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喀什市2024-2025学年第二学期高三4月模拟试卷
英 语
时间：120分钟 满分：120分
第一部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Washington DC is a theatre town. Here’s where you can get the best performances and cultural experiences offered for every taste in the nation’s capital.
Kennedy Center
Kennedy Center hosts hundreds of world-class performances each year and is home to the National Symphony Orchestra and the Washington National Opera. The Suzanne Farrell Ballet also counts Kennedy Center as its performance headquarter. The company—under the direction of Farrell—was first invited to perform there in 1993 and has since become one of the venue’s most famous attractions.
Woolly Mammoth Company
Woolly Mammoth Company is an experimental theatre that welcomes original plays that push the boundaries of live theatre. The New York Times has called it “Washington’s most daring theatre company”, and the half dozen plays Woolly produces each year continue to live up to that reputation.
Shakespeare Theatre Company
For more than 25 years, Shakespeare Theatre Company has committed itself to serving as the nation’s classical theatre. It operates out of two spaces, including Sidney Harman Hall at the Harman Center, which seats 775, and the Lansburgh Theatre, which seats 451. The shiny, glass-walled Harman Center showcases classic Shakespeare plays, modern updates and Shakespeare-inspired original shows.
Wolf Trap
For locals, summer isn’t complete without at least one trip to Wolf Trap, the only national park dedicated to the performing arts. The venue is best-known for performances of touring artists. The open-air theatre offers covered seating, but when the weather warms up, we suggest buying seats on the grassland and packing a picnic.
1. Where can you appreciate the top-level Ballet
A. Harman Center. B. Kennedy Center.
C. Lansburgh Theatre. D. Woolly Mammoth Company.
2. What is Shakespeare Theater Company focused on
A. Providing the national classics. B. Working on the performing arts.
C. Holding world-class performances. D. Showcasing the latest creative plays.
3. What may be the particular feature of Wolf Trap
A. Its original works. B. Its covered seating.
C. Its open-air atmosphere. D. Its Shakespeare plays.
B
A Dutch museum has recovered an artwork that looks like two empty beer cans after a staff member accidentally threw it in the rubbish bin.
The work, entitled All the Good Times We Spent Together by the French artist Alexandre Lavet, appears on first glance to be two abandoned and dented (瘪的) beer tins. However, a closer look shows they are carefully hand-painted and required a lot of time and effort to create. Their artistic value was lost on a mechanic, who saw them displayed in a lift and threw them in the bin. The curator (馆长) Elisah van den Bergh returned from a short break and noticed the cans had disappeared. She recovered them from a bin bag just as they were about to be thrown out.
Froukje Budding, of the LAM museum in Lisse, western Netherlands, said artworks were often left in unusual places -hence the display in a lift. "We try to surprise visitors for all the time," she said. "We have now put the work in a more traditional place on a plinth (底座) so it can rest after its adventure." She stressed there were no hard feelings towards the mechanic, who had just started at the museum, stating that he was simply performing his duties.
Sietske van Zanten, the museum's director, emphasized the museum's mission to encourage visitors to see everyday objects in a new light. “By displaying artworks in unexpected places, we enhance this experience and keep visitors on their toes," he added.
Budding also noted the cans were unlikely to stay on their traditional plinth for long and that they needed to think hard about a careful place to put them next.
4. Why did the mechanic throw the artwork in the rubbish bin
A. Because it stood in the way.
B. Because it took much space.
C. Because it looked like real trash.
D. Because it looked strange in the lift.
5.What was Budding’s attitude toward the mechanic's behavior
A. Understanding. B. Concerned. C. Critical. D. Unforgiving.
6.What does the underlined phrase in paragraph 4 mean
A. Make visitors ready for surprises.
B. Remind visitors of dangers.
C. Warn visitors not to litter.
D. Show visitors around the museum.
7. What might happen to the artwork in the future
A. It will be kept in a safe.
B. It will be put in a selected place.
C. It will be sent back to the lift.
D. It will be placed in a traditional setting.
C
Our culture is addicted to collective goal setting and the idea that forming new habits during specific times of the year will lead to successful outcomes. But it turns out there’s no real evidence that it is the case.
