资源简介

2024-2025学年度第二学期期末考试试卷
高二英语
2025.06
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What major did the man choose at last
A. Medicine. B. Law. C. Economics.
2. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a restaurant. B. At a hotel. C. At a supermarket.
3. How long will the language course last
A. About half a year. B. About one year. C. About one and a half years.
4. Which part of the center opened recently
A. The cinema. B. The Art Gallery. C. The concert area.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The life of the students. B. The change of the school. C. The location of the canteen.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What does the woman intend to get for her mother
A. Some coffee. B. Some jewelry. C. Some flowers.
7. What is Fan's
A. A bakery. B. A toy shop. C. A department store.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What movies does the woman refuse to watch
A. Comedies. B. Action movies. C. Science fictions.
9. What movie will the speakers probably go for
A. The Mystery of Satellite. B. Love in the Country. C. Our Planet.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
10. Who made the woman interested in musical instruments
A. Her parents. B. Her sister. C. Her teacher.
11 What was the problem with the woman's private lessons
A. The tutor lived far. B. The lessons were dull. C. Her mother opposed it.
12. Why did the woman give up the violin halfway
A. She was tired of practicing.
B. She was buried in schoolwork.
C. She couldn't spare the time.
13. Why did the woman go back to playing the violin
A. To please her parents. B. To use it in social life. C. To pursue her interest.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. How many rooms did the first project have
A. 49. B. 59. C. 66.
15. Why does the man like the Farmer's Daughter Hotel
A. It covers a big block. B. It is near his home. C. It has many stories.
16. What do we know about the hotel Short Stories
A. Writers love it. B. It has four storeys. C. It features a large pool.
17 What is the woman trying to do
A. Find a hotel. B. Conduct an interview. C. Buy a property.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18. When will the listeners go to Birmingham
A. In March. B. In April. C. In June.
19. How will they go to Birmingham
A. By plane. B. By train. C. By coach.
20. What will the speaker do next
A. Introduce another trip. B. Hand out the schedule. C. Answer some questions.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Sea stories are something that fascinates everything right from childhood. Sea is mysterious for all of us and stories related to it are sure to get everyone keen and interested. Sea stories are a perfect mix of mystery, adventure, thrill, awe and excitement. So, here we present our pick of the best four sea stories of all times in English literature.
Moby Dick by Herman Melville
This book is not to be missed by all who love sea stories. This is the most famous book about whaling that ever was. Melville got inspired to write this book when he was shipping aboard a Yankee (北方佬) whaler. The three-part climax is the most loved part of the book.
Kon-Tiki by Thor Heyerdahl
In this book, the mission of Heyerdahl is to prove that South American Indians have the option of migrating to Polynesia. He and his crew stand on a light raft and take one of the greatest real-life sea epics of all times.
Treasure Island by Robert Louis Stevenson
This is the grand work of all sea stories. Written in 1883, this adventure novel narrates a tale of “pirates and buried gold”. It is one of the most popular sea novels of all times and its influence on popular perception of pirates with eye patches and one-leg sailors with parrots on their shoulders is dominating the world literature and movies even today.
Sailing Alone Around the World by Joshua Slocum
Slocum is a Canadian who is probably the last of the great American sailor. His fame lies in the fact that he sailed his vessel, the Spray, in an unassisted sailboat. This book is definitely among the best of the real-life sea adventures.
1. What do the works by Heyerdahl and Slocum have in common
A. They have three-part climaxes.
B. They focus on sailing and whaling.
C. Their authors are Canadian sailors.
D. They are based on the authors’ real experiences.
2. If a reader wants to read stories about pirates, which book can he or she choose
A. Moby Dick. B. Kon-Tiki.
C. Treasure Island. D. Sailing Alone Around the World.
3. Where is this passage probably taken from
A. A book guide. B. An academic report.
C. A conference notice. D. A fashion magazine.
B
Taelor Reynolds, a student at New Castle Elementary School, was born with a rare syndrome, a condition that resulted in limb differences in both of her hands. At just six years old, she has already undergone eight surgeries.
Despite the challenges she faces daily, her mother, Traci Reynolds, says she’s incredibly strong. “She’s a trooper,” Traci shared. “The last surgery that she had in August was an actual finger movement, so that now she has difficulty grasping her right hand. She is a twin also. So I think it’s hard for her seeing that her sister can do things that is either impossible for her or more challenging for her.”
