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2024-2025学年第二学期期末考试
高二英语答题卡 五 应用文
姓名： 班级： 考场/座位
号：
注意事项 贴条形码区
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、班级、考场填写清楚，并认真核
对条形码上的姓名和准考证号。
2．选择题部分请按题号用 2B 铅笔填涂方框，修改时用橡皮擦干净，
不留痕迹。 （正面朝上，切勿贴出虚线方框）
3．非选择题部分请按题号用 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，否则作 66 Dear
答无效。要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。作图时，必须用 2B 铅笔，并描
浓。 fellow students ，
4．在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
5．请勿折叠答题卡,保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁。 正确填涂 缺考标记
一 听力
1 [A] [B] [C] 6 [A] [B] [C] 11 [A] [B] [C] 16 [A] [B] [C]
2 [A] [B] [C] 7 [A] [B] [C] 12 [A] [B] [C] 17 [A] [B] [C]
3 [A] [B] [C] 8 [A] [B] [C] 13 [A] [B] [C] 18 [A] [B] [C]
4 [A] [B] [C] 9 [A] [B] [C] 14 [A] [B] [C] 19 [A] [B] [C]
5 [A] [B] [C] 10 [A] [B] [C] 15 [A] [B] [C] 20 [A] [B] [C]
二 阅读理解
21 [A] [B] [C] [D] 26 [A] [B] [C] [D] 31 [A] [B] [C] [D] 36 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G] Yours sincerely
22 [A] [B] [C] [D] 27 [A] [B] [C] [D] 32 [A] [B] [C] [D] 37 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
23 [A] [B] [C] [D] 28 [A] [B] [C] [D] 33 [A] [B] [C] [D] 38 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G] Lihua
24 [A] [B] [C] [D] 29 [A] [B] [C] [D] 34 [A] [B] [C] [D] 39 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
25 [A] [B] [C] [D] 30 [A] [B] [C] [D] 35 [A] [B] [C] [D] 40 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
三 完形填空
53 [A] [B] [C] [D]
41 [A] [B] [C] [D] 45 [A] [B] [C] [D] 49 [A] [B] [C] [D]
54 [A] [B] [C] [D]
42 [A] [B] [C] [D] 46 [A] [B] [C] [D] 50 [A] [B] [C] [D]
55 [A] [B] [C] [D]
43 [A] [B] [C] [D] 47 [A] [B] [C] [D] 51 [A] [B] [C] [D]
44 [A] [B] [C] [D] 48 [A] [B] [C] [D] 52 [A] [B] [C] [D]
四 语法填空
56. 57. 58. 59.
60. 61. 62. 63.
64. 65.
第 1 页 共 4 页 第 2 页 共 4 页
{#{QQABLQQhxwqw0AQACQ76RQ3eCwqQsJESLSoGgQCYOAQKyBNAFCA=}#}
请勿在此区域作答
或者做任何标记
六 读后续写
67.Suddenly, someone pushed me out of the way.
Finally, the doctor came out and said that Anna would be fine soon.
第 3 页 共 4 页 第 4 页 共 4 页
{#{QQABLQQhxwqw0AQACQ76RQ3eCwqQsJESLSoGgQCYOAQKyBNAFCA=}#}2024-2025学年第二学期期中质量检测福州第十中学
高二年段英语学科试卷命制双向细目表
试卷类型 期末考
具体要求 试卷考查范围：选必三unit3-选必四unit1
完卷时间：120分钟
命制教师 高慧敏
审核教师 占丽兰 刘晶晶
题号 题型 分值 试题内容 难度 备注
系数
1~20 听力 30分 符合全国英语等级考试（二级）要求 中
21~35 阅读理解 37.5分 A篇 应用文：四个诗歌俱乐部介绍。 易
B篇 记叙文：励志人生 中
C篇 说明文：跑步机器人惊艳亮相北京半程马拉松比赛。 难
D篇 议论文：先锋者 难
36~40 七选五 12.5分 说明文：干净、绿色的可再生能源。 中
41~55 完形填空 15分 记叙文：讲述了主人公Jake Huang通过观察和记录动物们的日常，感悟到了人与动物和谐共处的乐趣。 中
56~65 语法填空 15分 说明文：福建土楼的特点和重要性 中
写作 第一节 15分 应用文：倡议信，提倡低碳生活。 易
第二节 25分 读后续写：记叙文，主题是友情。 中
命题 达成 优秀率 及格率 平均分
原则 目标 3%~5% 30%-40% 70-90分
1. 以新课程标准和新高考为依据；
2. 以2019年人教版新课标高中英语课本为基础；
3. 以立德树人、学科素养，关键能力、必备知识为根本，注重基础知识的全面考查，重视综合运用英语能力的检测，强调基础性、综合性、应用性、创造性；
4. 选材目标：题材广泛，体裁多样，贴近生活，与时俱进，内容健康；
5. 命题思想：渗透思政教育，凸显五育并举；具有知识性、文化性、科学性、育人性、交际性、思辨性；难度适中。
预估试卷难度值：0.55-0.65
备注： 1. 难度值=学生平均分/总分 难度值越大，表示试题越简单。2.题型可以根据实际修改。2024-2025学年第二学期期末考试
高二英语试卷
（满分：150 分；考试时间：120 分钟）
班级 姓名 座号
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
注意，听力部分答题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When will the girl graduate
A. 6 months later. B. 12 months later. C. 18 months later.
2. Why didn't the car work
A. It had no gas. B. It had a flat tire. C. It ran out of battery.
3. What is Jason doing
A. He's booking tickets. B.He's working on files. C. He's planning a trip.
4. What did the woman encourage the man to do
A. Keep on studying. B. Ask for help. C. Spend more time.
5. What does the man mean
A. He has used up his tissues.
B. He left his tissues in the classroom.
C. He will lend the woman some tissues.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the kitchen. B. In the laundry room. C. In the supermarket.
7. What will the woman do next
A. Clean up the place. B. Cook the dish. C. Cut the vegetables.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10 三个小题。
8. Why can only the girl hear the sound from her toothbrush
A. The sound is too quiet for others. B. She is wearing special earphones. C. The sound is sent through her bones.
9. What time will the girl go to bed
A.7:30 PM. B.8:50 PM. C.8:55 PM.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Fellow workers. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student.