In fact, research suggests that only two people in ten stick with their New Year’s resolutions long term. “I am aware of no research showing that starting fresh in January or October or any other month makes you more likely to stick with a new behaviour,” says Wendy Wood, a behavioural psychologist at the University of Southern California.
The reality is that, when it comes to establishing new habits, there really is an ideal time to do it — but it might not be when you think. Wood calls such ideal moments “turning points” — such as an upcoming high school reunion causing you to want to lose a few pounds, or over-drafting your bank account and realizing it is time to improve your career. He says such moments tend to provide lasting feelings of motivation because they are rooted in something meaningful and more in-depth than just going along with everyone else.
Regardless of what promotes your motivation, Wood says it is critical to take action as soon as you feel the desire because you may only have a short window of opportunity to make decisions about what you want to do before your old habits get in the way. For instance, write out a daily schedule that includes time for your new habit and post it where you’ll see it each morning. You might also join a gym while your motivation is high to lock yourself into a monthly payment that will keep you motivated to use the membership even after your interest in getting in shape begins to cool.
Another strategy for successful habit formation is breaking down bigger goals into smaller, more specific ones. So instead of saying “I’m going to lose 10 pounds a month”, set a goal to limit your daily calorie intake and get to the gym for 30 minutes a day.
8. What is Wood’s attitude toward making New Year’s resolutions
A. Doubtful. B. Approving. C. Casual. D. Objective.
9. Which of the following examples can be called a “turning point”
A. Falling ill from heavy work. B. Fulfilling a long-held dream.
C. Exercising on a regular basis. D. Receiving New Year’s wishes.
10.What plays a leading role in reaching one’s goal according to Wood
A. Motivation. B. Determination. C. Opportunity. D. Action.
11. What is this text mainly about
A. Strategies for setting a collective goal.
B. Procedures for finding a turning point.
C. Approaches to developing a new habit.
D. Methods of making a New Year’s wish.
D
A corn plant knows how to find water in soil with the very tips of its roots, but some varieties, including many used for developing high-output corn in the U. S., appear to have lost part of that ability, according to a Stanford-led study. With climate change increasing droughts, the findings hold potential for developing more drought-resistant varieties of corn.
The study, published in the journal Science, uncovers genetic mechanisms behind root “hydropatterning”, or how plant roots branch toward water and avoid dry spaces in soil. In particular, the researchers discovered that ethylene, a plant hormone (激素) known to help bananas ripen, also influences how roots grow to seek water.
For this study, the researchers developed a new, simplified way to study water sensitivity in roots. They found corn varieties adapted to hot and wet regions like Mexico were very good at making new root branches toward water and avoiding dry areas. In contrast, the varieties adapted to moderate regions of North America frequently grew roots randomly without distinguishing between dry and wet areas in the soil.
“Interestingly, the plants that are better at sensing the water are also making deeper root systems,” said lead author Johannes Scharnweber. “One idea is that if the plant doesn’t waste time growing root branches into places where it doesn’t find any water and nutrients, then it has more energy to grow deeper down where water is more likely.”
Genetic analyses reveal two plant hormones, auxin and ethylene, play a role in how corn roots respond to water. While auxin was already known to help control this process, ethylene’s involvement was a new discovery. In experiments with the shale corn — a model plant often used in research — the researchers found auxin signaling promotes root branch development toward water, while ethylene stops branching when the root is exposed to air.
Further research is needed to better understand the interaction of these genetic pathways before corn varieties can be developed with more drought-resistant root systems, but the findings highlight the significance of studying these localized responses at root tips, researchers said.