Taelor doesn’t currently use prosthetics (假肢) and often struggles with everyday tasks, but she has a strong support system — including school counselor Kimberly Logsdon. “It’s really heartbreaking to see that she doesn’t have the same opportunities that other kids have,” Logsdon said.
Motivated by Taelor’s resilience (复原力), Logsdon took action. During a campus tour of Old Dominion University (ODU) with her son, she noticed a prosthetic device in a lab and had an idea. She approached the university’s engineering students, hoping that they could create a custom device for Taelor as part of their year-end project. The students agreed — and even connected her with an organization focused on supporting children with special needs.
Now, the team of ODU engineering students is working to design a personalized prosthetic solution. After taking measurements, they’ re building prototypes (原型) that could significantly improve Taelor’s quality of life. Their goal is to finish the project by the end of summer.
“So she has one pointer finger on that hand,” Traci explained. “Right now, they’re going to add additional fingers, so that she’s able to grasp things, silverware, things like that. Right now using the restroom is one of her biggest obstacles. They’re going to actually make a toileting tool so that she can do it on her own.”
4. Why did Traci regard Taelor as a trooper
A. Taelor was tough after surgeries. B. Traci was sympathetic to Taelor.
C. Taelor struggled with everyday tasks. D. Taelor got along badly with her sister.
5. What did Logsdon do for Taelor
A. She worked in a lab to help Taelor. B. She cooperated with Taelor’s mum.
C. She designed a prosthetic for Taelor. D. She turned to ODU’s students for help.
6. How does the engineering team help
A. By making digital models. B. By conducting more projects.
C. By improving medical facilities. D. By developing a tailored product.
7. What does the text mainly tell us
A. Disability limits people’s creativity. B. Warm concern shines through innovation.
C. Ambition fuels the desires of the disabled. D. Technology removes barriers among people.
C
The last time my husband and I went out for an elegant restaurant dinner, the server came to our table and began to recite a long list of specials, with detailed descriptions of how the dishes were made and where the ingredients had been sourced. Her recitation went on and on, and as she spoke, I became almost more interested in how she could remember all those descriptions than I was in thinking about the food. Meanwhile, I couldn’t remember where I’d put my keys before we left for the restaurant.
The good news is that not remembering where you put your keys is generally not a sign of dementia (老年痴呆). And on the contrary, being able to remember a long list of restaurant specials isn’t necessarily a sign of extraordinary mental ability, either. Memory is far more complicated than the dining out experience could ever show. While most of us are terrified about developing dementia, fewer than 10% of adults aged 65 and older will wind up with dementia such as Alzheimer’s (阿尔茨海默症).
“Some memory loss is normal as people age.” says Joel Salinas, a behavioral neurologist. “It’s not the kind of decline that interferes with the ability to live your life.” And, he adds, “There are areas that actually improve with age. Vocabulary is one.”
Jessica Zwerling, a director of the Center of Excellence for Alzheimer’s Disease, compares the effect of aging on memory to kind of like getting traffic on the brain. “It may take longer to find a word; it may come to you later. The speed of processing can go down, but your hippocampus, the part of the brain most associated with memory, should be functioning.” And the memories themselves are stored in various sections of the cerebral cortex, the outer layer of the brain. “Memory is all these different brain networks working in concert with each other,” says Dr. Salinas.
8. Why does the author mention the dining out experience in the first paragraph
A. To clarify the distinct differences. B. To introduce her awkward situation.
C. To teach readers how to recite menus. D. To highlight the complexity of memory.
9. What does the underlined phrase “interferes with” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A. Promote. B. Limit. C. Mix. D. Acquire.
10. What can we know about aged people with memory loss according to the text
A. They act like an Alzheimer’s patient.
B. They can’t live a normal life independently.
C. They are sure to suffer dementia some day.
D They may recall some forgotten words after a while.
11. What is the last paragraph mainly about
A. The mechanism of memory loss in brain. B. The brain parts in charge of memorizing.
C. The procedures of memory experiments. D. The result of losing memory in brain.
D
Alongside the crisps in the snack aisle, supermarkets are now stacking shelves with roasted chickpeas, cheese bites, and beef jerky. An array of high-protein alternatives is appearing alongside low-fat and low-sugar foods. Dairy sections are packed with hard-to-pronounce fare such as skyr and kefir. High-protein diets have become mainstream.