听下面一段对话，回答第11 至第13 三个小题。
How many poems are there in the poetry collection
A. Nearly twelve. B. Nearly twenty. C. Nearly fifty.
12. Why does Manny love the initial poems
A. Because the language is descriptive.
B. Because the imageries are rich and vivid.
C. Because the theme is warm and emotional.
13. Who is Manny's favorite poet
A. Elizabeth Barrett Browning. B. Robert Browning. C. Tagore.
听下面一段对话，回答第14 至第16 三个小题。
14. What was David's major in college
A. Physics. B. Economics. C. Mathematics.
15. What do economists now think about minimum wage laws
A. They all agree they' re bad B. Their opinions have changed. C. They strongly support them.
16. How does David describe economic theories' development
A. Like changing seasons. B. Like growing trees. C. Like building houses.
听下面一段独白，回答第17 至第20四个小题。
17. What is the origin of the“10，000 steps a day” recommendation
A. A 1980s American fitness study.
B. A global health organization guideline.
C. A Japanese marketing campaign in the 1960s.
18. How can people reach the 10,000 steps goal according to Shmied
A. Set time goals accordingly. B. Sign up for training courses. C. Go to the fitness room weekly.
19. What can experienced walkers challenge to do
A. Speed up or walk up hills.
B. Walk in malls or on treadmills.（跑步机）
C. Walk outside during rainy or snowy days.
20. What can we learn about the walking club “City Girls Who Walk”
A. Participants must bring their dogs to join the activity.
B. Members walk twice a week for 40 minutes each time.
C. Participants often have meals to relax themselves afterwards.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Four Top Poetry Book Clubs
Poetry Talk
Founder Tim Burris leads Poetry Talk out of its location in Indianapolis, Indiana. Today, the book club has over 150 active members. It focuses on reading, sharing and discussing poetry. No matter what form of poetry you might be interested in, whether it is shorter poems or longer anthologies(选集), Poetry Talk is a place where you can meet others who also share an interest in poetry. Book club meetings happen every two weeks on a Wednesday evening, are held online, and always welcome new members.
The Living Poets Society Poetry Book Club
Run out of Boulder Bookstore, it is a book club where members discuss a shared book of poetry. People who are interested in poetry and connecting with individuals who also enjoy reading and having conversations about poetry are welcome. Book club meetings take place online on the second Tuesday of every month.
The club has looked at Constellation Route by Matthew Olzmann and Luxury by Philip Schultz. And the latter is the first one the club has shared.
Books to Change Your Life Chicago Book Club
The book club has been active since 2020 and now has over 1,000 active participants who read and discuss a range of different books, including poetry. In addition to enjoying engaging and insightful discussions about poetry, book club members can get to learn more about books of other genres(类型), including economics, philosophy and classic literature. Book club meetings are held online and take place weekly on Mondays.
The poetry the club has read includes Homer’s classic The Odyssey.
Poetry Meetup
It is a great place for anyone interested in reading, talking about, or even performing poetry. Book club meetings are usually held once a month. Specific dates and locations of book club meetings are available on its web page.
The Sea and The Mirro by W. H. Auden and St. Sebastien by Dali are two poems that book club meetings at Poetry Meetup have gone over.
21. Whose poem was shared by The Living Poets Society Poetry Book Club first
A. Tim Burris’s. B. Matthew Olzmann’s.
C. W. H. Auden’s. D. Philip Schultz’s.
22. What can the members do at Books to Change Your Life Chicago Book Club
A. Take courses on classic literature.
B. Discuss books of more than one type.
C. Get free poetry books on Mondays.
D. Perform poetry on stage every month.
23. How is Poetry Meetup different from the other clubs
A. It is managed by a local bookstore.
B. It focuses on discussions about poetry.
C. It requires its members to meet offline.
D. It gets its members together once a week.
B
Gregory Burns, an well-known artist and speaker, has run a marathon, climbed both Mount Kinabalu and Jade Mountain, and much more. He has gained many achievements in his life despite the fact that he had polio(小儿麻痹症) as a child.
When Burns was a year old, he was diagnosed with polio, and he lost the use of his legs. In 1962, his doctor said, “The best thing for a kid with polio would be to swim in a warm-water pool. ” So, arrangements were made for the boy to practice swimming. In the water, he felt a freedom that he didn’t experience anywhere else. In 1977, Burns discovered the Paralympic Games. He spent the next 27 years in international swimming competitions, some of which resulted in five world records.
In 1984, Burns moved to Taiwan Province where he studied Chinese art. From 1989 to 1990, he worked as a teacher at Studio Classroom. Over the years, Burns had many interesting jobs. But it wasn’t until he returned to art that he truly felt fulfilled. He went back to school and completed a Master of Fine Arts (MFA) in 1999. Then, working as a full-time artist, Burns uses his art to inspire people of all ages. He has a special interest in disadvantaged children. He employs art classes and other methods to help them to look within and make the most of the skills they do have and not to let the disabilities stand in their way when achieving their goals.
Today Burns is recognized as a world-class athlete, a motivational speaker and a notable artist. He has always aspired to excellence and encourages others to do the same.
He suggests everyone should “embrace and celebrate those things that challenge” them.
24．Which statement is true about Gregory Burns according to the text
A．He is a famous climber. B．He is a man of great achievements.
C．He lost his legs when he was a child. D．He practiced swimming for 27 years.
25．According to paragraph 3, what made Burns feel really fulfilled in his life
A．That he studied art again and worked as an artist.
B．That he worked as a teacher at Studio Classroom.
C．That he helped and inspired some disabled children.
D．That he moved to Taiwan Province to study Chinese art.
26．Which of the following words can best describe Burns
A．Determined. B．Ambitious. C．Intelligent. D．Creative.
27．What can we learn from Gregory Burns
A．A person’s attitude determines his height. B．Failure is just not enough for your efforts.
C．Actions speak louder than words. D．The world will give way to those who have goals.
C
History was recently made at a half-marathon in Beijing. In addition to welcoming 12, 000runners, the race also featured 21 robot participants.
The only design rule for the competing robots was that they were bipedal (双足行走的)instead of running on wheels. Otherwise, it was a free for all, resulting in interesting design choices with mixed results. The strategies used included robots with kid-sized sneakers, or shoes made out of tape. Some didn't have a head, while others did, resulting in teams fixing them mid-race to prevent them from falling. Others used knee pads (护膝) to prevent them from breaking in case they fall downwards — and many of them did.
Only six of the 21 robots finished the race. Running on a separate track from the human competitors, almost every robot faced difficulties, from falling down to overheating. One robot needed a cooling pad to make it to the end while others had liquid sprayed on them. All robots were accompanied by two or three human operators who ran beside them to help control their speed with control panels or to clear their path.
The winner was a robot named Tiangong Ultra, designed by UB Tech and the Beijing Humanoid Robot Innovation Center. It finished the race in two hours and 40 minutes. Despite being the robot victor, its path was not free of accidents either. It fell down once and its team had to change its batteries three times.
“Until five years ago or so, we didn't really know how to get robots to walk reliably,” Alan Fem, a robotics professor at Oregon State. “And now we do, and this will be a good demonstration of that.”
Fern also noted that there's no market demand for running robots, which likely explains why it's not a priority for developers, adding that it was definitely interesting to see them follow instructions in a challenging environment. As such, the half-marathon provided them with a platform to showcase their hardware robustness (稳定性). Ultimately, there's no need to worry——a robot will likely not beat you in a race. Not right now anyway.
