资源简介

葫芦岛市普通高中2024-2025学年下学期期末考试
高一英语
时间：120分钟 满分：150分
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生须在答题卡和试题卷上规定的位置，准确填写本人姓名、准考证号，并核对条形码上的信息。确认无误后，将条形码粘贴在答题卡上相应位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上各题目规定答题区域内，超出答题区域书写或写在本试卷上的答案无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who has a serious cold
A. Selina. B. Sue. C. Stephen.
2. How many members are there in Tom’s group now
A. Five. B. Three. C. Eight.
3. What is the woman
A. An earthquake expert. B. A soldier. C. A volunteer.
4. What are the speakers mainly complaining about
A. Long working hours. B. The hot weather. C. The fan in the room.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Aunt and nephew. B. Co-workers. C. Doctor and patient.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man’s favorite part of the film
A. The special effects. B. The scenery. C. The wonderful music.
7. What will the woman probably do next weekend
A. Meet the famous actors. B. See the movie. C. Get away from the ocean.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. How long will the boy’s trip be
A. About one day. B. About two days. C. About three days.
9. What can the boy do during his trip
A. Enjoy the sunrise. B. Go camping. C. Look at the stars.
10. What does the girl think of riding a motorcycle
A. Relaxing. B. Exciting. C. Dangerous.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man reading
A. A detective book. B. A classical textbook. C. A historical novel.
12. How does the man feel about the book he is reading
A. It is boring. B. It is fun. C. It is accurate.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a library. B. In a bookstore. C. In the man’s house.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is the weather like in London in the winter according to the woman
A. Cold and sunny. B. Cold and windy. C. Cold and rainy.
15. How does the woman usually travel to work
A. By bus. B. By underground. C. By taxi.
16. What does the woman think is cheap in London
A. Restaurants. B. Transportation. C. Supermarkets.
17. Where did the woman celebrate her birthday last Saturday
A. In an Italian restaurant.
B. In a British restaurant.
C. In a Greek restaurant.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. How many chapters will be covered on the exam
A. 3. B. 10. C. 15.
19. When will the exam be
A. Next Wednesday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Friday.
20. Who can take the makeup exam
A. Anyone with a letter from the headmaster.
B. Anyone whose parents call the professor.
C. Anyone with a doctor’s note.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Summer Reading Recommendations for Teens
As summer vacation approaches it’s the perfect time for teens to dive into some amazing books. Here are several great reads recommended by educators and literary experts that can make your summer both fun and meaningful.
The Alchemist by Paulo Coelho
This international best-seller tells the story of Santiago, a young shepherd boy who dreams of finding treasure at the Pyramids of Egypt. Along his journey across the desert, he meets various characters who teach him about following his dreams, listening to his heart, and understanding the language of the world. Filled with wisdom and inspiration, it encourages teens to explore their own paths in life and not be afraid to take risks to pursue their goals.
To Kill a Mockingbird by Harper Lee
Set in the racially divided South of the United States during the 1930s, this classic novel is told from the perspective of Scout Finch, a young girl growing up in a small town. Through Scout’s eyes, readers witness her father, Atticus Finch, a lawyer, defend a black man wrongly accused of a crime. The story explores themes of justice, equality, prejudice, and growing up. Despite being written many years ago, its lessons remain highly relevant today.
Wonder by R. J. Palacio
Auggie Pullman, a 10-year-old boy with a facial deformity (缺陷), enters mainstream school for the first time in this heartwarming novel. Facing challenges like bullying and fitting in, Auggie shows courage, friendship, and acceptance in his story. The book is told from multiple perspectives, including Auggie’s, his sister’s, and his friends’, which gives readers a comprehensive view of the impact of kindness and the importance of looking beyond appearances.
1. What message does The Alchemist convey
A. To show the beauty of desert landscapes.
B. To tell an exciting adventure story.
C. To inspire teens to pursue their dreams bravely.
D. To introduce different cultures along the journey.
2 Why is To Kill a Mockingbird still significant today
A. It describes a unique childhood experience.
B. Its themes of justice and equality are timeless.
C. It provides historical details of the 1930s.
D. Its writing style is easy to understand.
3. What can readers learn from Wonder
A. The power of kindness and empathy.
B. The importance of having a strong family.
C. How to deal with physical deformities.
D. Ways to succeed in mainstream schools.
B
In a busy community center in London, there lies a unique school run by Mr. Green, a dedicated educator with a heart full of passion for helping disadvantaged children. This school isn’t like the ordinary ones. It serves as a home for children from low-income families, those with learning difficulties, and even some who have faced various traumas (心灵创伤) in their young lives.
