资源简介

听力材料
Text 1
M:We have seen two houses,so which one do you prefer
W:The second one,please.Although it seems expensive,it could free me from a lot of unnecessary troubles in the
long run.
Text 2
M:Excuse me,do you know how I can get to the museum
W:Yes.Go straight and pass the traffic lights.Take the second right to King's Road.Then pass the bookshop.The
building is beside the hotel and opposite the cafe.
M:Oh,it sounds like a long way.Maybe I should take a taxi.
Text 3
W:Jason,why are you looking so depressed
M:I'm much fatter than I used to be.But I really like eating meat.
W:Any kind of meat I only like beef.
M:Yes.To make matters worse,dessert is my favorite.
Text 4
M:Hi,Diane.It's rare to see you here.
W:Hello,Joe.I usually cook and bring my lunch to the office.I came here for a change today.
M:The environment here is good,right
W:Yeah,it's clean and quiet.
Text 5
M:Good morning,Miss Jones.
W:Morning,Mr.Brown.We're glad that you join our company.
M:Thanks.What will be my duties
W:You will work as an engineering assistant.
Text 6
M:Miss White,I'm sorry I'm late.
W:The school starts at 8:30 a.m.and you're almost an hour late.Why
M:Well,my mom drove my sister and me to school today.We dropped my sister off at her school first,and then we were
stuck in traffic on the way here.
W:OK.But why don't you go to school by public transportation You know many high school students choose to take the
subway or bus.By choosing public transport,we can contribute to a cleaner environment,better public health,and
more sustainable urban development.
M:I got it.I will do that from tomorrow.
Text 7
W:Hi,this is Sarah speaking.Are you back from London,John
M:Yes,Sarah.What do you call me about
W:I'm sorry to bother you.But I have a business dinner in Seattle tomorrow evening.I wonder if you can drive me there.
You know Jack is on vacation in Boston now.
M:Oh,don't worry.I can drive you there.When should I pick you up How about 4:00 p.m.
W:That's a little bit early.I want to put it off for half an hour.
M:OK.See you tomorrow.
W:Thanks a lot,John.See you.
Text 8
W:Have you ever gone through a hard time in your life 2024—2025学年第二学期高二年级期末考试
英语试卷
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
考试时间为120分钟，满分150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What do we know about the woman
A. She can’t afford a house. B. She prefers the second house. C. She is in trouble now.
2. Where is the museum
A. Opposite the bookshop. B. Beside the cafe. C. Next to the hotel.
3. Why is the man upset
A. He has to stop eating meat. B. He has put on lots of weight. C. He can’t eat dessert.
4. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. At home.
5. What is Mr. Brown doing
A. Conducting an interview. B. Beginning his first day at work. C. Introducing his working experience.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is a reason for the boy’s being late
A. He missed the school bus. B. He drove his sister to school first. C. He encountered a traffic jam.
7. How will the boy probably go to school tomorrow
A. By car. B. By underground. C. On foot.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Why does the woman call the man
A To ask for a favor. B. To invite him to dinner. C. To make an apology.
9. When will the speakers meet tomorrow
A. At 3: 30 p. m. B. At 4: 00 p. m. C. At 4: 30 p. m.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How much time did the man spend on skating each week
A. 28 hours. B. 20 hours. C. 14 hours.
11. Which part of the man’s body suffered a serious injury
A. His arm. B. His leg. C. His waist.
12. What makes the man regain confidence
A. Teaching volunteers. B. Doing community service. C. Reading books.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does Phil learn Chinese
A. To find a permanent job in China. B. To challenge the hardest language.
C. To get the benefits associated with it.
14. How does Nancy think about Chinese
A. It’s too difficult to learn. B. It’s the hardest language. C. It’s a challenging language.
15. Where does Nancy want to live in the future
A. In Belgium. B. In America. C. In China.
16. What will Phil do after completing his studies
A. Work in New York. B. Return to Chicago. C. Visit Los Angeles.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Why are hurricanes and typhoons mentioned in the talk
A. To compare their influence with heat wave.
B. To discuss their naming and ranking systems.
C. To introduce the first official name for a heat wave.
18. What was the highest temperature in Spain in July
A. 40℃. B. 43℃. C. 41℃.
19. In which country were road surfaces melted by the heat
A. Italy. B. Greece. C. Portugal.
20. What do we know about heat waves in the US in 2022
A. They caused 85 major wildfires.
B. They set nearly 60 temperature records.
C. They made 9 million people live under a heat warning.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The British National High School Poetry Competition is now open for submissions! This event aims to celebrate the creativity and literary talent of high school students across the country. Whether you’re an experienced poet or just starting out, this is your chance to display your work and gain recognition.