28. How did the robot participants perform in the half-marathon
A. Uniform style of robots attracted public attention.
B. All robot participants operated with the aid of teammates.
C. Half of the robot participants lost their balance and fell down.
D. Six robot participants quit the race because of the high temperature.
29. What barriers did the robot participants meet during the race
A. It was forbidden to charge the batteries.
B. Human operators could not control their running speed.
C. Running together with human competitors disturbed them.
D. Some of them fell down and others had to be cooled with liquid.
30. What is special about the winner Tiangong Ultra
A. It defeated other running robot participants smoothly.
B. It wouldn't have won the championship without its team's aid.
C. It had the longest battery life among the robot participants.
D. It set a good example for the marketers and other robot participants.
31. What can be inferred from Alan Fern's comment
A. The market for running robots will definitely boom.
B. Humanoid robots will dominate humans sooner or later.
C. Running robots could not follow instructions in different situations.
D. Every small step in the half-marathon race is one giant leap in robotics.
D
People remember Neil Armstrong, the first man on the moon. However, not many will claim to know the second person on the moon, Edwin“Buzz” Aldrin, who joined Armstrong a mere 19 minutes later. People usually remember what is new. For pioneers, the act of pioneering can bring fame, influence and transformative impact, but the disadvantages can be rejection, hatred, and exploitation (利用).
The first-movers often have the advantage. Consider Steve Jobs, who took the world by storm with his invention of the handheld personal computer devices, iPad and iPhone. Reed Hastings and Marc Randolph pioneered video streaming, turning Netflix into a global giant with200 million subscribers. The stories of these pioneers abound with success and significance that the world will remember for a while. Being the first to try something is advantageous, and certainly holds water.
Yet the pioneer’s path is loaded with challenges. People are creatures of habit: they are not easily persuaded to accept something novel. James Dyson faced countless rejections when inventing the bagless vacuum (吸尘器); even after success, other makers like Shark quickly offered cheaper and improved versions. The disadvantage is clear: pioneers bear the burden of overcoming initial obstacles, only for latecomers to profit easily.
Similarly, those who are the first to challenge a societal or cultural standard may face strong disagreement and hatred from those who prefer status quo(现状). Malala Yousafzai was attacked for advocating girls’ education in Pakistan, and Mahatma Gandhi was imprisoned for leading India’s independence movement. While their courage is celebrated, such pioneers often face objection or violence. The status quo’s pull discourages many from taking the first step, even when the cause is just.
The poet Ralph Waldo Emerson said, “Do not go where the path may lead. Go instead where there is no path and leave a trail (痕迹)”, To be sure, pioneering something can be fulfilling and rewarding but not many will have the courage to handle the odds that come with starting a new path.
32. The second person on the moon is unknown because of .
A. his indifference to reputation.
B. people’s preference for novelty.
C. his contribution during the landing.
D. people’s interest in moon landing.
33. Why does the author mention Steve Jobs, Reed Hastings and Marc Randolph
A. To show the importance of being courageous.
B. To prove being the first can be advantageous.
C. To introduce their world-famous inventions.
D. To explain the process of their achievements.
34. What does the example of James Dyson imply
A. It is quite difficult to invent new products.
B. Bagless vacuums are still very popular now.
C. Makers are not easy to cooperate with at all.
D. Pioneers may face rejections and competition.
35. What writing technique does the author mainly use
A. Comparison. B. Classification. C. Definition. D. Persuasion.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项 为多余选项。
A Clean, Green Energy Future
The world’s energy demand is rising annually as countries develop and populations grow. So far, this growth has mainly relied on the use of fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas). ___36____ Thankfully, many countries are making the important change from fossil fuels to clean, green and renewable sources of energy.
Fossil fuels emit carbon dioxide, contributing to the greenhouse effect. They’re non-renewable, with limited supplies. Renewable energy, in contrast, can be naturally replaced and therefore be consumed without the risk of using them up. ____37____
Solar
Solar panels convert sunlight to electricity. It’s the fastest-growing renewable source, as the cost of the technology is falling. Some countries have successfully adopted this technology. Germany has the highest solar capacity in the world but China is the largest market and producer of solar technology.
Hydro-power
___38____ Countries such as Paraguay and Norway already produce all or most of their energy from hydro-power. Most of the renewable energy in China comes from hydro-power plants, such as the Three Gorges Dam, the world’s largest power station.
Wind
Wind turbines are turned by the wind to produce electricity. Wind farms are on land or off shore to take advantage of more frequent and powerful winds. China may meet electricity needs from wind by 2030. Wind farms in Gansu province have an endless wind supply.
Biofuel
This is material made from biological sources (such as corn or grain) or waste products that is used to produce energy. It’s used in generators for electricity, or in cars and other machines. Brazil has produced and used biofuel made from sugar cane for 40 years. China is the world’s third-largest producer of biofuel.
So what are the pros and cons of renewable energy ____39____ However, it can face issues like lack of power when wind or sun is absent, high setup costs for solar, and land use for biofuel.
Can renewables really be the future of energy Despite the modern world’s dependence on fossil fuels, renewable energy use is increasing. Given the problems of climate change, there is no doubt that they will continue to grow. As extracting fossil fuels is becoming more difficult and expensive, the cost of renewable energy is falling. New battery technology, for example, solves the problem of bringing electricity from distant sources to cities. ____40____
A. It’s clean, abundant, and low-maintenance.
B. This is why governments invest in wind energy research.
C. The power of water turns turbines (涡轮机) to generate electricity.
D. However, this reliance has led to pollution problems and climate change.
E. For example, Iceland generates nearly 100% of its electricity from renewables.
F. With our awareness of energy consumption and waste, a clean, green energy future is achievable.
G. Here are the main types of renewable energy, with facts and examples from around the world
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Jake Huang went for a walk in the park that day, he never expected to see a beaver(海狸). “It was ____41____,” Jake says, “because it was in the middle of the city.” So Jake started visiting the urban park almost daily to ____42____ the beaver with his camera.
The more time Jake spent observing in the park, the more ____43____ started appearing. Just steps away from the city, he ____44____ his camera on birds feeding their babies, raccoons washing their hands, and blue herons hunting for fish. “It was striking,” Jake says. “And what I saw really showed me the importance of ____45____.”
But then, one crow changed everything. The crow had a wounded foot and it was ____46____. “I was worried he was injured.” To his ____47____, after observing the crow for a period of time, he realized it was recovering because other crows took care of him.
Jake named him Fabian and started ____48____ the crow regularly over the next three years. “They are very intelligent, ____49____ and sympathetic animals.” Jake says. He also recorded the ____50____ between Fabian and his mate June, which led to the couple starting a family together.
____51____ Jake earned Fabian’s friendship. The crow would recognize Jake no matter what he was wearing and fly over to greet him — even after Jake had returned to the park after moving away for months. Jake says. “It was ____52____, like a Disney movie.”
