辽宁省盘锦市双台子区2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试卷(含答案)

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辽宁省盘锦市双台子区2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试卷(含答案)

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双台子区2024—2025学年度第二学期期末质量检测
七年级英语试卷
(本试卷共45道题 满分90分 考试时间90分钟)
考生注意:所有试题必须在答题卡指定区域内作答,在本试卷上作答无效
第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A field trip to the Sunshine Farm
Thursday, 17 July * Feed farm animals (9:00 a.m.--10:00 a.m.) * Milk cows (10:00 a.m.--11:00 a.m.) Lunch time * Pick apples (2:00 p.m.--3:30 p.m.) * Do farm work (3:30 p.m.--4:30 p.m.) Go home
What to wear and bring a hat a jacket a travel bag a water bottle a notebook a pen
Rules on the farm 1. Listen to the farmers and write important things in the notebook! 2. No running here and there. 3. Don’t litter. If you break the rule, you’ll have to do some cleaning on the farm. 4. Do not pick any plants without permission (允许). It’s important to respect the farmers.
( ) 1. They can ________ from 10:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m..
A. feed farm animals B. milk cows
C. pick apples D. do farm work
( ) 2. They should bring ________ according to the text.
A. a rope B. a map C. a tent D. a notebook
( ) 3. If someone litters on the farm, what will happen
A. They can’t feed the animals. B. They can’t pick plants.
C. They have to clean the farm. D. They will be asked to leave the farm.
( ) 4. The text is most probably from ________.
A. a notice for a class trip B. a storybook for kids
C. a science book about plants D. a history book about farms
B
Jun says goodbye to her mother with a kiss and starts her first day at a new school in America. She just moves from Hong Kong, and only knows a few English words like “hello”, “thank you” and “I don’t know”. She feels a little nervous (紧张) about the new life here.
At school, everything seems strange (陌生的)—the books, the games, the classes, and especially (尤其) the language. Her lunchbox is the only thing that reminds (使想起) her of home. When Jun opens her lunchbox, a warm feeling comes into her heart. She remembers happy times with her family and friends in Hong Kong. She seems to see colourful fireworks and taste yummy food.
After a few days, several kids come and have lunch with Jun. They share (分享) their pizza and hamburgers with her, and she shares her food, too. Soon, Jun goes home from school with her new friends. Her mother prepares a special meal for them—delicious Chinese food and tea.
Jun learns that as long as she is friendly and willing to (愿意) share, she will feel at home anywhere.
( ) 5. Jun feel nervous about her new life because ________.
A. she doesn’t like her new school B. she has few friends in America
C. she misses her friends in Hong Kong D. she doesn’t understand the language well
( ) 6. Jun’s lunchbox reminds her of ________.
A. her new classmates B. happy times in Hong Kong
C. the delicious food in America D. her first day at school
( ) 7. What do the kids do during lunch
A. They only eat their own food. B. They talk about their families.
C. They share food with each other. D. They play games together.
( ) 8. What is the text mainly about
A. Jun’s favorite food from Hong Kong.
B. Jun’s hard time learning English words in the new school.
C. The differences between American and Hong Kong schools.
D. Jun’s experience of making friends by sharing in the new school.
C
Do you know that you can eat a rainbow (彩虹) You can’t eat a rainbow in the sky, of course. You can
make a healthy rainbow out of all the different colours of fruit and vegetables.
A red apple can help keep your heart (心脏) strong. Eat this fruit for a healthy snack. Lots of red food
can help keep you from getting sick.
An orange carrot can help keep your eyes healthy. This vegetable is fun to eat between your teeth. An
orange is full of vitamins (维生素) that can help keep you from catching a cold. Have some juice of this
fruit for breakfast in the morning.
A yellow banana can give you lots of energy. Eat this fruit before you play. Yellow corn can help keep your stomach (胃) healthy.
A green avocado (牛油果) can help your body take in all the things it needs. Green broccoli (西兰花) can help keep your bones strong. You can eat it like a dinosaur (恐龙) eating a tree.
Blueberries can help you remember things. Eat this fruit every day to help you do well in school.
Purple plums (李子) help food move through your body. Have a bite of this juicy fruit. Purple grapes can help keep blood (血液) moving around your body.
The fruit and vegetables are just a few that can make up a food rainbow. Eating a rainbow every day is a fun way to stay healthy. How many colours will you eat today
( ) 9. What does eating a rainbow mean according to the text
A. Eating colorful candies. B. Eating a rainbow in the sky.
C. Eating foods in different colors. D. Eating foods with a rainbow’s shape.
( ) 10. ________ are good for our eyes according to the text.