On social media, food and fitness influencers recommend protein. Celebrities have made it trendy to look strong, rather than skinny. A trend is close to an obsession. Google searches for “high-protein diet” reached their highest point ever in January. Some 64% of Americans want to increase the amount of protein they eat. In Britain, Ocado, an online supermarket, figures over 40% of consumers have increased their protein intake over the past year. So what explains the constant appetite
Gym enthusiasts have been wolfing down protein for decades. More recently the less strong have also realised that protein can help them build muscle while feeling fuller for longer. Juergen Esser at Danone, a French dairy giant, says hunger for protein first took off among youngsters who want to look muscular. It soon spread to older people eager to stay strong and healthy. The pandemic got people worrying about their health and increased demand.
High-protein products are helping firms expand. Revenues at Danone increased by 4.3% in 2024, driven by high-protein yoghurts and drinks. The question is whether the trend has gone too far. The World Health Organisation recommends 0.83 grams a day per kilogram of body weight. By that measure, the average American or Briton consumes too much.
For food firms already, struggling to meet multiple requirements, it is yet another challenge. Consumers do not only want more protein and less/ultra-processing, but also more plant-based food and anything good for the gut (肠道). The Curators, a British snackmaker, has a balancing act to perform. When the firm began making soya and lentil chips, it settled on ten grams of protein per bag. Recipes with more were not as tasty. And as food crazes come and go, a pleasant flavour may be the most enduring requirement of all.
12. What can we learn about high-protein diets
A. High-protein foods on supermarket shelves are always low in fat and sugar.
B. Their popularity was largely driven by social media and celebrity influence.
C. The majority of Google users are obsessed with adopting high-protein diets.
D. The consumption of high-protein diets in America is higher than that in Britain.
13. How does the author develop the idea in Paragraph 3
A. By presenting a series of statistical data.
B. By tracing the spread of the trend over time.
C. By analyzing the benefits through expert opinions.
D. By comparing the attitudes across different groups.
14. What is the main challenge food companies face in the high-protein market
A. Ensuring that high-protein products satisfy nutritional guidelines.
B. Reducing the costs of protein-rich products to remain competitive.
C. Balancing the dietary preferences and health concerns of consumers.
D. Convincing consumers that high-protein diets are universally healthy.
15. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Fueling the Future: The Science Behind the Protein Obsession
B. Protein Revolution: Whether Modern Diets Have Gone Too Far
C. The Rise of Protein: How Demand Reshaped Consumer Behavior
D. from Gym to Shelves: A Growing Appetite for High-Protein Diets
第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Want to write better There’s a new book that says simple writing is best
Do you check your text messages before sending ____16____ If not, you might prefer getting things done fast, even if they’re not perfect.
This book argues that it’s important to write carefully, even for quick messages. Todd Rogers and Jessica Lasky Fink, from Harvard, wrote “Writing For Busy Readers”. It’s smartly named because everyone’s busy today. People get lots of messages every day, from emails to texts. ____17____ Deciding what to read, skim, or ignore happens many times a day for almost everyone.
The authors share good writing tips, like cutting unnecessary words and using simple words everyone knows. They say it’s important to keep sentences simple. They tested the idea that less is more. For example, they sent an email to thousands of school-board members asking them to take a survey. They made the email shorter, from 127 to 49 words, and got double the responses (from 2.7% to 4.8%). ____18____
The same is true for text messages. In another test, they sent a short message asking parents to take a survey. It got more responses than a longer, more sympathetic one. Sometimes, being short and clear works better than being kind but ignored. It’s not just what you say, but how quickly you say it that matters.
It’s not just about word count. ____19____ Reducing the number of options has the same effect. Short, active sentences with common words are best.
From posts to online reviews, following these rules gets more likes and shares. Serious writers should pay attention too. A study found that companies using long sentences and complicated words were seen as less moral and trustworthy.
____20____ It might be tempting to send messages quickly and hope for the best. But taking time to write for your readers has benefits. If you send a rushed message that readers ignore, it’s like you didn’t send it at all.
A. If everyone is a busy reader, everyone is a busy writer too.
B. They can also get puzzled by social media platforms.
C. If you do, you probably like making even the simplest messages perfect.
D. They found that longer messages make people think the task will take longer.
E. Keeping messages to one idea, or as few as possible, helps make sure they’re read, remembered, and acted on.
F. Your goal is to convey enough passion that your readers think the issue in your message is worth caring about.
G. Explaining the thinking behind your messages will allow readers to see that you know what you’re talking about.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Ding dong! I looked up from the couch. Who in the world could that be My body was troubled with illness, so I’d ____21____ myself away. Friends telephoned, texted, emailed, and sent cards. I didn’t ____22____ , thinking that I had nothing to offer anyone in the miserable condition I was in.