Jake is now sharing his real-life movies about Fabian and all the other creatures he’s ____53____ in the city on social media. He says the mini-documentaries are like a time ____54____ to honour our natural neighbour. “By connecting with living things and having empathy, you see this whole social life is different from ours. It’s ____55____ right in front of us.” Jake smiles.
41. A. amazing B. familiar C. natural D. typical
42. A. involve B. recall C. capture D. decorate
43. A. mammals B. habitats C. nests D. creatures
44. A. based B. fixed C. relied D. focused
45. A. slowing down B. showing off C. speeding up D. searching for
46. A. healing B. running C. bleeding D. jumping
47. A. relief B. satisfaction C. grief D. desperation
48. A. assessing B. informing C. reporting D. documenting
49. A. independent B. social C. aggressive D. cautious
50. A. blessing B. mercy C. love D. faith
51. A. Eventually B. Occasionally C. Initially D. Instantly
52. A. humorous B. ridiculous C. appealing D. magical
53. A. seized B. recognized C. encountered D. assisted
54. A. keeper B. capsule C. machine D. table
55. A. unfolding B. arranging C. distributing D. transforming
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In Fujian province, over 3000 Tulou scatter (散落) in the mountains, more than any other province in China. Some of them are circular, while others are rectangular (方形的) . They also vary ___56___ size and height.
A Tulou usually has 3 to 5 floors, covering ___57___ area of around 5000 square meters. A Tulou can accommodate hundreds of people, who live and work together, __58___ (share) the public areas, as well as the public ___59___ (facility) such as the well and the stairs. So, a Tulou ___60___ (function) as a village unit. It brings unity to all the villagers, passing down the traditional culture.
The earliest Tulou ___61___ (built)in the l3th century, when the Hakka people moved to Fujian during the war. ___62___ (settle) here permanently, the Hakka people built the Tulou based on the local geographical environment, for both living and defense purposes. Featuring mud walls ___63___ are over one meter thick, a specially-designed entrance, high windows and secret tunnels (地道), the Tulou can defend against enemies effectively.
In 2008, the Fujian Tulou were on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List. Nowadays, crowds of tourists flood in to look at the incredible designs and technologies of the Tulou ___64___ admire the harmonious living style there.
When you get a chance, why not visit Fujian Tulou to take a look at these ____65____ (impress) earthen buildings
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
66. 假定你是学生会主席李华，请你以“保护环境，低碳生活”为主题，写一封英语倡议书，号召同学们积极采取行动，践行低碳生活(low-carbon life)。内容包括：
1 保护环境的重要性；2.如何低碳生活；3.发出倡议。
注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear fellow students,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落的开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
She was the new girl in our school, Anna. She had the prettiest face in our school and she had very nice manners, but I hated her. I was jealous（妒忌的） of her as I was the most popular girl in the school and I didn't want her to be liked by everyone, so I spread rumors（谣言） about her but she never looked at me with anger.
I bullied Anna mentally most of the time and I never realized that I was that rude. She would cry bitterly every time I spoke ill of her parents. Anna was being liked by more and more people because of her good attitude. I was really angry with her.
One day, I saw that there was a poster for our Prom（正式舞会）. I wanted to become the Prom Queen this time. When the Prom Princesses were announced, Anna was one of them. My heart was burning with jealousy as I had the fear that she might be chosen for Prom Queen.
I saw Anna buying a dress for her Prom from the same mall I was buying mine. We chose the same dress but she was looking more brilliant than I was with her beautiful long brown hair. When she was going back home, I followed her and went into her house. Her house was very small and I didn't see any of her family members there. I tore her dress in front of her. Her beautiful eyes were filled with tears but I didn't feel sorry for her.
Several days before the Prom, I was walking on the street while listening to a song. The volume was so high that I did not realize a car was behind me, honking（按喇叭） to warn me that it was in a very fast speed.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1 ：Suddenly, someone pushed me out of the way. Paragraph 2：Finally, the doctor came out and said that Anna would be fine soon.2024-2025 学年第二学期期末考试高二英语试卷
（满分：150 分；考试时间：120 分钟）班级
姓名 座号
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，
用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷
上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力 (共两节，满分 30 分)
注意，听力部分答题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到
答题卡上。
第一节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每
段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When will the girl graduate
A. 6 months later. B. 12 months later. C. 18 months later.
2. Why didn't the car work
C. It ran out of battery.
A. It had no gas. B. It had a flat tire.
3. What is Jason doing
C. He's planning a
A. He's booking tickets. B.He's working on files.
trip.
4. What did the woman encourage the man to do
A. Keep on studying. B. Ask for help. C. Spend more time.
5. What does the man mean
A. He has used up his tissues.
B. He left his tissues in the classroom.
C. He will lend the woman some tissues.
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作
答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6 和第 7 两个小题。
6. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In the kitchen. B. In the laundry room. C. In the supermarket.
7. What will the woman do next
A. Clean up the place. B. Cook the dish. C. Cut the vegetables.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8 至第 10 三个小题。
8. Why can only the girl hear the sound from her toothbrush
A. The sound is too quiet for others. B. She is wearing special earphones. C. The sound is sent through her bones.
9. What time will the girl go to bed
A.7:30 PM. B.8:50 PM. C.8:55 PM.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Fellow workers. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student.
听下面一段对话，回答第 11 至第 13 三个小题。
11. How many poems are there in the poetry collection
A. Nearly twelve. B. Nearly twenty. C. Nearly fifty.
12. Why does Manny love the initial poems
A. Because the language is descriptive.
B. Because the imageries are rich and vivid.
C. Because the theme is warm and emotional.
13. Who is Manny's favorite poet
A. Elizabeth Barrett Browning. B. Robert Browning. C. Tagore.
听下面一段对话，回答第 14 至第 16 三个小题。
14. What was David's major in college
C. Mathematics.
A. Physics. B. Economics.
15. What do economists now think about minimum wage laws
C. They strongly support them.
A. They all agree they' re bad B. Their opinions have changed.
16. How does David describe economic theories' development
A. Like changing seasons. B. Like growing trees. C. Like building houses.
听下面一段独白，回答第 17 至第 20 四个小题。
17. What is the origin of the“10，000 steps a day” recommendation A. A
1980s American fitness study.
B. A global health organization guideline.
C. A Japanese marketing campaign in the 1960s.
18. How can people reach the 10,000 steps goal according to Shmied
A. Set time goals accordingly. B. Sign up for training courses. C. Go to the fitness room weekly.
19. What can experienced walkers challenge to do A. Speed up or walk
up hills.