Each year, around 80 children step into this special school. The classrooms here are far from traditional ones. Instead of rows of desks and chairs, there are cozy reading comers, interactive learning stations, and cooperative workspaces. The school curriculum is suitable for various needs of its students. For children from challenging family backgrounds, counselors are on-site to provide emotional support and guidance.
Mr. Green firmly believes that academic achievements aren’t the only measure of success in this school. “Here, we focus on nurturing the whole child,” he says. “We aim to build their confidence, teach them essential life skills, and help them discover their hidden talents.” To this end, the school offers a wide range of extracurricular activities, from art and music classes to sports programs that promote teamwork and physical well-being.
One of the most remarkable aspects of this school is its strong sense of community. Parents are actively involved in their children’s learning journey. They often volunteer in the classrooms, participate in parent-teacher meetings, and even help organize school events. “When parents are engaged, children feel more supported and motivated, which helps them thrive,” Mr. Green explains.
However, running such a school isn’t without its challenges. Funding is always a concern, as the school relies on donations, grants (基金), and community support to maintain its programs and facilities. But despite these difficulties, Mr. Green and his team remain committed. “Seeing the progress these children make, watching them grow into confident and capable individuals, that’s what makes all the hard work worthwhile,” he says with a smile.
4. Who are the main students of the special school in the community center
A. Children who have difficulties in economy or psychology.
B. Children who seek further improvement in academy.
C. Children who need special training in confidence.
D. Children who hope to develop their talents in reading.
5. What does Mr. Green think is important in the school’s education
A. Improving students’ academic grades.
B. Cultivating students in an all-round way.
C. Encouraging students to compete with each other.
D. Helping students get into famous universities.
6. What does the underlined word “thrive” in paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Recover. B. Survive.
C. Struggle. D. Succeed.
7. What can be inferred from the passage about the special school
A. It has little trouble in getting enough funding.
B. The traditional teaching methods are widely used there.
C. It gains help from the joint efforts of different parties.
D. Most students there will become famous artists or athletes.
C
In recent years, home fitness has surged in popularity. With the convenience of online platforms and the development of fitness equipment suitable for small spaces, more and more people are choosing to work out at home.
Emma Thompson, a working mother, used to struggle to find time to go to the gym. “I was always too busy with work and family chores,” she says. But since she started following online fitness classes at home, everything has changed. “I can exercise during my break time or after putting my kids to bed. It’s so flexible,” Thompson notes. She now has a regular exercise routine, combining strength training and aerobic exercises, and has noticed significant improvements in her energy levels and physical strength.
Fitness experts point out that home fitness offers several advantages. Firstly, it saves the time and cost spent on commuting to the gym. Secondly, people can choose from a vast variety of online courses, tailored to different fitness levels and goals. For example, beginners can start with gentle stretching and basic strength-building exercises, while more advanced fitness enthusiasts can challenge themselves with high-intensity interval training (HIIT) programs.
Moreover, the development of smart fitness equipment has further enhanced the home fitness experience. Smart treadmills (跑步机) can adjust speed and adapt themselves according to users’ fitness data, and interactive exercise bikes allow users to join virtual cycling races with people from all over the world. These technologies make home workouts more engaging and effective.
However, home fitness also has its challenges. One of the biggest issues is the lack of professional guidance. Without a personal trainer present, it’s easy for people to use incorrect postures, which may lead to injuries. Additionally, staying motivated at home can be difficult.Without the competitive atmosphere of a gym, some people may find it hard to stick to their exercise plans. To overcome these challenges, experts suggest that people should do thorough research before starting a new fitness program, and choose courses or equipment that suit their needs.
8. Why did Emma Thompson start home fitness
A. She preferred online fitness classes.
B. She couldn’t afford the gym membership.
C. She was too occupied to go to the gym.
D. She wanted to try smart fitness equipment.
9. According to the text, who would most likely choose HIIT programs
A. Beginners seeking gentle exercises.
B. Advanced fitness enthusiasts.
C. Parents with limited evening time.
D. People recovering from injuries.
10. According to the last paragraph, what is one of the challenges of home fitness
A. Risk of getting injured due to incorrect postures.
B. Difficulty in finding suitable online courses.
C. Lack of a quiet exercise environment at home.
D. High cost of smart fitness equipment.
11 Where is this text most likely from
A. A personal diary.
B. A health and lifestyle magazine.
C. A historical document.
D. A science fiction novel.
D
In the wetlands of Northeast China, a remarkable transformation is underway. For decades, overfishing and land reclamation (开垦) damaged the habitats of red-crowned cranes, pushing these graceful birds to the edge of extinction. However, in recent years, local communities, alongside environmental organizations, have launched extensive conservation efforts.
