资源简介

2024—2025学年度下学期期末质量监测
八年英语
（时间：100分钟 满分：120分）
听力部分（共30分）
一、短对话理解（共8小题；每小题1. 5分，共12分）
听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man want 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. B. C.
2. What will the speakers probably do next 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Have a meal. B. See a doctor. C. Continue the game.
3. What time will the speakers get to the meeting 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. 10:30. B. 10:20. C. 10:00.
4. Where does Sally come from 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Australia. B. The USA. C. Canada.
5. How did the girl go to school today 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
6. What’s the relationship between the speakers 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Mother and son. B. Husband and wife. C. Teacher and student.
7. Where is the book 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. By the glasses. B. On the shelf. C. In the desk.
8. Where are the two speakers 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. At home. B. In a restaurant. C. In a hotel.
二、长对话理解（共12小题；每小题1. 5分，共18分）
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有三道小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
9. What happened to Lisa
A. She had a car accident. B. She fell off the bike. C. She lost her bike.
10. What advice did the doctor give Lisa
A. Stay in bed for a week. B. Practice standing up. C. Take some medicine daily.
11. What will the man do to help Lisa
A. Pick her up from school.
B. Take her to the hospital.
C. Bring her homework from school.
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
12. Where is Lucy at the beginning of the conversation
A. In front of the school. B. At the City Library. C. Next to the supermarket.
13. How will Lucy go to meet the man
A. By taxi. B. By car. C. By electric bike.
14. Where does Lucy need to turn left
A. At the post office on Library Road.
B. At the supermarket on Sunshine Avenue.
C. At the bus stop near the library.
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
15. How many people are going to the Old Town
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
16. What is Mary going to do on Saturday
A. Go shopping. B. Go boating. C. Visit her sister.
17. What does Mary think of Tom’s plan
A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Boring.
听对话，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
18. Where were Tom’s parents
A. In New York. B. In Toronto. C. In London.
19. How did Tom go to Toronto
A. By taxi. B. By plane. C. By car.
20. What did Tom do to help cook meals
A. He washed the dishes. B. He washed vegetables. C. He washed some fruits.
笔试部分（共90分）
第一部分 选择题（共50分）
一、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分；满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Summer holiday is coming! Li Hao wants to visit England with family. Not knowing much about the country, she asks Doubao app for help. Here are the tips:
Three-Day Plan Day 1: Morning, visit Edinburgh Castle. Then walk along Royal Mile and see St. Giles’ Cathedral. Afternoon, enjoy night view at Princes Street Garden. Day 2: Start at Calton Hill for city view. Then go to National Galleries of Scotland for artworks. End at Arthur’s Seat for nature. Day 3: Learn UK history on Princes Street or relax in local coffee shops.
Transport Edinburgh Castle to Royal Mile: 878m To Princes Street: 1.1km To Calton Hill: 2.1km Taxi: at least 2.8 pounds, 1.5 pounds/hour Walk: free
Hotels The Witchery by the Castle: classic & clean, 200 pounds/night Knights Residence by Mansley: comfortable, 180 pounds/night Exchange 1 pound ≈ 9.6 yuan
21. Why does Li Hao use Doubao app
A. To get some travel ideas. B. To choose a nice place to visit.
C. To have fun with an AI app. D. To learn about different countries.
22. What can Li Hao do at Calton Hill
A. Drink yummy coffee. B. Enjoy famous paintings.
C. Take pictures of the city. D. Learn about old kings and queens.
23. Li Hao needs about ________ for one night at The Witchery by the Castle.
A. 1350 yuan B. 1500 yuan C. 1800 yuan D. 1920 yuan
24. What is this text mainly about
A. A story about a trip. B. A rule for using Doubao App.
C. A suggestion from a website. D. An advertisement for hotels.
B
More and more foreign influencers (名人) are coming to China. They make videos here and share them online. People from other countries are amazed by how fast China is growing. Many of them change their ideas about China. This didn’t just happen by accident. China has been working hard for a long time to get ready for this.
Chinese people are always inclusive. There are 56 ethnic groups (民族) in China. Each group has its own way of life, and together they make China’s culture rich and colorful. For example, the Tibetan people have their own language. They also have beautiful palaces and temples that show their beliefs. The Zhuang people also have their own language. They like to sing folk songs to build friendship. They even have a special festival called the Third Song Festival. On that day, people get together to play games like throwing embroidered balls (绣球) and touching colored eggs.