Theme
This year’s theme is “Visions of Tomorrow”. Poets are encouraged to let your imaginations run wild and pen down your thoughts on what the future might hold, whether it’s technological advancements, social changes, or environmental challenges.
Qualification
Open to all high school students (grades 9-12).
Each participant may submit up to two poems.
Poems must be written in English and should not go beyond 40 lines.
Entries (参赛作品) that have been previously published or submitted elsewhere are not accepted.
Submission Guidelines
Format: Poems must be typed in 12-point Times New Roman font(字体), single-spaced.
Deadline: All submissions must be received by July 31, 2025. Late entries will not be accepted.
How to Submit: Poems should be emailed to poetrycompetition@nationalarts.org with the subject line “Poetry Submission-[Your Name]”. Include your name, grade, school, and contact information in the body of the email.
Judging Standard
Poems will be evaluated based on creativity, originality, emotional impact, and technical skill (e.g., rhyme, rhythm, and word choice). A group of respected poets and educators will serve as judges.
Prizes
1st Place: $1, 000 cash prize+ publication in National Literary Review.
2nd Place: $500 cash prize+ certificate of achievement.
3rd Place: $250 cash prize+ certificate of achievement.
Previous Winner
Last year, the competition attracted over 6, 000 entries from all corners of the country. The winning poem, “The Future Unveiled”, was a thought-provoking piece that painted a vivid picture of a sustainable future.
1. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To encourage students to read more poetry.
B. To announce the winners of a poetry competition.
C. To promote a literary magazine for high school students.
D. To provide guidelines for submitting poems to a competition.
2. Which of the following is the requirement for poem submission
A. Poems must be original. B. Poems must be handwritten.
C. Participants can only submit one poem. D. Poems must be written within 40 words.
3. What is the key standard while evaluating all entries
A. Length and imagination. B. Innovation and technique.
C. Popularity and influence. D. Completeness and skill.
B
The world is full of more than 7, 000 living languages. And we have a hard time hanging onto them: About one-fifth are endangered. So I was more than willing to give David J. Peterson more publicity (宣传) for what could be explained as his mad pursuit: He spends all day, every day dreaming up languages for TV shows, movies and video games.
When Peterson was an undergraduate student at UC Berkeley, he saw a flier (传单) advertising an Esperanto class. It was the first time he’d heard of such a thing as an invented language, but it wouldn’t be the last. After years of learning in the class, Peterson became an inventor of languages. It’s a job that’s led him to a career in Hollywood. He’s created languages in the film Bright and Doctor Strange and more recently, Dune.
The languages that made him famous were the ones he created for Game of Thrones, especially Dothraki. In 2009, the show’s producers were looking for someone to come up with a language for the Dothraki people. So, Peterson spent the next few weeks putting together about 300 pages of material on Dothraki. He started with the speech sounds and then moved on to grammar, starting with nouns, “because they’re simpler”. Verbs, then other parts of speech were next, followed by sentence structure and derivation (派生). Then he built the vocabulary.
What Peterson creates is called conlang (人造语言), which has existed for centuries, but the coming of the Internet created a true community of peers. Most fascinatingly, Peterson theorizes how a larger conlang community could help mankind expand its understanding of the potential for written and spoken communication. “Someday in the future we may encounter aliens, and they may have a communication system that doesn’t even qualify as a language to us,” he says. “But the more we’ve seen, the more we know about, the more we suppose, the better we are going to be able to deal with something like that. ”
4. What can we know from the first two paragraphs
A. Peterson dropped out of college to pursue a career.
B Peterson was greatly influenced by Esperanto class.
C. One-fifth of languages in the world have disappeared.
D. Peterson was passionate about researching artistic languages.
5. Which film brought Peterson reputation for creating languages
A. Dune. B. Bright. C. Doctor Strange. D. Game of Thrones.
6. What was the initial step in Peterson’s process of creating Dothraki language
A. Establishing words and sentences. B. Developing sentence structure.
C. Building basic sound components. D. Analyzing rules of grammar.
7. What does Peterson think of conlang’s prospect
A. Promising. B. Unclear. C. Skeptical. D. Worrying.
C
Water is life. It is the source of any possibility for growth and liveliness. That is why water waste is such a big concern in places where water is insufficient. But that’s where Direct Potable Reuse, also known as DPR, can help.