Farmers near the wetlands have shifted from intensive agriculture to eco-friendly practices. They’ve planted native aquatic plants and reduced the use of pesticides (杀虫剂), creating a more friendly environment for the cranes. “At first, it was a tough decision,” said Li Ming, a local farmer. “But seeing the cranes return and thrive has made it all worthwhile.” His fields now serve as crucial stopover sites for the migrating birds.
Conservationists have also set up monitoring systems to track the cranes’ movements and breeding patterns. Data shows that the number of red - crowned cranes visiting the area has increased by 40% in the past five years. These efforts not only benefit the cranes but also have a positive effect on the entire ecosystem. For instance, the restored wetlands now act as natural water purifiers, improving local water quality.
China’s experience in red - crowned crane conservation has become a valuable international case study. Chinese experts are actively sharing their knowledge and techniques with other countries facing similar ecological challenges. They collaborate (协作) with international organizations to develop unified conservation strategies, aiming to protect not only the red-crowned cranes but also countless other endangered species around the globe. As Wang Lei, a Chinese environmental diplomat, emphasizes, “Our conservation work in Northeast China is a contribution to the global ecological cause. By safeguarding these precious birds and their habitats, we are fulfilling our responsibility as a major country, showing the world that China is committed to building a community of life on Earth.”
12. Why did local farmers change their farming methods
A. To boost crop yields.
B. To attract tourists.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To aid crane conservation.
13. What can be inferred about the conservation efforts
A. Their main advantage is only for crane population growth.
B. They bring extra economic benefits besides saving the birds.
C. Most of the money comes from the government.
D. The local environment is becoming more habitable for cranes.
14. What does Wang Lei’s statement reflect
A. China takes on its responsibility in global eco - protection.
B. China focuses on domestic protection without cooperation.
C. China aims to show off its ecological success globally.
D. China believes small-scale projects are key to conservation.
15. What is the author most likely to write about next
A. Typical cases of how other countries have failed to protect endangered species.
B. Detailed introductions of new high - tech equipment used in red-crowned crane monitoring.
C. Examples of international cooperation inspired by China’s crane conservation model.
D. An analysis of the economic benefits brought by eco - friendly farming in Northeast China.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Effective Ways to Learn a Foreign Language
Are you determined to make progress in your foreign language learning Tired of memorizing endless vocabulary lists ____16____ Adopting the right methods can help you achieve fluency faster than you think.
●Immerse Yourself in the Language
Surrounding yourself with the target language is one of the most powerful ways to learn. Instead of just studying grammar books, try watching movies, TV shows, or listening to podcasts (播客) in the language you’re learning. ____17____ This way, learning becomes fun and you can remember things better.
●Practise with Native Speakers
Conversation is key to mastering a language. Engaging with native speakers allows you to practise real-life communication. You can find language exchange partners online, join local language clubs, or even take language courses taught by native instructors. ____18____ Don’t be afraid to make mistakes — native speakers are often happy to help you improve.
●Set Clear, Achievable Goals
Having clear goals gives your learning direction and motivation. Whether it’s mastering 50 new words each week, having a 10-minute conversation each day by the end of the month,or passing a specific language exam, break down your long-term objectives into smaller,actionable steps. ____19____ Celebrating these small victories along the way will keep you motivated.
●Use Memory Techniques
Remembering vocabulary and grammar rules can be challenging, but effective memory techniques can make it easier. Instead of rote memorization, try creating relations, using flashcards, or applying new words in sentences. ____20____ This method helps you build vocabulary systematically. Spaced repetition, a method that reviews information at increasing intervals (间隔), has also been proven to strengthen long-term memory.
A. Another good idea is to learn words by topic.
B. Practising and reviewing often are important for learning a language.
C. Luckily, there are good ways to learn a language more easily.
D. The more you use the language, the faster you’ll learn it.
E. Small steps help you see your progress and stay focused.
F. Talking to native speakers helps you speak better and feel more confident.
G. These activities make learning enjoyable and help you retain words more effectively.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
The earthquake was over and the city was in ruins. I had no choice but to walk home as all the ____21____ had stopped as a result of the quake. On my way home I ____22____ an old lady at a bakery (烘焙店) giving out free bread, which made my heart ____23____. A man was holding a sign saying, “Please use our ____24____.” He was opening his house for people to go to the toilet.
Then the next day I drove to have my car ____25____. There was not enough ____26____ now and many gas stations were either closed or had very long ____27____. I got worried, since I was behind fifteen cars. Finally, when my ____28____ came, the man smiled and said. “Because of this situation, we are only giving $30 worth of gas per person. Is that all right ” “Of course. It’s nice that we are all able to ____29____,” I said. His smile gave me so much comfort.