B. Walk in malls or on treadmills.（跑步机）
C. Walk outside during rainy or snowy days.
20. What can we learn about the walking club “City Girls Who Walk”
A. Participants must bring their dogs to join the activity.
B. Members walk twice a week for 40 minutes each time.
C. Participants often have meals to relax themselves afterwards.
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分 50 分) 第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满
分 37.5 分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选
出最佳选项。
A
Four Top Poetry Book Clubs
Poetry Talk
Founder Tim Burris leads Poetry Talk out of its location in Indianapolis, Indiana. Today, the book club has over
150 active members. It focuses on reading, sharing and discussing poetry. No matter what form of poetry you might be
interested in, whether it is shorter poems or longer anthologies(选集), Poetry Talk is a place where you can meet others
who also share an interest in poetry. Book club meetings happen every two weeks on a Wednesday evening, are held
online, and always welcome new members.
The Living Poets Society Poetry Book Club
Run out of Boulder Bookstore, it is a book club where members discuss a shared book of poetry. People who are
interested in poetry and connecting with individuals who also enjoy reading and having conversations about poetry are
welcome. Book club meetings take place online on the second Tuesday of every month.
The club has looked at Constellation Route by Matthew Olzmann and Luxury by Philip Schultz. And the latter is
the first one the club has shared.
Books to Change Your Life Chicago Book Club
The book club has been active since 2020 and now has over 1,000 active participants who read and discuss a range
of different books, including poetry. In addition to enjoying engaging and insightful discussions about poetry, book club
members can get to learn more about books of other genres(类型), including economics, philosophy and classic literature.
Book club meetings are held online and take place weekly on Mondays.
The poetry the club has read includes Homer’s classic The Odyssey.
Poetry Meetup
It is a great place for anyone interested in reading, talking about, or even performing poetry. Book club meetings
are usually held once a month. Specific dates and locations of book club meetings are available on its web
page.
The Sea and The Mirro by W. H. Auden and St. Sebastien by Dali are two poems that book club meetings at
Poetry Meetup have gone over.
21. Whose poem was shared by The Living Poets Society Poetry Book Club first
A. Tim Burris’s. B. Matthew Olzmann’s.
C. W. H. Auden’s. D. Philip Schultz’s.
22. What can the members do at Books to Change Your Life Chicago Book Club A.
Take courses on classic literature.
B. Discuss books of more than one type.
C. Get free poetry books on Mondays.
D. Perform poetry on stage every month.
23. How is Poetry Meetup different from the other clubs A.
It is managed by a local bookstore.
B. It focuses on discussions about poetry.
C. It requires its members to meet offline.
D. It gets its members together once a week.
B
Gregory Burns, an well-known artist and speaker, has run a marathon, climbed both Mount Kinabalu and Jade
Mountain, and much more. He has gained many achievements in his life despite the fact that he had polio(小儿麻痹症)
as a child.
When Burns was a year old, he was diagnosed with polio, and he lost the use of his legs. In 1962, his doctor said,
“The best thing for a kid with polio would be to swim in a warm-water pool. ” So, arrangements were made for the boy
to practice swimming. In the water, he felt a freedom that he didn’t experience anywhere else. In 1977, Burns discovered
the Paralympic Games. He spent the next 27 years in international swimming competitions, some of which resulted in
five world records.
In 1984, Burns moved to Taiwan Province where he studied Chinese art. From 1989 to 1990, he worked as a teacher at
Studio Classroom. Over the years, Burns had many interesting jobs. But it wasn’t until he returned to art that he truly
felt fulfilled. He went back to school and completed a Master of Fine Arts (MFA) in 1999. Then, working as a full-
time artist, Burns uses his art to inspire people of all ages. He has a special interest in disadvantaged children. He
employs art classes and other methods to help them to look within and make the most of the skills they do have and
not to let the disabilities stand in their way when achieving their goals.
Today Burns is recognized as a world-class athlete, a motivational speaker and a notable artist. He has always
aspired to excellence and encourages others to do the same.
He suggests everyone should “embrace and celebrate those things that challenge” them.
24．Which statement is true about Gregory Burns according to the text
A．He is a famous climber. B．He is a man of great achievements.
C．He lost his legs when he was a child. D．He practiced swimming for 27 years.
25．According to paragraph 3, what made Burns feel really fulfilled in his life
A．That he studied art again and worked as an artist.
B．That he worked as a teacher at Studio Classroom.
C．That he helped and inspired some disabled children.
D．That he moved to Taiwan Province to study Chinese art.
26．Which of the following words can best describe Burns
A．Determined. B．Ambitious. C．Intelligent. D．Creative.
27．What can we learn from Gregory Burns
A．A person’s attitude determines his height. B．Failure is just not enough for your efforts.
D．The world will give way to those who have
C．Actions speak louder than words. goals.
C
History was recently made at a half-marathon in Beijing. In addition to welcoming 12, 000runners, the race also
featured 21 robot participants.
The only design rule for the competing robots was that they were bipedal (双足行走的)instead of running on
wheels. Otherwise, it was a free for all, resulting in interesting design choices with mixed results. The strategies used
included robots with kid-sized sneakers, or shoes made out of tape. Some didn't have a head, while others did, resulting
in teams fixing them mid-race to prevent them from falling. Others used knee pads (护膝) to prevent them from breaking
in case they fall downwards — and many of them did.
Only six of the 21 robots finished the race. Running on a separate track from the human competitors, almost every
robot faced difficulties, from falling down to overheating. One robot needed a cooling pad to make it to the end while
others had liquid sprayed on them. All robots were accompanied by two or three human operators who ran beside
them to help control their speed with control panels or to clear their path.
The winner was a robot named Tiangong Ultra, designed by UB Tech and the Beijing Humanoid Robot Innovation
Center. It finished the race in two hours and 40 minutes. Despite being the robot victor, its path was not free of accidents
either. It fell down once and its team had to change its batteries three times.
“Until five years ago or so, we didn't really know how to get robots to walk reliably,” Alan Fem, a robotics professor
at Oregon State. “And now we do, and this will be a good demonstration of that.”
Fern also noted that there's no market demand for running robots, which likely explains why it's not a priority for
developers, adding that it was definitely interesting to see them follow instructions in a challenging environment. As
such, the half-marathon provided them with a platform to showcase their hardware robustness (稳定性). Ultimately,
there's no need to worry——a robot will likely not beat you in a race. Not right now anyway.
28. How did the robot participants perform in the half-marathon A.
Uniform style of robots attracted public attention.
B. All robot participants operated with the aid of teammates.
C. Half of the robot participants lost their balance and fell down.
D. Six robot participants quit the race because of the high temperature.
29. What barriers did the robot participants meet during the race A.
It was forbidden to charge the batteries.