12. What is the primary focus of the Stanford-led study
A. Drought-resistant corn varieties.
B. Ethylene’s effect on fruit ripening.
C. Genetic regulation of root branching.
D. Impact of climate change on plant roots.
13. What can be inferred from Johannes Scharnweber’s remarks
A. Plant hormones make a big difference to root growth.
B. Nutrients guarantee better water-seeking root systems.
C. Root branching conserves energy for higher production.
D. Stronger hydropatterning was linked to greater root depth.
14. What does paragraph 5 mainly talk about
A. Model plants in research. B. Hormones’ role in root growth.
C. Genetic analysis methods. D. Findings of previous research.
15. What does the last paragraph suggest future research do
A. Prioritize development of new corn varieties.
B. Work out the mechanisms of genetic interactions.
C. Concentrate merely on localized responses.
D. Expand practical applications of hydropatterning.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2.5，满分12.5）
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
People are more willing than ever to embrace a cleaner lifestyle, but some aren’t sure where to begin. 16 Here are some of the simple things that can be done by almost anyone.
17
Do you know that clothes can take over 200 years to decompose (分解) If your T-shirt gets coffee stains, instead of throwing it away, give it a second life as a useful kitchen rag. Besides, empty containers can become flower pots, and broken flower pots can be used as creative decorations in your garden. The list just goes on depending on your creativity.
Go dark
There are a number of small steps that you can take to use less electricity in your everyday life. Turn off the lights when you leave a room. Unplug electronic items when they aren't in use. Remember that electricity is a luxury (奢侈). 18
Stop using single-use plastics
Plastic waste is in almost all natural environments, especially in oceans. The biggest problem is single-use plastics like shopping bags, straws (吸管) and packaging. 19
Therefore, you must stop using single-use plastics. They not only affect wildlife but can take hundreds to thousands of years to break down.
Save water
20 Water needs to be transported, filtered, and purified (净化) before it reaches your tap. The energy people use to process it often comes from fossil fuels. Reducing the use of water by switching off the tap while brushing your teeth and collecting the rainwater for the garden means that companies use fewer harmful fuels, which helps clean up the environment.
A. Make repairs and create new things.
B. We should save tap water from being polluted.
C. Replace old things with new ones based on imagination.
D. These actions will lower the energy use and save money.
E. Animals often mistake them for food, which causes death.
F. In fact, there are plenty of things you can do to live a greener life.
G. Every drop of tap water you use consumes energy and is actually a polluter.
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
On a hot morning, a friend called me. He had found a 21 injured baby raccoon (浣熊), which, just about eight weeks old, was in terrible shape. As part of my job, I was 22 to care for injured animals until they could be released into the wild. I had some doubt whether he would 23 the night. Still, I took him home, named him Trouper, and cleaned his 24 , hoping for a miracle.
For four days, the raccoon didn’t move. On the fifth morning. I nearly lost 25 . Holding him, I whispered, “Sorry.” Suddenly, he 26 his legs, moved his mouth weakly and shook himself—as if saying, “I’m still fighting!” That moment gave me 27 that he might recover.
Weeks later, while helping him practice walking, a sudden wind shut the door 28 . I jumped, but Trouper didn’t 29 . My heart sank: he was deaf. Worse, he couldn’t smell or 30 . As someone with fading vision myself, I understood his struggle. I decided not to 31 him away. Together with my dog, we started a 32 life.
Now 10 years old, Trouper works as a licensed wildlife 33 . I take him to schools and community centers to teach about respecting life. His story has been a(n) 34 reminder for many years: every creature 35 a chance.
21. A. slightly B. seriously C. frequently D. purposely
22. A. required B. forced C. ordered D. guided
23. A. enjoy B. suffer C. survive D. fear
24. A. fur B. face C. legs D. wounds
25. A. temper B. interest C. hope D. courage
26. A. broke B. stretched C. checked D. treated
27. A. confidence B. advice C. desperation D. resolution
28. A. gently B. partly C. gradually D. violently
29. A. watch B. mind C. fall D. react
30. A. see B. touch C. hear D. taste
31. A. put B. drive C. send D. give
32. A. lonely B. new C. plain D. luxury
33. A. ambassador B. student C. agent D. rescuer
34. A. general B. distant C. occasional D. constant
35. A. seizes B. loses C. deserves D. understands
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 2013, a news photo of a dead polar bear, reduced by scientists' assessment to "skin and bones" upon discovery on Norway's Arctic island of Svalbard, shocked many people. An expert who 36 (study) polar bears for many years said that from the position of its dead body, the bear appeared to have starved and died. Experts claimed that low sea-ice levels 37 (cause) by climate change meant the bear could not hunt seals as before, so it had to travel 38 (great) distances in order to find food. This alarming case showed how the increase in temperature had an impact 39 Earth’s ecology.