China has a long history, but it’s also very modern. The high-speed trains in China are not only fast but also take you to many places, both inside China and to some other countries. They help China’s trade and technology grow faster. And life in China is super convenient. You can pay for things with your phone, so you don’t need to carry a lot of cash. Even when you’re taking the subway, you can use your phone because there’s a network everywhere.
China is a country where old traditions meet new technology. Come and see it for yourself!
25. Why are people from other countries “amazed”
A. Because China has the most influencers.
B. Because China’s development speed is surprising.
C. Because Chinese food becomes popular worldwide.
D. Because China invites many foreigners to make videos.
26. What does “inclusive” mean in the second paragraph
A. powerful B. lively C. helpful D. welcoming
27. What can we learn from the text
A. The Zhuang people sing songs to make friends.
B. We can take high-speed trains to any other countries.
C. You can only get online while taking the subway in China.
D. Foreigners like to visit China because of the new technology.
28. What is the writer’s purpose of writing this text
A. To describe how strong China is now.
B To invite influencers to come to China.
C. To help people know more about China.
D. To tell readers ethnic groups in China.
C
Daisy acts like a grandma—she loves cooking and says she’s poor at phones and computers. When strangers call, she jokes “I’m your worst nightmare(噩梦)!” But this isn’t true for regular people. She only uses this trick to scare phone scammers(骗子). Here’s the secret: Daisy isn’t human.
She’s a chat-robot designed by a UK phone company to waste scammers’ time and protect real grandmas from their tricks. In July 2024, a UK study found that around 67% of people over 75 were scammed at least once in the six months before the study. Nearly 75% of these scams happened over the phone.
Meet Daisy, who has been trained to have conversations with phone scammers and waste their time. The company teamed up with Jim Browning, who has spent years acting like a clueless victim(一无所知的受害者)to waste scammers’ time. ▲ “Whenever she’s on the phone with a scammer, your parents, your grandparents, your relatives, are not being cheated,” Browning said.
The company says, “Daisy is already wasting hundreds and hundreds of hours of scammers’ time, and has shared real-life conversations the chat-robot has had with them.” Some conversations last nearly an hour. She talks about her cat, Fluffy, and people in her family. In some conversations, she even gives the scammers what they want—bank details. But of course, they’re not real. “Daisy is also there to remind you of something important. The person you’re speaking to on the phone might not always be who he says he is” the company adds.
29. What is the purpose of Daisy saying “I’m your worst nightmare”
A. To scare all the strangers who call.
B. To show her dislike for technology.
C. To deal with phone scammers on purpose.
D. To hide the fact that she isn’t good at using mobile phones.
30. What can we infer from the UK study mentioned in the text
A. Most phone scams aim at young people.
B. Scammers prefer to use text messages instead of calls.
C. Elderly people are more likely to be tricked by phone scams.
D. Only 33% of people over 75 were scammed in the past six months.
31. Which sentence can be put in the “________” in the third paragraph
A. Daisy can stop scammers quickly and save many people.
B. Daisy can’t stop scammers, but she can slow them down.
C. Daisy uses her experience to draw scammers’ attention.
D. The company plans to make Daisy work on computers, too.
32. Which of the following could be the best title for the text
A. The Smart Grandma Who Fights Scams
B. How to Protect Your Grandma from Scams
C. The Dangerous World of Phone Scammers
D. A New Way to Make Friends on the Phone
D
It was Mother’s Day, but the young mother was a little unhappy, because she was 800 miles away from her parents. In the morning, she phoned her mother to wish her a happy Mother’s Day, and her mother told her about the beautiful lilacs (丁香) in the garden.
Later that day, when she told her husband about the lilacs, he said. “I know where we can find all that you want. Get the children and come on.” So they went, driving down the country roads. There on a small hill, they saw a lot of beautiful purple lilacs. The young woman ran quickly to enjoy the flowers. Carefully, she picked a few here and a few there. On their way home there was a smile on her face. When they were passing a nursing home, the young woman saw an old granny sitting in a chair alone. They stopped the car and the young woman walked to the old woman, put the flowers in her hands and smiled at her. The old granny thanked her again and again. She smiled happily, too.
When the young mother came back to her car, her children asked her, “Who is that old granny Why did you give flowers to her ” “I don’t know her.” their mother said, “But it’s Mother’s Day and she is alone. I have all of you, and I still have my mother. Just think how much those flowers meant to her.”