B. Human operators could not control their running speed.
C. Running together with human competitors disturbed them.
D. Some of them fell down and others had to be cooled with liquid.
30. What is special about the winner Tiangong Ultra
A. It defeated other running robot participants smoothly.
B. It wouldn't have won the championship without its team's aid.
C. It had the longest battery life among the robot participants.
D. It set a good example for the marketers and other robot participants.
31. What can be inferred from Alan Fern's comment
A. The market for running robots will definitely boom.
B. Humanoid robots will dominate humans sooner or later.
C. Running robots could not follow instructions in different situations.
D. Every small step in the half-marathon race is one giant leap in robotics.
D
People remember Neil Armstrong, the first man on the moon. However, not many will claim to know the second
person on the moon, Edwin“Buzz” Aldrin, who joined Armstrong a mere 19 minutes later. People usually remember
what is new. For pioneers, the act of pioneering can bring fame, influence and transformative impact, but the
disadvantages can be rejection, hatred, and exploitation (利用).
The first-movers often have the advantage. Consider Steve Jobs, who took the world by storm with his invention
of the handheld personal computer devices, iPad and iPhone. Reed Hastings and Marc Randolph pioneered video
streaming, turning Netflix into a global giant with200 million subscribers. The stories of these pioneers abound with
success and significance that the world will remember for a while. Being the first to try something is advantageous, and
certainly holds water.
Yet the pioneer’s path is loaded with challenges. People are creatures of habit: they are not easily persuaded to
accept something novel. James Dyson faced countless rejections when inventing the bagless vacuum (吸尘器); even
after success, other makers like Shark quickly offered cheaper and improved versions. The disadvantage is clear:
pioneers bear the burden of overcoming initial obstacles, only for latecomers to profit easily.
Similarly, those who are the first to challenge a societal or cultural standard may face strong disagreement and
hatred from those who prefer status quo( 现状 ). Malala Yousafzai was attacked for advocating girls’ education in
Pakistan, and Mahatma Gandhi was imprisoned for leading India’s independence movement. While their courage is
celebrated, such pioneers often face objection or violence. The status quo’s pull discourages many from taking the first
step, even when the cause is just.
The poet Ralph Waldo Emerson said, “Do not go where the path may lead. Go instead where there is no path and
leave a trail (痕迹)”, To be sure, pioneering something can be fulfilling and rewarding but not many will have the
courage to handle the odds that come with starting a new path.
32. The second person on the moon is unknown because of .
A. his indifference to reputation.
B. people’s preference for novelty.
C. his contribution during the landing.
D. people’s interest in moon landing.
33. Why does the author mention Steve Jobs, Reed Hastings and Marc Randolph A.
To show the importance of being courageous.
B. To prove being the first can be advantageous.
C. To introduce their world-famous inventions.
D. To explain the process of their achievements.
34. What does the example of James Dyson imply A.
It is quite difficult to invent new products.
B. Bagless vacuums are still very popular now.
C. Makers are not easy to cooperate with at all.
D. Pioneers may face rejections and competition.
35. What writing technique does the author mainly use
A. Comparison. B. Classification. C. Definition. D. Persuasion.
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A Clean, Green Energy Future
The world’s energy demand is rising annually as countries develop and populations grow. So far, this growth has
mainly relied on the use of fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas). ___36____ Thankfully, many countries are making the important
change from fossil fuels to clean, green and renewable sources of energy.
Fossil fuels emit carbon dioxide, contributing to the greenhouse effect. They’re non-renewable, with limited
supplies. Renewable energy, in contrast, can be naturally replaced and therefore be consumed without the risk of using
them up. ____37____
Solar
Solar panels convert sunlight to electricity. It’s the fastest-growing renewable source, as the cost of the technology
is falling. Some countries have successfully adopted this technology. Germany has the highest solar capacity in the world
but China is the largest market and producer of solar technology.
Hydro-power
___38____ Countries such as Paraguay and Norway already produce all or most of their energy from hydro-power.
Most of the renewable energy in China comes from hydro-power plants, such as the Three Gorges Dam, the world’s
largest power station.
Wind
Wind turbines are turned by the wind to produce electricity. Wind farms are on land or off shore to take advantage of
more frequent and powerful winds. China may meet electricity needs from wind by 2030. Wind farms in Gansu
province have an endless wind supply.
Biofuel
This is material made from biological sources (such as corn or grain) or waste products that is used to produce
energy. It’s used in generators for electricity, or in cars and other machines. Brazil has produced and used biofuel made
from sugar cane for 40 years. China is the world’s third-largest producer of biofuel.
So what are the pros and cons of renewable energy ____39____ However, it can face issues like lack of power
when wind or sun is absent, high setup costs for solar, and land use for biofuel.
Can renewables really be the future of energy Despite the modern world’s dependence on fossil fuels, renewable
energy use is increasing. Given the problems of climate change, there is no doubt that they will continue to grow. As
extracting fossil fuels is becoming more difficult and expensive, the cost of renewable energy is falling. New battery
technology, for example, solves the problem of bringing electricity from distant sources to cities. ____40____ A. It’s
clean, abundant, and low-maintenance.
B. This is why governments invest in wind energy research.
C. The power of water turns turbines (涡轮机) to generate electricity.
D. However, this reliance has led to pollution problems and climate change.
E. For example, Iceland generates nearly 100% of its electricity from renewables.
F. With our awareness of energy consumption and waste, a clean, green energy future is achievable. G. Here are the
main types of renewable energy, with facts and examples from around the world
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分 30 分) 第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1 分，满分 15 分) 阅读下面短
文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Jake Huang went for a walk in the park that day, he never expected to see a beaver( 海狸 ). “It was
____41____,” Jake says, “because it was in the middle of the city.” So Jake started visiting the urban park almost daily
to ____42____ the beaver with his camera.
The more time Jake spent observing in the park, the more ____43____ started appearing. Just steps away from the
city, he ____44____ his camera on birds feeding their babies, raccoons washing their hands, and blue herons hunting
for fish. “It was striking,” Jake says. “And what I saw really showed me the importance of ____45____.”
But then, one crow changed everything. The crow had a wounded foot and it was ____46____. “I was worried he
was injured.” To his ____47____, after observing the crow for a period of time, he realized it was recovering because
other crows took care of him.
Jake named him Fabian and started ____48____ the crow regularly over the next three years. “They are very
intelligent, ____49____ and sympathetic animals.” Jake says. He also recorded the ____50____ between Fabian and his
mate June, which led to the couple starting a family together.
____51____ Jake earned Fabian’s friendship. The crow would recognize Jake no matter what he was wearing and
fly over to greet him — even after Jake had returned to the park after moving away for months. Jake says. “It was
____52____, like a Disney movie.”
Jake is now sharing his real-life movies about Fabian and all the other creatures he’s ____53____ in the city on
social media. He says the mini-documentaries are like a time ____54____ to honour our natural neighbour. “By
connecting with living things and having empathy, you see this whole social life is different from ours. It’s
____55____ right in front of us.” Jake smiles.
41. A. amazing B. familiar C. natural D. typical
42. A. involve B. recall C. capture D. decorate
43. A. mammals B. habitats C. nests D. creatures
44. A. based B. fixed C. relied D. focused
45. A. slowing down B. showing off C. speeding up D. searching for
46. A. healing B. running C. bleeding D. jumping
47. A. relief B. satisfaction C. grief D. desperation
48. A. assessing B. informing C. reporting D. documenting
49. A. independent B. social C. aggressive D. cautious
50. A. blessing B. mercy C. love D. faith
51. A. Eventually B. Occasionally C. Initially D. Instantly
52. A. humorous B. ridiculous C. appealing D. magical
53. A. seized B. recognized C. encountered D. assisted
54. A. keeper B. capsule C. machine D. table
55. A. unfolding B. arranging C. distributing D. transforming
第二节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填
入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In Fujian province, over 3000 Tulou scatter (散落) in the mountains, more than any other province in China.