I ____23____ got up and opened the door to a flower delivery. As I put the flowers on my dining table, I was struck by its ____24____ . It was comprised of single blossoms of many varieties that shouldn’t really ____25____ yet somehow did. The mystery flowers had come in a blue jar, without a card.
Instead of returning to the couch, I ____26____ the florist. He told me some of my friends were behind the ____27____ , secretly. “They wanted to get a ____28____ to you,” he said, “through the language of flowers.”
The group had followed him from cooler to cooler and picked very ____29____ stems after consulting an old book. “I learned some things,” the florist said, then ____30____ : “The red carnation meant ‘Our hearts ache for you.’ The yellow tulip (郁金香) wanted to see ____31____ in my smile again. The pink carnation had a few ____32____ words to say about never forgetting me.”
The more I understood what the flowers were ____33____ , the more I started to remember the woman who might have ____34____ them before I separated myself from everyone and everything. My friends knew I was still that woman, with ____35____ beyond my health.
21. A. hidden B. given C. driven D. broken
22. A. forbid B. accept C. act D. respond
23. A. cautiously B. instantly C. hesitantly D. cheerfully
24. A. size B. shape C. uniqueness D. freshness
25. A. go together B. stand out C. come up D. fade away
26 A. informed B. ignored C. rewarded D. telephoned
27. A. delivery B. program C. progress D. success
28. A. companion B. message C. commitment D. symbol
29 A. expensive B. rare C. specific D. fresh
30. A. explained B. clarified C. defined D. analyzed
31. A. kindness B. fortune C. sympathy D. sunshine
32. A. modest B. tolerant C. formal D. meaningful
33. A. involving B. saying C. smelling D. signing
34. A. advocated B. confirmed C. required D. earned
35. A. ambition B. value C. curiosity D. fantasy
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
语法填空
As an important part of the ancient Silk Road, Northwest China’s Gansu province ____36____ (see) commercial and cultural exchanges between the East and West for thousands of years. The Mogao Grottoes, ____37____ on UNESCO World Heritage Site, is one of its numerous tourist destinations. It is located at a strategic point along the Silk Road, at the crossroads of trade ____38____ with religious, cultural and intellectual influences. They are the world’s largest, most richly endowed, and longest used treasure house of Buddhist art. According to ____39____ (history) records, the carving of the caves started in 366 AD and continued for about 1,000 years. The 492 well-preserved cells and cave reserves in Mogao, ____40____ (house) about 45,000 square meters of murals and more than 2,000 painted sculptures, ____41____ (be) well-known for statues and wall paintings. The painted clay figures vary greatly ___42___ size, with the largest one being 33 meters high and the smallest only 10 centimeters. The sculptures and murals demonstrate painting styles of different times in layout, figure design, delineation and coloring, as well as the ____43____ (integrate) of Chinese and Western arts. It is the combination of civilizations ____44____ that gave rise to the magnificent, millennia-old cultural miracle embodied in Dunhuang, ____45____ diverse traditions coexist harmoniously within the confines of a single cave.
第四部分：写作（满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，你校将于6月28日开展以“传承”为主题的毕业季活动。请给你班外教Jim写一封邮件，邀请他参加，内容包括：
1. 活动内容；
2. 其他相关事项。
注意：
1. 词数80个左右；
2. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was a sunny Saturday morning, and Jake had just put on his sneakers when his phone buzzed. It was a message from Ryan: “Meet at the park in 15 minutes ” Jake smiled. It had been a long week of school, and he couldn’t wait to play basketball with his friends. Just as he was heading out, his mom called from the kitchen.
“Jake! Come back! I need your help with the storage room.”
“But Mom, I told Ryan I’d meet him at the park,” Jake protested.
“We talked about this. Grandma is moving in this weekend, so we need to clean out the storage room to make space for her.”
“Grandma ” Jake thought, the word feeling almost foreign on his tongue. He didn’t even know her that well — it had been years since she last visited, and now she was moving in He couldn’t believe he had to give up his Saturday for someone he barely knew. With complaints and sighs, he kicked at the floor as he trudged down the hallway, dragging his feet like they weighed a ton.
Stepping into the storage room, his nose wrinkled in disgust. The place was a disaster. Spiderwebs drooped from every corner, and dust swirled in the sunlight like dirty smoke. Boxes teetered in unstable stacks, a rolled-up carpet with worn edges lay half-spilled across the floor, and forgotten junk crowded every inch. Jake let out a long, dramatic sigh — this job was going to take forever.