DPR is a method for taking waste water and turning it into drinking water, according to Wastewater Digest. Though the sound of it may make people feel sick, it has been used with great success and to no ill-effect in Namibia for over fifty years.
Namibia is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa. Its capital, Windhoek, is in the middle of two of the oldest deserts in the world, and is 400 miles away from the nearest river. And yet, over 400 thousand people live in Windhoek, and thanks to a clever method of water reuse, nearly every one of them has access to clean drinking water.
Windhoek built its first water-recycling plant in 1968, leading the area to be referred to as the “birthplace of water-recycling”. According to Positive News reports, in the recycling plant, the wastewater goes through an multi-barrier process which removes pollutants and bacteria in the water. This is similar to how water is filtered (过滤) in nature. The water-recycling plant, however, has an expedited handling procedure. It produces safe drinking water within twenty four hours.
Though Namibia has been successfully using DPR for half a century, it has been slower to catch on in other parts of the world. The greatest roadblock so far has been public opinion. Patty Tennyson, the Vice President of Katz and Associates told Positive News, “Technology has never been the reason why these projects don’t get built — it’s always public or political opposition.”
The time for overcaution (过分谨慎) has passed though. As temperatures increase and the world gets thirstier, this safe and efficient water-saving technology can not be ignored. The success of DPR in Namibia has shown that a little creativity can make even the desert produce flowers.
8. Why does the author mention the position of Windhoek in paragraph 3
A. To present the locals’ poor situation. B. To show the significance of DPR.
C To describe the scenes of the city. D. To help tourists locate the capital.
9. Which of the following is closet in meaning to the underlined word “expedited” in paragraph 4
A. Safer. B. Similar. C. Faster. D. Premier.
10. What can be inferred about the future of DPR
A. It will be replaced by new technology. B. It will only be used in desert regions.
C. It will be more acceptable in the world. D. It will be ignored in developed countries.
11. What is the best title of the text
A. DPR, a method making a different world B. Water shortage, a big concern in the world
C. Windhoek, the birthplace of water-recycling D. DPR, a technology making people feel sick
D
When stressed out, many of us turn to junk food for comfort. But new University of Colorado Boulder research suggests this strategy may have the opposite effect. The study found that in animals, a high-fat diet destroys resident gut (肠道) bacteria, changes behavior and, through a complex pathway connecting the gut to the brain, influences brain chemicals in ways that increase anxiety.
“Everyone knows that these are not healthy foods, but we tend to think about them only in terms of a little weight gain,” said lead author Lowry. “If you understand that they also impact your brain in a way that can promote anxiety, that makes the risk even higher.” Lowry’s team divided adolescent rats into two groups: Half got a standard diet of about 11% fat for nine weeks; the others got-a high-fat diet of 45% fat, consisting mostly of saturated (饱和) fat from animal products.
After nine weeks, the animals underwent behavioral tests. When compared to the former group, the group eating a high-fat diet, not surprisingly, gained weight. But the animals also showed significantly less diversity of gut bacteria. Generally speaking, more bacterial diversity is associated with better health, Lowry explained.
The high-fat diet group also showed higher expression of three genes involved-in production and signaling of the serotonin (血清素), which is associated with-stress and anxiety. While serotonin is often billed as a “feel-good brain chemical”, Lowry notes that it can lead to anxiety-like responses in animals.
“To think that just a high-fat diet could change expression of these genes in the brain is extraordinary,” said Lowry. “The high-fat group essentially had a high anxiety state in their brain. ”
Lowry stresses that not all fats are bad, and that healthy fats like those found in fish, olive oil, nuts and seeds can be good for the brain. His advice is: Eat as many different kinds of fruits and vegetables as possible.