Some of them are circular, while others are rectangular (方形的) . They also vary ___56___ size and height.
A Tulou usually has 3 to 5 floors, covering ___57___ area of around 5000 square meters. A Tulou can
accommodate hundreds of people, who live and work together, __58___ (share) the public areas, as well as the public
___59___ (facility) such as the well and the stairs. So, a Tulou ___60___ (function) as a village unit. It brings unity to
all the villagers, passing down the traditional culture.
The earliest Tulou ___61___ (built)in the l3th century, when the Hakka people moved to Fujian during the war.
___62___ (settle) here permanently, the Hakka people built the Tulou based on the local geographical environment, for
both living and defense purposes. Featuring mud walls ___63___ are over one meter thick, a specially-designed
entrance, high windows and secret tunnels (地道), the Tulou can defend against enemies effectively.
In 2008, the Fujian Tulou were on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List. Nowadays, crowds of tourists flood in to
look at the incredible designs and technologies of the Tulou ___64___ admire the harmonious living style there.
When you get a chance, why not visit Fujian Tulou to take a look at these ____65____ (impress) earthen buildings
第四部分写作(共两节，满分 40 分) 第一节
(满分 15 分)
66. 假定你是学生会主席李华，请你以“保护环境，低碳生活”为主题，写一封英语倡议书，号召同学们积极
采取行动，践行低碳生活(low-carbon life)。内容包括：
1 保护环境的重要性；2.如何低碳生活；3.发出倡议。
注意：1.写作词数应为 80 左右；2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear fellow students,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分 25 分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落的开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
She was the new girl in our school, Anna. She had the prettiest face in our school and she had very nice manners,
but I hated her. I was jealous（妒忌的） of her as I was the most popular girl in the school and I didn't want her to be
liked by everyone, so I spread rumors（谣言） about her but she never looked at me with anger.
I bullied Anna mentally most of the time and I never realized that I was that rude. She would cry bitterly every
time I spoke ill of her parents. Anna was being liked by more and more people because of her good attitude. I was
really angry with her.
One day, I saw that there was a poster for our Prom（正式舞会）. I wanted to become the Prom Queen this time.
When the Prom Princesses were announced, Anna was one of them. My heart was burning with jealousy as I had the
fear that she might be chosen for Prom Queen.
I saw Anna buying a dress for her Prom from the same mall I was buying mine. We chose the same dress but she
was looking more brilliant than I was with her beautiful long brown hair. When she was going back home, I followed
her and went into her house. Her house was very small and I didn't see any of her family members there. I tore her
dress in front of her. Her beautiful eyes were filled with tears but I didn't feel sorry for her.
Several days before the Prom, I was walking on the street while listening to a song. The volume was so high that
I did not realize a car was behind me, honking（按喇叭） to warn me that it was in a very fast speed.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150 个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1 ：Suddenly, someone pushed me out of the way.
Paragraph 2：Finally, the doctor came out and said that Anna would be fine soon.2024-2025学年第二学期期末试卷
高二英语 参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1~5 BABAA 6~10 ABCCB 11~15 CCAAB 16~20 BCAAC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21~25 DBCBA 26~30 ADBDB 31~35 DBBDA
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36. D 37.G 38. C 39. A 40. F
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. A
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
in 57. an 58. sharing 59. facilities 60. functions
61. was built 62. To settle 63. that/which 64. and 65. impressive
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
示范一
Dear fellow students,
Our planet is in danger. Global warming is melting ice caps, and pollution is threatening our health. Protecting the environment is no longer a choice but a must for our survival and future generations.
To live a low - carbon life, we can start with small steps. First, turn off lights and facilities when not in use to save energy. Second, choose to walk, bike, or take public transportation instead of driving private cars. Third, say no to disposable products like plastic bags and straws. Additionally, we should sort our waste to recycle resources effectively.
Let's take action now! Remember, every effort counts. By living a low - carbon life, we can make a difference and create a greener, more beautiful world.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
示范二
Dear fellow students,
The earth is facing serious environmental problems. From air pollution to water shortages, these issues affect our daily lives and the future of humanity. Environmental protection is the key to ensuring a sustainable world.
There are many ways we can embrace a low - carbon lifestyle. For instance, we can plant trees to absorb carbon dioxide and improve air quality. Also, we should use reusable shopping bags and water bottles to reduce waste. When shopping, choose products with less packaging. Moreover, participating in environmental volunteer activities can raise our awareness and inspire others.
Let's join hands and start living a low - carbon life today! Together, we can protect our planet and leave a better world for future generations.
应用文评分标准
（一）评分原则
本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。
评分时，先根据话题的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。
评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、词汇和语法结构应用的准确性、得体性及上下文的逻辑连贯性。
拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
若考生能使用较高级的词汇、短语、句型或应用一些使文章层次分明的词汇，可酌情加 1-2 分。
不拘泥于范文。除提示的内容要点外，学生自己增加的要点，只要理由充分、合乎情理，均应给分。对优秀的作文应给高分，切忌态度马虎仅给保守分，要确保评卷的公平性。
如书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次；英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（二）内容要点
第一段：倡议背景
点明全球环境污染与气候变暖的严峻现状，如极端天气频发、生态系统失衡等问题，强调环境保护迫在眉睫，引出倡议目的。
第二段：倡议具体内容
从日常生活出发，提出具体可行的环保措施。涵盖节约资源（水、电、纸张）、减少污染（垃圾分类、少用一次性用品）、绿色出行等方面，并适当说明每项措施的意义。
第三段：发出呼吁
鼓励同学们积极行动，强调个人微小行动汇聚起来的强大力量，呼吁大家携手保护地球家园，共创美好未来 。
（三）各档次的给分范围和要求参照表
第五档 覆盖了全部内容，富有逻辑性，完整地表述了写作要求； 使用了多样而且合适的词汇和语法结构，可能有一些错误，但完全不影响理解； 有效地使用了语句间的联结手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
（13-15 分）
第四档 覆盖了主要内容，比较富有逻辑性，比较完整地表述了写作要求； 使用了比较多样而且合适的词汇和语法结构，可能有一些错误，但不影响理解； 比较有效地使用了语句间的联结手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义连贯。较好地完成了试题规定的任务。
（10-12 分）
第三档 覆盖了基本内容，有一定逻辑性，基本表述了写作要求； 使用了一些而且基本合适的词汇和语法结构，错误较多，但基本不影响理解； 有效地使用了一些语句间的联结手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。基本完成了试题规定的任务。
（7-9 分）
第二档 覆盖了一些内容，没有逻辑性，未表述写作要求； 使用了很少合适的词汇和语法结构，错误很多，影响理解； 没有使用语句间的联结手段，全文结构混乱，意义不连贯。未能完成了试题规定的任务。
（4-6 分）
第一档 内容很少，没有逻辑性，未达到写作要求； 词汇和语法结构错误很多，影响理解； 没有使用语句间的联结手段，全文结构混乱，意义不连贯。未能完成了试题规定的任 务。
（1-3 分）
0 分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节 读后续写（满分 25 分）
One possible version
Suddenly, someone pushed me out of the way. To my astonishment, it was Anna who saved me but she got hit by the car. She was bleeding badly so I shouted for help. I felt as if a bullet went through my heart. She was taken to the hospital as soon as I found some help. Tears are rolling down from my eyes. I never knew that the person I hated so much would risk her life to save me. I waited anxiously to hear news about her and I couldn’t sleep.