At the shelter center I saw a man _____30_____ when people brought food to him. It was the first time in three days that food had been _____31_____ there. However, after he dried the tears, his next _____32_____ surprised me. “I am very _____33_____. that we are provided with food. But people in the city next to us haven’t _____34_____ any food at all. Please go to that center as well.” Hearing that, I realized there was a bright future on the other side of this _____35_____.
21. A. traffic B. lift C. donation D. business
22. A. crashed B. caught C. rescued D. spotted
23. A. scared B. broken C. empty D. warm
24. A. kitchen B. bathroom C. living room D. bedroom
25. A. cleared up B. filled up C. cleaned up D. built up
26. A. food B. gas C. oxygen D. water
27. A. ranks B. paths C. routes D. lines
28. A. turn B. time C. order D. determination
29. A. cease B. offer C. share D. profit
30. A. eating B. erupting C. weeping D. singing
31. A. delivered B. stored C. left D. kept
32. A. roles B. words C. behaviors D. promises
33. A. shocked B. curious C. confused D. grateful
34. A. received B. cooked C. prepared D. exported
35. A. disaster B. chance C. shelter D. center
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Every country has its own intangible cultural heritage. In terms of Chinese intangible cultural heritage, traditional fan making is ____36____ remarkable craftsmanship that combines practicality with artistry. With a history ____37____ (span) over 3,000 years, fans have served as more than just cooling devices; they are symbols of status, carriers of literature, and canvases for art.
The art of fan making ____38____ (date) back to the Shang Dynasty, ____39____ primitive fans made from bird feathers or bamboo ____40____ (use) in rituals and royal ceremonies. During the Han Dynasty, fans evolved into decorative items, with silk and lace becoming popular materials. The Tang and Song Dynasties saw fans bloom as cultural icons — scholars carried folding fans written with poems, while noble ladies waved round silk fans ____41____ (paint) with delicate landscapes. By the Ming and Qing Dynasties, regions like Suzhou and Hangzhou became renowned for ____42____ (they) exquisite fan craftsmanship, turning fans into treasures of daily life.
Fans are ____43____ (true) rooted in Chinese culture, indicating social status, expressing emotions through art, and playing important roles in festivals. In modern times, despite challenges, traditional fan making thrives. Listed as national intangible cultural heritage in 2006, it benefits ____44____ training programs. Fan elements also inspire modern fashion and decoration, and Chinese fans gain global _____45_____ (popular) through cultural exchanges.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华，学校英文社团组织周末团建活动，提供“户外徒步(outdoor hiking)”和“老年关怀志愿服务(eldly care volunteer service)”两个选项。请给社团负责人James写一封邮件，内容包括：
(1)你的选择；
(2)说明理由。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear James,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best Wishes,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The annual school sports meeting finally arrived. The playground buzzed with excitement as students waved colorful flags. Amy, a member of the Blue Falcons, stood at the starting line of the 4×100-meter relay, both nervous and thrilled. Her team had practised running daily for weeks, aiming for the gold medal. “Where there is a will, there is a way,” they believed, their determination unwavering.
As the whistle blew, the first runner dashed forward. Then it was Sarah’s turn. When the baton (接力棒) reached Amy, panic struck. Her fingers slipped, and the baton dropped to the ground. Other teams rushed past. Tears blurred her vision; she felt like a failure.
But Sarah, sprinted to her side. “It’s okay! Run!” Sarah thrust the baton into Amy’s hand. Fueled by guilt and Sarah’s encouragement, Amy took off. “When the going gets tough, the tough get going,” she thought, pushing her legs to catch up. She finally passed the baton to Lily.
Lily raced towards the finish line. The Blue Falcons’ supporters cheered wildly. Though they didn’t win first, they placed third. Expecting disappointment, Amy was touched when her teammates hugged her. “We’re a team,” Mark said. “Many hands make light work, and we proved it today.”
After the race, the team gathered under a tree. Amy apologized, but Lily smiled. “You saved our race!” Sarah added, “We learned teamwork means sticking together. Unity is strength, and now, we’re unbeatable.” As the sun set, the Blue Falcons left the field, closer than ever, carrying the lesson of teamwork in their hearts.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next day at school, the Blue Falcons’ teacher organized a special team meeting.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
From then on, Amy grew more confident not only in sports but also in her studies.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
葫芦岛市普通高中2024-2025学年下学期期末考试
高一英语
时间：120分钟 满分：150分
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生须在答题卡和试题卷上规定的位置，准确填写本人姓名、准考证号，并核对条形码上的信息。确认无误后，将条形码粘贴在答题卡上相应位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上各题目规定答题区域内，超出答题区域书写或写在本试卷上的答案无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who has a serious cold
A. Selina. B. Sue. C. Stephen.
2. How many members are there in Tom’s group now
A. Five. B. Three. C. Eight.
3. What is the woman
A An earthquake expert. B. A soldier. C. A volunteer.