12. What can we learn about the study by Lowry’s team
A. All rats ate the same diet. B. Rats were divided into two diet groups.
C. Anxiety was tested before and after eating. D. Behavior was observed without dietary change.
13. What is the relationship between gut bacteria diversity and health
A. Less bacteria diversity indicates better health.
B. Gut bacteria diversity has no impact on health.
C. Gut bacteria diversity mainly depends on health.
D. Bacteria diversity is positively associated with fitness.
14. What can be known about serotonin
A. It reduces the feeling of pressure. B. It leads to weight gain.
C. It’s merely affected by healthy fats. D. It can cause anxiety-like reaction.
15. What is the main idea of the text
A. High-fat diet is the main cause of fat. B. Stay healthy and keep from gaining weight.
C. Junk food consumption may increase anxiety. D. Gut bacteria diversity increases with high-fat diets.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Significance of a Healthy Lifestyle
As senior high students, we often find ourselves buried under a pile of textbooks and assignments, making it easy to ignore our health. ___16___
A healthy lifestyle significantly contributes to physical fitness. Regular exercise, for example, is a basis of physical well-being. When we engage in jogging, swimming, or cycling, it helps to strengthen our muscles, improve cardiovascular (心血管) function, and boost our immune (免疫) system. ___17___ Additionally, a balanced diet is equally important. Consuming a variety of foods, including plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats, provides our bodies with the necessary nutrients to function best.
Mental health also benefits greatly from a healthy lifestyle. Sufficient sleep, which is an essential part of it, allows our brains to rest and recover. When we get enough sleep, we wake up feeling refreshed and ready to face the day. ___18___
___19___ When individuals are healthy, they are less likely to rely on medical resources, thus reducing the burden on the healthcare system. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to teach the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle in the general public.
In the long run, a healthy lifestyle has far-reaching significance for our quality of life. People who maintain healthy habits are more likely to have a higher energy level throughout their lives. This means they can actively participate in various activities, whether it’s spending time with family, pursuing hobbies, or engaging in community work. ___20___ They may experience a decline in their physical and mental capabilities at a relatively young age, limiting their life choices and experiences.
A. It also plays a positive role in our social life.
B. There are many ways to start living a healthy lifestyle.
C. In contrast, those with unhealthy lifestyles may lead an inactive life.
D. These physical activities can also help us maintain a healthy weight.
E. This can lead to better concentration, improved memory, and enhanced mood.
F. What’s more, a healthy lifestyle can save a large amount of medical expenses.
G. However, a healthy lifestyle is crucial for our well-being and academic performance.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was the first day of the new year and I was feeling out of shape. “This year, I am going to start walking at the mall every morning, ” I promised, “no matter ____21____ happens. ”
Later the same day, my neighbor Jean called. “Would you mind ____22____ Amy, my little dog Pomeranian, every morning for one week ”
“It’s my ____23____ ”, I replied.
The first morning of my walking ____24____ was bitter cold. I regretted approving of Jean’s request. The ____25____ was, no matter how much I love animals, it would still be “my ____26____ ”
When I arrived at Amy’s house, a small Pomeranian ____27____ me. She finished her hello by licking my leg but I ____28____ . Then I took another look — and came the ____29____ gaze (凝视) of a Pomeranian, inviting me to be her friend.
The two of us ____30____ outside into the freezing morning. The more we walked, the more I felt the ____31____ coming from my little companion — from her little heart to mine. Back at the house, after her meal and water, she fell asleep, using my foot as her ____32____ . I closed my eyes for a bit, ____33____ in a way that a walk at the mall could never make me feel.
My early mornings with Amy were not an ____34____ experience at all. She helped me ____35____ start a healthy new habit even on a cold January morning. It was a New Year’s gift, filled with love.
21. A. what B. how C. when D. where
22. A. playing B. walking C. training D. bathing
23. A. goodness B. fault C. pleasure D. turn
24. A. duties B. trips C. games D. goals
25. A. trend B. policy C. difference D. truth
26. A. reward B. responsibility C. task D. inconvenience
27. A. inspected B. greeted C. disturbed D. seized
28. A. broke down B. ran out C. pulled back D. looked up
29. A. angry B. anxious C. eager D. frightened
30. A. headed B. drove C. rushed D. searched
31. A. coldness B. warmth C. tiredness D. sadness
32. A. bed B. toy C. pillow D. chair
33. A. undergoing B. refreshing C. tolerating D. surviving
34. A. amazing B. exciting C. adventurous D. unpleasant
35. A. joyfully B. patiently C. unwillingly D. repeatedly
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In recent decades China ___36___ (make) remarkable progress in environmental protection. Facing severe environmental challenges ___37___ (bring) about by rapid economic development, the Chinese government has been taking a series of ___38___ (measure) to safeguard the ecological environment.