Climate scientists think 40 is causing the increase in the global average surface temperature is “greenhouse effect”, which includes “natural” greenhouse effect and “man-made” greenhouse effect. The “natural” greenhouse effect refers to 41 fact that heat from the sun enters the atmosphere and warms Earth’s surface as short-wave radiation. The heat 42 (release) back into space at longer wave lengths. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, such as methane and carbon dioxide, trap some of the heat, 43 (keep) Earth’s climate warm and habitable. Without this process, Earth could not sustain life. However, the “man-made” greenhouse effect has now become a big problem. When people produce huge 44 (amount) of extra greenhouse gases by burning fossil fuels, more heat energy is trapped in the atmosphere and causes Earth’s surface temperature 45 (rise) quickly.
第三部分：写作 （共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是校学生会体育部长李华，你校将举办以“快乐体育，健康生活”为主题的体育节活动。请你给学校的交换生Mike写邮件邀请他参加。内容包括：
1.活动的目的；
2.活动的相关信息。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
(
Dear Mike,
Yours,
Li Hua
)
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之成为一篇完整的短文。
I woke up with a start and looked at the clock in front of me—5:00 am. The whole night I had been dreaming and planning various things I wanted to do. After all, it was my 16th birthday! Yesterday, none of my family had shown any sign to indicate that they’ d remembered the fact that my birthday was only 24 hours away. They might have been planning a surprise for me!
I raced downstairs. “Well, you’ re up early,” my dad said, his eyes fixed upon the newspaper. My mother, who was cooking breakfast, paid me no attention. “Have they forgotten about me ” I wondered. “No, they would never do that.” “Mama, I was wondering if you could cook me some pancakes,” I said in a cheerful tone. “Jessie, I am in a hurry today. I am afraid I don’t have time to make you pancakes,” my mother said. None of them seemed to be aware of my special day. At least for my sake, they could’ve given it some importance. And none of my brothers seemed to be interested in my birthday either. I felt a bit down.
For months we had been planning events for my birthday—shopping, games, decorations and so much more—but now, they all seemed to have forgotten about my birthday. Lunch was boring, with nothing special cooked for my special day. Everyone sat talking about random things, not once mentioning my birthday.
Disappointed, I climbed up the stairs to my room and lay down in bed. Suddenly, Mom called out to me. I dashed (急奔) towards her, hoping to hear something cheerful. But my optimism disappeared when she said, “Me, your dad and your brothers are attending a dinner. Since you woke up early, we thought you might need some sleep. If you feel hungry, there’s food in the fridge. Call if you need help. Bye, and be a good girl.”
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
(
They all waved goodbye one by one, leaving me alone in the house.
“Surprise!” a lot of voices called out.
)
英语试题 第7页（共10页） 英语试题 第8页（共10页）英语试题答案
第一部分 阅读（共两节，20小题，每小题2.5分，满分 50分）
1-3 BAC 4-7 CAAB 8-11. AADC 12-15 CDBB 16-20 FADEG
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30 分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21-25 BACDC 26-30 BADDA 31-35CBADC
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36.has studied 37.caused 38.greater 39.on 40.what
41.the 42.is released 43.keeping 44.amounts 45.to rise
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 (满分15分)
One possible version：
Dear Mike,
I hope this email finds you well. I’m Li Hua, the Sports Minister of the Student Union. I'm excited to invite you to our upcoming Sports Festival, themed “Happy Sports, Healthy Life.” The event aims to promote physical fitness, teamwork, and a positive attitude towards sports among students.
The festival will take place on November 15th at the school sports field. Activities include basketball matches, relay races, tug-of-war, and fun games like frisbee and obstacle courses. No prior experience is necessary — the festival is open to everyone. Hopefully, it's a great opportunity to have fun, make new friends, and stay active.