A. Oranges B. Red apples C. Yellow bananas `D. Orange carrots
( ) 11. Blueberries can help you ________.
A. get more energy B. remember things better
C. keep your bones strong D. keep blood moving around your body
( ) 12. What is the writer’s purpose (目的) in the text
A. To tell the colors of rainbows. B. To show how to grow fruits and vegetables.
C. To explain why colorful foods are healthy. D. To teach the ways of cooking different foods.
D
Animals live in different places, and there are some “rules” in their worlds, just like we have rules in our lives.
In the forest, there are many kinds of animals, such as foxes, wolves, and eagles. The big and strong animals like wolves often look for food. They need to be careful not to go into the territory (领地) of other strong animals. This is a kind of “rule” in the forest. If they break it, there may be a fight.
In the ocean (海洋), sharks and whales are big animals. Sharks are good at hunting. They swim fast to catch smaller fish. But they also have to follow the “rule” of the ocean environment (环境). For example, they can’t overhunt in one place, or there won’t be enough food in the future.
At the zoo, we also have rules to protect the animals. We mustn’t feed the animals with our own food. This is because our food may be bad for their health. We should just watch them quietly and not make too much noise to disturb (打扰) them.
We, as humans (人类), also have a very important “rule” to follow. We need to protect (保护) the forests and oceans, which are the homes of these animals. We can’t cut down too many trees or pollute the water. If we break these rules, the animals will be in danger.
In short, whether in the wild or in the zoo, there are rules about animals. We should understand and respect these rules to keep a good balance between us and the animal world.
( ) 13. What is one of the rules in the forest according to the text
A. Strong animals don’t need to look for food.
B. Strong animals should share food with others.
C.Weak animals must give their food to the strong ones.
D. Some big and strong animals can’t go into the territory of other strong animals.
( ) 14. The underlined word “overhunt” in Paragraph 3 probably means ________.
A. hunt too many animals B. hunt animals carefully
C. stop hunting animals D. hunt animals quickly
( ) 15. We can ________ when watching zoo animals.
A. break these rules B. feed them some home-made food
C. watch them quietly D. make loud noises to let them notice you
( ) 16. What’s the best title for the text
A. Zoo Rules for Animals B. Rules about Animals
C. Ways to Protect Forests and Oceans D. Different Homes of Animals
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
Spring is here. The sky is bright blue and the air smells sweet. You can see the smiling faces and hear the laughter (笑声) of people on the street on a typical (典型的) spring day. 17
First of all, in spring we can enjoy more daylight hours than in the winter. Sunlight helps produce serotonin (产生血清素) in our bodies. 18 Even if we do nothing but stand outside, we’re often happier during this time of year.
Besides, the higher temperatures make us more active (积极的). 19 Even when we are indoors, we often open the windows and doors to allow the cool, fresh air to come in. When the air in our rooms starts getting moved around, our minds get clear as well.
20 They can be good for us. According to a study of hospital patients, having flowers in their rooms can make people feel less anxious (焦虑的). Another study shows that people feel happier when they see many birds in their communities.
Good times are always passing quickly. Let’s enjoy this beautiful season to the fullest.
A. It can make us feel happier. B. Everything begins to grow in spring. C. Why does this season make us so happy D. Finally, spring means colourful flowers and singing birds. E. The nice weather encourages us to get outside more often.
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,理解其大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Jack enjoys keeping things clean. There was a 21 near his house and it was always dirty. It belonged to Abigail, an old woman, but Jack never saw 22 outside.
After some windy days, the yard became more 23 . One day, Jack was on the way to the park and he would 24 with his friends there. However, he 25 when he saw the yard. The dirty yard made him change his 26 .
“I’m sorry. I can’t go to the 27 . I really can’t stand (忍受) the dirty yard,” Jack said.
Then Jack went to clean the yard. After he finished, he thought, “Should I let Abigail know ” Finally, he didn’t tell her.
The next morning, he heard a noise outside. He walked out and saw his neighbours in his yard. Abigail was there too, in her wheelchair (轮椅).
“Thank you so much. You are so 28 !” she held Jack’s hand and said. The other neighbours
29 him too. “Thank you for letting us know how important it is to help someone in need,” they said.
The neighbours made every Sunday afternoon “Neghibour Day”. On that day, they would help each other. After that, their street was always 30 . Now, everyone in the neighborhood lives happily, just like a big family.
