A Work on strength
B. Be positive about yourself
C. This is especially important for women
D. But do you know what is the second factor
E. Does it mean that exercise is the deciding factor
F. They can be fast walking, gardening, or swimming
G. Flexibility will also lower the risk of having pain in your back
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Malcolm Campbell was a senior in high school, he took a civics (公民学) class with a teacher named Don Lawson. One of the units that Mr. Lawson ____41____ was about the Vietnam War.
For two days, Mr. Lawson ____42____ anti-war songs by Bob Dylan to show that art can be a ____43____ way to speak out against the war. On the second day, Campbell ____44____ his hand, with a question, “Is this going to be on the test ” Mr. Lawson ____45____ Campbell and said, “No, man, this is for you.” That’s when Campbell realized Mr. Lawson planned this ____46____ not for the content, but for personal enrichment.
Campbell went on to ____47____ a PhD in biology. From there, he spent 30 years teaching biology at Davidson College. All along, he kept the ____48____ of Mr. Lawson in his mind. “I tried to pass my students the ____49____ that you should learn as much as possible in school,” Campbell said. “Don’t worry about ____50____ me. Do it for yourself.”
Campbell recently retired (退休) from teaching. But looking back on his teaching life, one of his proudest ____51____ was helping students have their own moments of epiphany (顿悟). “That’s pretty ____52____. Because once they ____53____ understand what learning is, all you need to do is ____54____ a match, and watch them take fire. And that was what Mr. Lawson ____55____ for me,” Campbell said.
41. A. taught B. learned C. accepted D. respected
42. A. hated B. corrected C. played D. passed
43. A. strange B. powerful C. modern D. unique
44. A. raised B. hurt C. tied D. covered
45. A. put aside B. agreed with C. depended on D. looked at
46. A. speech B. question C. music D. dance
47 A. design B. receive C. report D. copy
48 A. lessons B. mistakes C. photos D. dreams
49. A. path B. excuse C. idea D. text
50. A. following B. calling C. protecting D. pleasing
51. A. achievements B. schools C. requirements D. comments
52. A. shy B. cool C. late D. new
53. A. calmly B. partly C. hardly D. really
54. A. hide B. sell C. add D. keep
55. A. bought B. did C. missed D. saw
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Dafo Temple, or Giant Buddha Temple in Zhangye, Northwest China’s Gansu Province, is well known for ____56____ (house) Asia’s largest reclining Buddha statue (卧佛), built in 1098.
The large statue, measuring some 35 meters long, ____57____ (be) made of heavy, sticky earth. When visitors enter the hall, they will see a host of pictures ____58____ show stories of the Silk Road. An important Buddhist site in history, Dafo Temple is also home to over 10,000 valuable ____59____ (culture) relics.
____60____ (recognize) as the existing largest and best-preserved Xixia imperial temple, the site, covering an area of 60,000 square meters, features a group of ____61____ (building) along an east-west central axis (轴线), including the Giant Buddha Hall, the Sutras Exhibition Hall, ____62____ the earthen tower.
Due to its advanced age, the temple ____63____ (suffer) various degrees of damage in the past years, and has been repaired many times in history, according to Wang Kang, director of the Research Institute of the Zhangye Dafo Temple.
“From 2005 to 2007, we repaired the temple following the rule of ‘repairing the old as it is’,” Wang recalled. “To better serve visitors, we plan ____64____ (create) a digital exhibition (展览) space using all the information we have collected about the temple, and it will be open ____65____ the public next October at the latest,” Wang added.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你班下周六将举办元旦晚会。请你写信邀请外教 David参加，内容包括：
1.时间和地点；
2.活动安排。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear David,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
On a bright, sunny day, my friend and I decided to have a hike up the nearby mountain. The weather was fine, with a gentle breeze (微风) and a clear blue sky overhead. We were having a great time in nature, looking at all the green plants and colorful flowers around us. As we climbed higher, we chatted about our plans for the future and shared laughter at our shared memories.
Suddenly we heard a weak sound coming from a nearby bush. Curious, we approached as quietly as a mouse and discovered a small bird with an injured wing. It was clear that the bird was in trouble, and we really wanted to help. However, every time we tried to approach the bird, it would fly away in fear, staying away from us.
Deciding to save the little bird, my friend had an idea. He reached into his backpack and pulled out a small piece of fruit and bread that he had packed for our hike. Gently, he placed the foods near the bush, hoping they would get the bird to come closer.
At first, the bird remained careful, its eyes darting (转动) between us and the foods. Slowly, hunger seemed to overcome its fear, and it hopped towards the foods, carefully pecking at (啄食) the foods. My friend and I stayed very still, not wanting to frighten it away again.
注意：1．续写词数应为150个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
After a few minutes, the bird seemed to realize that we were not a threat.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
At home, we took good care of the bird.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024～2025学年度第二学期高一年级期中考试
英语
考生注意：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4．本卷命题范围：人教版必修第二册至必修第三册Unit 1。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】A
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. C 7. A
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B 10. A
【11~13题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. A
【14~16题答案】
【答案】14. B 15. A 16. B
【17~20题答案】
【答案】17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. A 25. D 26. D 27. B
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. C 29. A 30. C 31. D
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. A 33. B 34. D 35. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. F 38. A 39. C 40. G
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. D 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. C 55. B
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. housing
57. is 58. which##that
59. cultural
60. Recognized
61. buildings
62. and 63. has suffered
64. to create
65. to
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【66题答案】
【答案】Dear David,
I am writing to invite you to our New Year’s Eve party, which will be held next Saturday in our classroom. The party will start at 7:00 pm and last for about two hours. We have planned various activities for the evening, including a talent show and a delicious buffet. It will be a great opportunity for everyone to celebrate together and enjoy the festive sprint.
We hope you can join us for this special occasion. Please let me know if you can make it.
Yours sincerely.
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【67题答案】
【答案】
After a few minutes, the bird seemed to realize that we were not a threat. It began to eat more freely, and we were able to get closer within arm’s reach. At this time, my friend caught the bird quickly. The bird struggled in the hand, trying to fly away. Gently, we examined its injury, and then we wrapped a soft cloth around the bird. We decided to give up walking forward and take the bird home.
At home, we took good care of the bird. First, we cleaned the bird’s wound, and then we provided it with food and water. Over the next few days, the bird’s trust in us grew. It would allow us to touch its feathers and seemed to rely on our care. As the bird’s wing healed, we knew that eventually, we would have to release it back into the wild. On another fine day for hiking, we set the bird free at the same place where we saved it. We cherished the bond we had formed. Our mountain adventure was a journey of friendship and a reminder of the fine connection between humans and the natural world.写作评分细则
第一节（满分 15 分）
（一） 评分原则
1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最
后给分。
3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇
用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二） 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15 分）
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能
力。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12 分）
——完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——达到预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9 分）
——基本完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6 分）
——未适当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1～3 分）
——未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
——信息未能传达给读者。
{#{QQABLQa44gAwkAZACZ7LU0UyC0iQkJCRLaoGwRASOAQLwQFIFAA=}#}
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。
——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分 25 分）
（一） 评分原则
1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档
次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。
4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1） 与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2） 内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况；
（3） 应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4） 上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二） 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25 分）
——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16～20 分）
——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11～15 分）
——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6～10 分）
——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1～5 分）
——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
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