We would be thrilled if you are interested in joining us and sharing in the fun experience. If you have any questions, please feel free to ask in your email or reach out to me directly.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
One possible version：
They all waved goodbye one by one, leaving me alone in the house. I ran to my room and closed the door, crying myself to sleep. Suddenly, I heard something. I observed my surroundings, but there was nothing unusual in my bedroom. I jumped out of my bed, sure that someone was there in the house. “I…I’ve already called the police. You can’t escape!” I shouted. I knew that my threat sounded useless and worthless, but I had to give it a try. With all my courage, I opened the door.
“Surprise!” a lot of voices called out. Trying to find out what was happening, I looked around. All my friends, my parents and my brothers came inside the room, holding my birthday cake. I felt so overwhelmed and began to cry. “Oh, I thought you all had forgotten, “I said, fighting back tears. “Not as long as I am alive,” came the voice of a lady. Someone was standing at the door — it was my grandmother! I rushed to her and gave her a hug. That was the best birthday of my life!
写作第一节评分标准
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按以下5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60或多于 100的，从总分中减去2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以至影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：（13-15分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档：（10-12分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档：（7-9分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但基本达意；
第二档：（4-6分） 能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档：（1-3分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
写作第二节评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按七个档次给分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差，以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 （21-25分） 1.创造了丰富合理的内容,富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高。 2.有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达流畅,语言错误少,且完全不影响理解。 3.有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。
第四档 （16-20分） 1.创造了比较丰富合理的内容,比较逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高。 2.比较有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达比较流畅,有个别错误,但完全不影响理解。 3.比较有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文比较结构清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档 （11-15分） 1.创造了基本丰富合理的内容,基本具有逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情境相关。 2.基本有效使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达基本流畅,语言有些许错误,但基本不影响理解。 3.基本有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档 （6-10分） 1.内容和逻辑上有一些重大的问题,续写不够完整,与原文有一定程度上脱节。 2.所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多且比较低级,影响理解。 3.未能有效的使用词句间的衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义欠连贯。
第一档 （1-5分） 1.内容和逻辑上有较多重大的问题,或有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情节基本脱节。2.所使用的词汇非常有限,语法结构单调,错误极多且,严重影响理解。 3.几乎没有使用词句间的衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
零分 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法判断；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。喀什市2024-2025学年第二学期高三4月模拟测试
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注意事项1.答题前，考生务先将自己的姓名，考生号、座号填写在相应位置，认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号和座号，并将条形码贴在指定的位置上。 2.选择题答案必须使用2B铅笔正确填涂；非选择题答案必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。 3.请按照题号在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的无效；在草纸上、试题卷上答题无效。保持答题卡清洁、不折叠、不破损。
考生禁填 缺考考生由监考员贴条形码,并用2B铅笔填涂上面的缺考标记。
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第
Ⅰ
卷
(须用2B铅笔填涂)
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填涂样例
正确填涂
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1[A] [B] [C] [D]6[A] [B] [C] [D]11[A] [B] [C] [D]16[A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]2[A] [B] [C] [D]7[A] [B] [C] [D]12[A] [B] [C] [D]17[A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]3[A] [B] [C] [D]8[A] [B] [C] [D]13[A] [B] [C] [D]18[A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]4[A] [B] [C] [D]9[A] [B] [C] [D]14[A] [B] [C] [D]19[A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]5 21 22 23 24 25[A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D]10 26 27 28 29 30[A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D]15 31 32 33 34 35 [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D] [A] [B] [C] [D]20[A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
非选择题答题区
语法填空（满分15分）
36. 37.
38. 39.
40. 41.
42. 43.
44. 45.
写作 第一节（满分15分） Dear Mike， Yours Li Hua
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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考生 必填 姓名
座号
考生务必将姓名、座号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔认真填写在书写框内，每个书写框只能填写一个阿拉伯数字。
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写作 第二节（满分15分）
They all waved goodbye one by one, leaving me alone in the house.
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_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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“Surprise!” a lot of voices called out.
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________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________
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