33. Why did the young mother feel a little unhappy at first
A. She didn’t get lilacs from her mother.
B. Her husband forgot it was an important festival.
C. Her children didn’t wish her “Happy Mother’s Day”.
D. She couldn’t celebrate Mother’s Day with her own mother.
34. The young mother gave the lilacs to the old granny because ________.
A. she didn’t like the lilacs any more B. she thought the old granny needed care
C. the old granny asked for the flowers D. she wanted to show respect for the old
35. What do the lilacs symbolize (象征) in the story
A. The beauty of nature in spring.
B. The distance between family members.
C. The love link between older and younger people.
D. The good memories of the young mother’s childhood.
36. What does the story mainly tell us
A. Sending flowers can make strangers happy.
B. Nothing is more important than family love.
C. Kindness and sharing bring warmth to others.
D. It’s the best way to stay with parents on Mother’s Day.
第二节
阅读下面短文，从短文后的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Do you find it hard to learn a second language ____37____ A new Chinese study shows that moving your body during language class makes learning much easier.
40 Chinese students took part in the study. ____38____ Group 1 studied English the usual way — just sitting in a classroom. Group 2 had a different plan. They rode bicycles for 20 minutes before each English class.
Both groups learned new words by looking at a big screen. Each class, the teacher taught 40 new words. After a short break, the students took a test. Over two months, they had eight special classes. ____39____ Students who biked before class did much better on tests. What’s more, they remembered more words than the non-exercising group.
____40____ Exercise helps when learning a language. Sitting still for hours isn’t the best way to study. So, if you want to learn better, don’t just sit there — get up and move!
A. The results were surprising.
B. They were divided into two groups.
C. This study tells us something important.
D. The study also found exercise is good for our health.
E. Scientists say that exercising while studying can help.
二、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
阅读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It started 30 years ago with a squirrel. A few months after I had moved into a downtown ____41____, my next-door neighbor, Nicole Figaro, knocked, asking for help with a squirrel that had gotten into her flat.
I frightened the unexpected ____42____ away and made a new friend. Soon Nicole was inviting me over for dinner or ____43____ home-made food at my door. When I went to my beach house, Nicole helped ____44____ my mail and water my plants. And when she traveled as a flight attendant, I did the same for her. Wherever she went, she’d ____45____ to bring me wonderful gifts, but her smile has been the greatest of all.
In 1997, I had a lovely child and it was Nicole who took care of me and him. Years later, I returned the favour. I helped out when her husband was sick, ____46____ her and giving her support. More and more, we drew inspiration from each other.
____47____, the pandemic (疫情) hit. My husband was out of work and my son couldn’t be back to Britain because of the virus (病毒). I was ____48____ about them. Nicole helped my family to prepare for the pandemic and shared necessities with me. Without her, I couldn’t go through the ____49____ times.
A ____50____ might separate our flats and masks can separate the viruses, but nothing is able to separate our hearts.
41. A. house B. flat C. street D. area
42. A. customer B. host C. guest D. enemy
43. A. selling B. making C. posting D. leaving
44. A. look for B. copy down C. pick up D. hold out
45. A. forget B. keep C. think D. remember
46. A. believing in B. staying with C. smiling at D. depending on
47. A. Especially B. Actually C. Generally D. Unluckily
48. A. worried B. mad C. nervous D. serious
49. A. exciting B. simple C. difficult D. good
50. A. room B. wall C. yard D. garden
第二部分 非选择题（共40分）
三、语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯。
We all know 2025 is the Year of the Snake. ____51____ Spring Festival Gala (盛会) this year was a big and happy party full ____52____ Chinese traditions.
The theme (主题) of the gala was “Si Si Ru Yi, Sheng Sheng Bu Xi”. These words bring good ____53____ (wish). In old China, a day was divided into 12 parts, each two hours long. The time from 9 a.m. to 11 a.m. was called “Si Shi”. “Si” was the ____54____ (six) part. At this time, the sun shines ____55____ (bright), and everything looks lively, as if waking up. The gala used “Si Si Ru Yi” as its theme. It hoped to bring good luck to every family and the whole country. “Sheng Sheng Bu Xi” means life keeps ____56____ (go), and it shows that our country is becoming better and stronger.
The main logo was very ____57____ (create). It ____58____ (take) ideas from traditional Chinese design and used the old Oracle Bone Script (甲骨文) character “Si”. Two “Si” characters ____59____ (put) together like a mirror, and it looked a bit like “Yi” and “Si”. Many people felt excited about this new logo and praised the gala. It was a wonderful show with music, dance and all kinds of fun, just like before.