Finally, the doctor came out and said that Anna would be fine soon. I was over the moon to hear the news. I apologized to Ann. I found out that her parents died in an accident and I invited her to stay with me in my house. She hesitated at first but I managed to make her agree. I gave her my prom dress and quitted from the prom contest. We became Best Friends Forever. From then on, I found out that beauty doesn’t lie only on your face, and that your attitude matters a lot.
（一） 评分原则
读后续写评分标准
本题总分为 25 分，按五个档次进行评分（请见参照表）。
评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为:
续写内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量。
（二） 内容要点第一段：
Anna 救我；
Anna 受伤，被送医院；
我的心情。第二段：
我的反应；
我道歉，感谢，与 Anna 成为朋友；
Anna 成为舞会皇后。注意：
续写应把握文章发展主线，只要续写合理，均可酌情给分！
如情节过于离奇，不符合发展主线或核心价值观，则总分不超过 12 分。
（三）各档次的给分范围和要求参照表
第五档 （21-25 分） 1. 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；2. 使 用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解; 3. 自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档 （16-20 分） 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高； 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影 响理解； 3. 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 （11-15 分） 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关； 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解； 尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档 （6-10 分） 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节； 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解； 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第一档 （1-5 分） 内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节； 所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解； 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
0 分 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要 求完全不相关。
听力原文
Text 1
W：Alex，what’s your plan after graduation
M：Well，I’ll go abroad for further study．And you
W：I’m not quite sure．But I still have one year to decide．
Text 2
M：Vivian，why did your car suddenly stop
W：Hmm，it couldn’t have been a flat tire．Maybe I was out of gas．
Text 3
W：Jason，have you booked the train tickets for the trip yet
M：Ugh，I meant to do it earlier，but my boss suddenly asked for the documents．I’ll get it done right after this!
Text 4
M：Look，I did poorly in the exam again．It’s so terrible．I said that I’m not good at English．I am going to give up．
W：Never mind．Remember what I said — don’t leave things half done．
Text 5
W：Do you mind sparing me a few tissues，please I happened to leave mine in the classroom．
M：Oh，I’ve run out of tissues myself．
W：Thank you all the same．I’ll ask someone else．
Text 6
M：Are you ok，Lisa The situation here is becoming a complete disaster!
W：Thanks，Tom．I accidentally spilled the flour when I was reaching for the bowl．Anyway，could you pass me the garlic
M：Sure．Do you need help cutting the vegetables so that you can clean the mess first
W：No thanks，I’ve already finished that part．The cleanup can wait until I’m done with this amazing dish!
Text 7
W：Wow! My toothbrush makes music when I brush!
M：Only you can hear this special sound．
W：But why can’t others hear it
M：It uses bone conduction technology．The sound travels through your teeth…
W：Like when I hear my own voice in my head
M：Yes! The sound wave moves through your bones to your ears．
W：So I have secret earphones in my bones Cool!
M：Pretty cool! But sweetie，look — it’s 8：50 PM．You need to get to school before 7：30 tomorrow，so you need to go to bed now．
W：Five more minutes I just need to put on my pajamas!
Text 8
M：Are you reading a novel or some sci-fi，Manny
W：Neither．I’m actually reading a poetry collection — The Crescent Moon by Tagore．
M：What’s it about
W：The English version has about 50 poems，all focusing on parent-child relationships．I especially love the 12 initial poems，from which I can sense the warmth of a mother’s hug and remind myself of childhood innocence．
M：So does that mean Tagore’s your favorite poet
W：While his vivid imagery and musical language are beautiful… I’ve always preferred Elizabeth Barrett Browning，the wife of another poet，Robert Browning．Her Sonnets from the Portuguese are absolutely breathtaking．
M：You know why I enjoy our chats You’ve got this way of making even poetry sound like an adventure!
Text 9
W：Hello，everyone．Today we have David E．Card with us．Mr．Card，what first got you interested in economics
M：Well，I was studying physics in college when my girlfriend took a basic economics course．She needed help with some math problems，so I tried to help her．
W：What happened next
M：When I read her textbook，I discovered many interesting ideas I’d never heard before．After reading most of the book，I decided to take an economics class myself．
W：That’s fascinating! What important lessons did you learn
M：Back then，professors always said things like“minimum wage laws hurt workers” or some other concepts．But these days，economists don’t all agree on that anymore．
W：How should young people handle such changing ideas
M：It’s hard to change people’s minds once they’re set．Focus on proving your own ideas through good research．First，always check the evidence．Second，remember that economics grows like a tree．Old leaves fall；new branches grow．Your generation will water this tree with fresh perspectives．
W：Wonderful metaphor! Any last thoughts
M：Economics isn’t about being right or wrong．It’s about asking better questions — just like that confused physics student who became an economist!
Text 10
Many people have heard about the walking goal of 10，000 steps a day．This advice dates back to a 1960s marketing campaign in Japan．But experts note that this is only a guideline．Shmied said the average American walks about 3，000 to 4，000 steps a day，and it is fine to increase that number to 10，000．Setting a time goal can also be useful．Shmied suggests dividing the recommended 150 minutes per week into 30 minutes a day，or 10 minutes three times a day，for five days．During rainy or snowy weather，people can walk in malls or on treadmills．As they become experienced walkers，they can speed up or walk up hills while still keeping the activity level moderate.“If you can talk but not sing，”Eby said，“that’s what we consider moderate-intensity exercise．”Walking clubs have appeared across the nation．In 2022，31-year-old personal trainer Brianna Joye Kohn started City Girls Who Walk with a TikTok post inviting others to walk with her in New York.“We had 250 girls show up，”she said．Since then，the group has walked every Sunday for around 40 minutes，with some meeting afterwards for a meal or coffee．

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