( )21. A. park B. garden C. yard D. school
( )22. A. him B. her C. us D. them
( )23. A. terrible B. beautiful C. colourful D. difficult
( )24. A. meet up B. get up C. pick up D. put up
( )25. A. left B. ran C. started D. stopped
( )26. A. job B. house C. mind D. name
( )27. A. zoo B. park C. hospital D. theatre
( )28. A. funny B. playful C. lucky D. helpful
( )29. A. believed B. thanked C. helped D. taught
( )30. A. clean B. dirty C. noisy D. busy
第二部分 非选择题(共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题 1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
One day, a stag (牡鹿) arrived at a lake. When he drank water, he saw his beautiful antlers (鹿角) in the lake and 31 (feel) happy. Then he saw his thin (瘦的) legs. “What ugly legs!” the stag thought. He really hated his legs.
Then a hunter saw 32 stag. He got closer to the stag with his dogs. 33 (sudden), the stag heard the dogs and the hunter. He wanted 34 (run) away from the lake quickly, but the hunter and his dogs kept running 35 him.
When the stag ran into the forest, he got his beautiful antlers stuck (卡住) in 36 (branch). He could not move at all.
Then he heard the dogs coming closer. Once the hunter 37 (find) him, he would be in danger. He became really afraid, 38 he did not give up (放弃).
His legs tried and tried. Then his antlers got out, and the stag started running for his life. In the end, he succeeded in saving 39 (he).
After that, the stag knew how lucky he was to have such 40 (power) legs. He learnt to love them too.
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,41-43小题,每小题2分,44小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文,然后根据内容回答问题。
Jack Dawson, a 10-year-old boy from England, got interested in becoming a paramedic (医务辅助人员) when he was just two years old. At the age of three, Jack practised performing CPR(进行心肺复苏)on his teddy bears. At the same time, he was learning to speak and his parents decided to teach him first aid (急救) skills.
At the age of seven, Jack started to teach classes. He really loves teaching. He teaches people in different age groups first aid step by step. “If I can save lives, then you can!” he always says. His classes often draw 20 to 40 people and sometimes he teaches in front of 100 people. He shows them how to perform CPR. He also teaches them how to use a defibrillator (除颤器) to save people’s lives.
What’s more, Jack shares first aid skills with more people online. People are often surprised to see a young boy teaching life-saving skills, but they enjoy learning from him.
What is Jack’s goal in the future He looks forward to becoming a doctor to help more people.
41. Who taught Jack first aid skills when he was 3
42. When did Jack begin to teach classes
43. What does Jack want to do in the future
44. Do you want to take the young boy’s classes Why Write 30 words or more.
五、书面表达(满分20分)
45. 每个城市都有其特有的文化。假如你是李华,你们班安排了半天的“City Culture”探寻活动。请你根据以下提示和写作要求,写一篇英语短文, 介绍探寻我们的城市盘锦文化的一个经历,再谈谈对这项活动的感受。
提示: 1. Where did you go
2. What did you do/see there
3. How did you feel
4. What did you learn
要求: 1. 词数:80 词左右,开头已给出,不计入总词数;
2. 写作内容包含所有要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3. 语言准确,层次清晰,书写规范;
4. 文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
Last week, my class took part in an activity-- “City Culture” in Panjin.
双台子区2024—2025学年度第二学期期末质量检测
七年级英语试卷答案及评分标准
第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
1-4 BDCA 5-8 DBCD 9-12 CDBC 13-16 DACB 17-20 CAED
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
21-25 CBAAD 26-30 CBDBA
第二部分 非选择题(共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题 1分;满分10分)
31. felt 32. the 33. Suddenly 34. to run 35. after
36.branches 37. found 38. but 39. himself 40. powerful
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,41-43小题,每小题2分,44小题4分;满分10分)
His parents./His parents taught him first aid skills when he was 3.
At the age of seven./When he was seven./Jack began to teach classes at the age of seven./Jack began to teach classes when he was seven.
43. He wants to be a doctor to help more people.
44. Yes(, I do). Because his classes are useful. I can learn important life-saving skills from him. The life-saving skills can help us stay safe and help others in trouble.
/No(, I don’t.) I’ve learned a lot of first - aid skills before. My parents taught me, and I also watched many videos about it. So I don’t think I need to take these classes.
(答案不唯一,合理即可)
五、书面表达(满分20分)
45. 本题满分为20分,按五个档次赋分。
档次(分数) 评分标准
第一档(18-20分) 很好地完成了规定的写作任务,包含所有内容要点。结构完整,语句流畅,意思清楚,连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇。语法和词汇错误较少,格式正确,书写规范。
第二档(14-17分) 较好地完成了规定的写作任务,基本上包含内容所有要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,格式基本正确,书写较为规范。
第三档(10-13分) 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺。意思基本清楚,语法结构和词汇错误较多,格式基本正确,书写基本规范。
第四档(6-9分) 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务,只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚,语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
第五档(0-5分) 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务,只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或意思不明。语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。

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