In short, the 2025 Spring Festival Gala was _____60_____ a celebration and a cultural event. The gala’s theme and logo show Chinese culture’s beauty.
四、阅读与表达（共4小题，41—43每小题2分，44题4分；满分10分）
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
On February 22nd, 17-year-old Mirra Andreeva made history by winning a WTA 1000 title. This great achievement not only brought her honor but also made her the youngest player in the world to break into the WTA’s Top 10.
Andreeva is famous for crying often. After becoming a professional (职业选手) in 2023, she has cried several times when she played poorly. She often gets mad and sad very quickly, and these emotions (情绪) can make her lose hope.
At the beginning of this important match, things didn’t start well. She made two mistakes and lost her first service game. In the past, this might have made her cry or give up. But this time, it was different. Although she still had bad feelings, she learned to control them much better. Instead of crying, she kept cool and won every game after that!
After the match, Andreeva explained how she was inspired by her role model, NBA legend LeBron James. Once, she watched a video of him and heard him say, “You can either let bad feelings enter your mind and kill you, or you can choose to be strong and fight for every point.” She took this advice to heart, believing that no matter how difficult the situation is, staying calm and never giving up is the key to great success.
61. When did Andreeva win a WTA 1000 title
____________________________________________
62 What happens when Andreeva gets emotional
____________________________________________
63. Who is Andreeva’s role model
____________________________________________
64. Why do we need role models in our daily life (More than 30 words.)
____________________________________________
五、书面表达（满分20分）
65. 2025年AI一词火爆全网，假如上周你们班就“英语课堂应该使用AI技术吗 ”展开了一次讨论，请你根据下列表格提示信息，用英语写一篇短文，介绍同学们的想法并表达你自己的观点。
支持理由 反对理由
1 增加学习趣味性 2. 提高学习效率 3. ……（自由补充） 1. 减少交流 2. 过度依赖
要求：
1. 必须包含以上提示内容，可适当发挥；
2. 条理清楚、行文连贯、标点正确、书面整洁；
3 不得出现真实姓名和校名；
4. 80词左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Should we use AI in English Class
Last week, we discussed if we should use AI in our English class. Different students have different opinions.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度下学期期末质量监测
八年英语
（时间：100分钟 满分：120分）
听力部分（共30分）
一、短对话理解（共8小题；每小题1. 5分，共12分）
听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】A
【6题答案】
【答案】A
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】C
二、长对话理解（共12小题；每小题1. 5分，共18分）
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有三道小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【9~11题答案】
【答案】9. B 10. A 11. C
【12~14题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. C 14. A
【15~17题答案】
【答案】15. C 16. B 17. C
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. A 19. C 20. B
笔试部分（共90分）
第一部分 选择题（共50分）
一、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分；满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~24题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. D 24. C
B
【25~28题答案】
【答案】25. B 26. D 27. A 28. C
C
【29~32题答案】
【答案】29. C 30. C 31. B 32. A
D
【33~36题答案】
【答案】33. D 34. B 35. C 36. C
第二节
【37~40题答案】
【答案】37. E 38. B 39. A 40. C
二、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B
第二部分 非选择题（共40分）
三、语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51 The
52. of 53. wishes
54. sixth 55. brightly
56. going 57. creative
58. took 59. were put
60. both
四、阅读与表达（共4小题，41—43每小题2分，44题4分；满分10分）
【61~64题答案】
【答案】61. On February 22nd.
62. She loses hope.
63. LeBron James.
64. Because role models can inspire us, encourage perseverance, boost confidence, and remind us through their own experiences that no matter how difficult the situation is, staying calm and never giving up is the key to great success.
五、书面表达（满分20分）
【65题答案】
【答案】例文
Should we use AI in English Class
Last week, we discussed if we should use AI in our English class. Different students have different opinions.
Some students support using AI. They think AI can make learning more interesting, like through interactive English-language games. It can also improve learning efficiency. For example, AI can quickly provide personalized exercise plans and instant feedback. Moreover, AI can offer diverse English learning resources, such as English-language stories and songs from all over the world.
However, others are against it. They believe AI will reduce face-to-face communication in English class. Students may also become overly dependent on AI, weakening their own thinking abilities.
In my view, AI is a useful tool. We can use it properly in English class. Let AI assist us, but not replace our own efforts and interactions.

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