Just as he was about to give up and sneak a text to Ryan, a faded blue album tucked at the bottom of the suitcase caught his eye. Faint words were etched on its leather cover: Stories with Jake (To Be Continued…). He pulled it out and flipped it open—the pages were filled with moments of him and his grandmother. On the very first page was a photo — On the very first page was a photo: his grandmother, much younger then, cradling a tiny baby wrapped in a soft blanket. At the bottom of the photo he saw some words in careful handwriting: “Glad to meet you, baby Jake.”
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150左右
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: As he flipped through more photos, his eyes began to mist.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: Next morning, when his grandmother stepped into her new room, Jake handed her the album.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年度第二学期期末考试试卷
高二英语
2025.06
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What major did the man choose at last
A. Medicine. B. Law. C. Economics.
2. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a restaurant. B. At a hotel. C. At a supermarket.
3. How long will the language course last
A. About half a year. B. About one year. C. About one and a half years.
4. Which part of the center opened recently
A. The cinema. B. The Art Gallery. C. The concert area.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The life of the students. B. The change of the school. C. The location of the canteen.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What does the woman intend to get for her mother
A. Some coffee. B. Some jewelry. C. Some flowers.
7. What is Fan's
A. A bakery. B. A toy shop. C. A department store.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What movies does the woman refuse to watch
A. Comedies. B. Action movies. C. Science fictions.
9. What movie will the speakers probably go for
A. The Mystery of Satellite. B. Love in the Country. C. Our Planet.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
10. Who made the woman interested in musical instruments
A. Her parents. B. Her sister. C. Her teacher.
11 What was the problem with the woman's private lessons
A. The tutor lived far. B. The lessons were dull. C. Her mother opposed it.
12. Why did the woman give up the violin halfway
A. She was tired of practicing.
B. She was buried in schoolwork.
C. She couldn't spare the time.
13. Why did the woman go back to playing the violin
A. To please her parents. B. To use it in social life. C. To pursue her interest.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. How many rooms did the first project have
A. 49. B. 59. C. 66.
15. Why does the man like the Farmer's Daughter Hotel
A. It covers a big block. B. It is near his home. C. It has many stories.
16. What do we know about the hotel Short Stories
A. Writers love it. B. It has four storeys. C. It features a large pool.
17. What is the woman trying to do
A. Find a hotel. B. Conduct an interview. C. Buy a property.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18. When will the listeners go to Birmingham
A. In March. B. In April. C. In June.
19. How will they go to Birmingham
A. By plane. B. By train. C. By coach.
20. What will the speaker do next
A. Introduce another trip. B. Hand out the schedule. C. Answer some questions.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. D 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D
第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B 18. D 19. E 20. A
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. B
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. has seen
37. a 38. and
39. historical
40. housing
41. are 42. in
43. integration
44. that 45. where
第四部分：写作（满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Jim,
I hope this email finds you well. I'm Li Hua. Our school will hold a graduation-season event themed “Inheritance” on June 28th.
The event will start with a speech by the principal, followed by students' performances, like traditional dance and poetry recitation, which show the inheritance of Chinese culture. Then, there will be a photo exhibition about our campus life.
It will begin at 9:00 a.m. in the school hall. We sincerely hope you can come and share this special moment with us.
Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】
As he flipped through more photos, Jake’s eyes began to mist. There were pictures of him as a baby, always in his grandmother’s arms — smiling, feeding him, helping him take his first steps. He hadn’t remembered any of it, but the photos told a story of love and time shared. His anger from earlier now felt silly. Taking a deep breath, he set the album aside and got to work. He rolled up the old carpet, stacked boxes neatly, and swept the floor, stirring up clouds of dust. Spiderwebs clung to his sleeves, but he didn’t stop. The room slowly changed from a forgotten mess to a clean, welcoming space. As sunlight streamed in, Jake looked around and smiled. Maybe this wasn’t such a bad way to spend a Saturday.
Next morning, when his grandmother stepped into her new room, Jake handed her the album. She blinked in surprise, then smiled softly as she ran her fingers over the worn cover. “You found this ” she asked. Jake nodded.” I didn’t know we had so many memories.” They sat together on the edge of the bed, flipping through the pages. She laughed at some photos, explained others, and paused with misty eyes at a few. When they reached the last page, Jake grinned. “Let’s add a new one.” He grabbed his phone, held it out, and the two leaned in close. “Say cheese!” Click. A fresh photo joined the album—Jake and his grandmother, smiling side by side, ready to continue their story together.

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