4. What are the speakers mainly complaining about
A. Long working hours. B. The hot weather. C. The fan in the room.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Aunt and nephew. B. Co-workers. C. Doctor and patient.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man’s favorite part of the film
A. The special effects. B. The scenery. C. The wonderful music.
7. What will the woman probably do next weekend
A. Meet the famous actors. B. See the movie. C. Get away from the ocean.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. How long will the boy’s trip be
A. About one day. B. About two days. C. About three days.
9. What can the boy do during his trip
A. Enjoy the sunrise. B. Go camping. C. Look at the stars.
10. What does the girl think of riding a motorcycle
A. Relaxing. B. Exciting. C. Dangerous.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man reading
A. A detective book. B. A classical textbook. C. A historical novel.
12. How does the man feel about the book he is reading
A. It is boring. B. It is fun. C. It is accurate.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a library. B. In a bookstore. C. In the man’s house.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is the weather like in London in the winter according to the woman
A. Cold and sunny. B. Cold and windy. C. Cold and rainy.
15. How does the woman usually travel to work
A. By bus. B. By underground. C. By taxi.
16. What does the woman think is cheap in London
A. Restaurants. B. Transportation. C. Supermarkets.
17. Where did the woman celebrate her birthday last Saturday
A. In an Italian restaurant.
B. In a British restaurant.
C. In a Greek restaurant.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. How many chapters will be covered on the exam
A. 3. B. 10. C. 15.
19. When will the exam be
A. Next Wednesday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Friday.
20. Who can take the makeup exam
A. Anyone with a letter from the headmaster.
B. Anyone whose parents call the professor.
C. Anyone with a doctor’s note.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. G 18. F 19. E 20. A
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21 A 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. A
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. a 37. spanning
38. dates 39. when
40. were used
41. painted
42. their 43. truly
44. from 45. popularity
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】应用文参考范文1
Dear James,
I’m writing to express my strong interest in the “outdoor hiking” activity. Living in the city for a long time, I’m constantly surrounded by tall buildings and busy streets. This hiking activity is a perfect chance to escape the daily routine and get close to nature. Just imagining walking along the winding mountain paths, breathing in the fresh air, and listening to the chirping of birds makes me feel relaxed already. Moreover, hiking is an excellent form of exercise. As we climb up and down the hills, every step helps to strengthen my muscles. Meanwhile, I can enjoy the beautiful scenery along the way. I believe this activity will not only benefit my health but also offer opportunities to make new friends. Looking forward to joining!
Best wishes,
Li Hua
应用文参考范文2
Dear James,
I’m Li Hua, and I’m eager to participate in the “elderly care volunteer service.” My grandparents live in another city, and I rarely have the chance to spend time with them. This activity offers me a precious opportunity to show care to the elderly right here in our community. I can help them clean their rooms, buy daily necessities, or simply sit by their side and chat.Secondly, I firmly believe the elderly possess a wealth of life wisdom. Through chatting with the elderly in this volunteer service, I’m sure I can learn lessons that aren’t available in textbooks. I’m convinced this experience will not only warm their hearts but also enrich my life. I can’t wait to bring smiles to their faces. Looking forward to contributing!
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】
The next day at school, the Blue Falcons’ teacher organized a special team meeting. As everyone settled down, the teacher displayed photos of the relay race on the screen. “Look at these pictures,” she said, pointing at a snapshot of Amy catching up after dropping the baton. “This isn’t just about winning; it’s about how you faced challenges together.” Then, she handed out small cards and asked each student to write down what teamwork meant to them. Mark shared, “It’s about lifting each other up, like we did for Amy.” The team decided to start a “buddy system” for future practices, ensuring no one felt left behind.
From then on, Amy grew more confident not only in sports but also in her studies. Inspired by her team’s support, she joined a study group, using the same spirit of teamwork. When facing difficult math problems, she’d ask for help, just as her teammates had helped her on the track. One day, during a group project, her classmates struggled with ideas. Remembering “unity is strength,” Amy encouraged everyone to share their thoughts. Their combined efforts earned them top marks. “Teamwork really does make the dream work,” she told her teammates, smiling brightly.

展开更多......

收起↑