One of the most significant efforts is the large-scale ___39___ (plant) of trees. The “Green Great Wall” project, ___40___ has been carried out for decades, aims to prevent desertification and improve the ecological conditions in the northern regions. Not only has this project effectively reduced soil erosion (侵蚀) ___41___ it has also provided habitats for wildlife.
Moreover, China has been strengthening ___42___ (it) environmental regulations (法规). Stricter laws and regulations have been put into effect, which require industries to adopt cleaner production technologies and reduce pollution emissions. Factories that fail ___43___ ( meet) the environmental standards will be shut down.
In addition, the public’s environmental awareness has been raised ___44___ (significant). More and more people are actively participating in environmental protection activities, such as garbage classification and energy-saving activities.
However, there is still a long way to go. As China continues to develop, it is crucial to strike a balance ____45____ economic growth and environmental protection.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假设你是李华，你校英语杂志 Crazy English将举办主题为“How to use social media platforms wisely”的征文比赛，请你写一篇短文投稿。
注意：
1. 写作词数为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
How to use social media platforms wisely
Many social miedia platforms are becoming increasingly popular as science and technology progresses.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was the New Year’s Eve of 2025. Lily, a high-school senior, was filled with excitement as she prepared for the annual family gathering at her grandparents’ old-fashioned house in the countryside. The house was always filled with warmth and laughter during the holidays, and this year was no exception.
As Lily arrived, she noticed that her cousin, Tom, seemed a bit down. Tom had been struggling with his studies and was worried about his future. Lily, determined to cheer him up, decided to spend some time with him before the big dinner.
After a while, they found themselves in the attic (阁楼), going through old boxes filled with memories. Among the old stuff, they discovered an old-fashioned board game that their parents used to play when they were kids. Just as they were about to start playing, they heard a loud noise coming from outside. They rushed to the window and saw that a heavy snowstorm had suddenly hit. The wind was howling, and the snow was piling up rapidly.
Realizing that the storm might cause some problems, Lily’s parents and uncles decided to check on the generators and the heating system. Meanwhile, Lily and Tom continued their exploration in the attic, hoping to find more interesting things to pass the time.
Suddenly, Tom found a small, dusty diary hidden at the bottom of a box. As he opened it, he found that it was written by their great-grandfather. The diary was filled with stories about his life, his struggles, and his hopes for the future.
One story in particular caught their attention. It was about how their great-grandfather had faced a difficult time during a harsh winter when he was young. But he never gave up, and with the help of his family and friends, he managed to get through it. As they read on, they were deeply inspired by their great-grandfather’s perseverance. Just then, Lily had an idea.
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
She suggested that they share the story with the whole family.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
After the dinner, Tom decided to share his own plans for the future.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年第二学期高二年级期末考试
英语答案
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
1-10 BCBAB CBACA 11-20 CBCCA BCBCA
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. A 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. D 18. E 19. F 20. C
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. A
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. has made
37. brought
38. measures
39. planting
40. which 41. but
42. its 43. to meet
44. significantly
45. between
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】 How to use social media platforms wisely
Many social media platforms are becoming increasingly popular as science and technology progresses. However, using them wisely is crucial. Here are some tips.
Firstly, limit your screen time. Set a daily schedule to avoid addiction and focus on real-life activities. Secondly, choose content carefully. Follow accounts that inspire learning and positivity, and avoid harmful information. Thirdly, protect privacy. Never share personal details like addresses or passwords online. Finally, be respectful. Think before commenting and spread kindness instead of negativity. By following these steps, we can enjoy social media’s benefits while staying safe and responsible. Let’s make the digital world better together!
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
She suggested that they share the story with the whole family. Tom immediately agreed. When everyone was seated around the dinner table, Lily began to tell the touching story from the diary. Everyone listened quietly. As she finished, there was a moment of reflection, and then her grandfather spoke up, sharing his own memories of how the family had always supported each other through difficulties and obstacles. This led to a lively discussion about the importance of family bonds and perseverance.
After the dimer, Tom decided to share his own plans for the future. He said that inspired by their great-grandfather’s story, he had decided to face his study difficulties bravely. He was going to make a detailed study plan and ask teachers and classmates for help. Everyone listened attentively and offered words of encouragement. This special New Year’s Eve not only brought them closer but also filled them with hope and determination for the coming year.

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