湖南省湘潭市湘乡市2024-2025学年七年级下学期7月期末英语试题(含答案,含听力音频,无原文)

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湖南省湘潭市湘乡市2024-2025学年七年级下学期7月期末英语试题(含答案,含听力音频,无原文)

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2025年上期期末质量检测题
七年级英语
时量:100分钟 满分:100分
注意事项:
1.试题分为四个部分,共8页,61小题。
2.答题前,请按要求在答题卡上填写好自己的姓名和学校。
3.答题时,切记答案要填在答题卡上,填写在试题卷上的答案无效。
4.考试结束后,请将试题卷和答题卡都交给监考老师。
第一部分 听力理解(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the boy’s favourite animal 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. It’s the fox. B. It’s the monkey. C. It’s the giraffe.
2. Where are the girls 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. In the library. B. In the zoo. C. In the park.
3. Whose T-shirt is it 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. It’s Mike’s. B. It’s Sarah’s. C. It’s Bob’s.
4. What would the man like to drink 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Yogurt. B. Juice. C. Coffee.
5. What time is it 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. It’s 8 am. B. It’s 4 pm. C. It’s 8 pm.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. Where is Mike now
A. At home. B. In the supermarket. C. At school.
7. What is the woman doing
A. Watching TV. B. Doing homework. C. Shopping online.
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Where is Amy from
A. Australia. B. Canada. C. China.
9. What’s Amy’s favourite Chinese food
A. Dumplings. B. Baozi. C. Noodles.
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. Who did Alex go to his uncle’s farm with
A. His mother. B. His father. C. His mother and his father.
11. What did Alex do there
A. He fed the sheep. B. He went for a walk with the sheep. C. He swam in the lake.
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
12. What is Daniel doing
A. Playing basketball. B. Practicing the guitar. C. Doing homework.
13. Where is Aunt Jane now
A. At home. B. At school. C. In hospital.
14. What is the weather like in Dalian
A. Warm and sunny. B. Cold and snowy. C. Cold and rainy.
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
15. Where did Dave and his friends have lunch
A. In a restaurant. B. In the park. C. At home.
16. How did Dave feel about climbing
A. He thought it was boring.
B. He thought it was exciting.
C. He thought it was too easy.
17. Who did Tracy go to the museum with
A. Her friends. B. Her family. C. Her classmates.
听材料,回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. Where is Sally from
A. Canada. B. Thailand. C. Singapore.
19. How often does Sally jump rope
A. Every morning. B. Twice a week. C. Never.
20. Who is good at cooking mapo tofu
A. Sally. B. Sally’s mother. C. Sally’s sister.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共11小题;每小题2分,满分22分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
School Library Opening Hours: Monday—Friday: 9:00—17:00 Saturday: 9:00—20:00 Sunday: Closed Library Rules: ★All students must have a library card. ★No food or soft drinks in the library. ★No running or shouting in the library. ★Students can borrow three books at a time. ★Students must return (归还) the books on time.
21. If Tony is free after 6:00 p.m., he can go to the library on ________.
A. Monday B. Saturday C. Sunday
22. What can students bring into the library
A. Library cards. B. Food. C. Soft drinks.
23. How many books can you borrow at a time
A Only one. B. Two. C. Three.
B
Dear Frank,
How are you I’m living with my family in Changsha. Today is Saturday. It’s 7 pm here. Our family are all at home and our dinner is over. I’m writing an e-mail to you. My father is watching a basketball game on TV. Basketball is his favourite sport. My mother is washing the dishes. My sister Li Ling is playing the piano in her room. She plays it for three hours every day. My pet dog Dudu is sleeping under the table. Outside, I can hear cars and buses coming and going. There are also some children playing football on the grass. It’s a noisy but happy evening.
I know it is 7 am in New York. What are your family doing now Please write to me.
Yours,
Li Ming
24. What is Li Ming’s father doing
A. Having dinner. B. Playing basketball. C. Watching TV.
25. Where is Li Ming’s mother
A. In the living room. B. In the kitchen. C. In her room.
26. What time is it in New York now
A. 7 am. B. 11 am. C. 7 pm.
27. From the passage, we know that ________.
A. Frank is living in Changsha now
B. there are four people in Li Ming’s family
C. Dudu is a pet dog in Frank’s family
C
We had a school trip yesterday. We met up at seven o’clock. Then we went to a mountain by bus. The bus was slow but very comfortable. All the students were very excited. When we arrived at the foot of the mountain, it was nine o’clock. We began to climb the mountain. We saw a lot of beautiful flowers and strange trees along the way. Some of my classmates took their cameras with them. I forgot (忘记) to take mine, so I didn’t take any photos in the mountains.
The guide (向导) was our English teacher Mr. Wang. His parents and his grandparents live in the mountains. So he knows the way very well. After we climbed to the middle of the mountain, it was about eleven o’clock. We all felt so tired and hungry that we didn’t want to walk. But Mr. Wang told us it was not far from his parents’ house, so we walked on. In the end, we had delicious food at Mr. Wang’s parents’ house. The trip was tiring, but we felt very happy!
28. How did the students go to the mountain
A. By train. B. By bus. C. By bike.
29. When did they arrive at the foot of the mountain
A. At seven o’clock. B. At nine o’clock. C. At eleven o’clock.
30. Why didn’t the writer take any photos in the mountains
A. Because the weather was too bad.
B. Because the writer forgot to bring a camera.
C. Because the teacher didn’t allow them to take photos.
31. How did the students feel after climbing to the middle of the mountain
A. Tired and hungry. B. Tired and happy. C. Excited but not hungry.
第二节(共4小题;每小题2分,满分8分)
阅读下面短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
What do you think of exercise Like food, it’s very important to people. Doctors say doing sport is good for people. Sports can help people to be healthy.
Parents must tell their children to exercise often because exercise is very useful to them. Exercise makes children healthy. ___32___ This helps them to be good at their subjects and do many things very well.
There are many easy ways to exercise. ___33___ Or you can play ball games like soccer, basketball and tennis. Choose one of your favorite sports to exercise. When you take exercise, you need to know what you should do. And don’t exercise too much at a time.
___34___. You can play sports at your school, in your home or at the gym. You can play sports at any safe (安全的) place you like.
Exercise can make you happy. ___35___ And after a sports game, you can make some new friends.
A. Here are many places for exercise.
B. At the same time, it can help to make children clever.
C It’s great to exercise with friends.
D Not all people like to exercise.
E. You can walk, run, swim or ride a bike.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I live in Malaysia (马来西亚). The weather in Malaysia is very ___36___. It has a tropical climate (热带气候) with a lot of ___37___. I love rainy days because after it rains, I can enjoy the blue sky and the ___38___ air. It has very warm winters. I ___39___ see snow in my life here.
This winter, I went to America with my family. Our last stop was California. My aunt drove us to a park to ski (滑雪). When I got out of the car, I saw a ___40___ world. I was so ___41___ because it was my first time to see snow. I ___42___ ski, so I just ran in the snow, made snowballs and took photos. I didn’t feel cold at all, because I wore a ___43___ coat. And playing kept me warm. My shoes were wet, but it was nothing to me.
We spent the whole (整个的) day in the ___44___. I was tired, ____45____ I had a lot of fun. What a different day I had!
36. A. hot B. cold C. cool
37. A. wind B. rain C. snow
38. A. fresh B. dry C. dirty
39. A. often B. never C. always
40. A. white B. black C. green
41. A. hungry B. bored C. excited
42. A. can B. can’t C. may
43. A. thick B. thin C. beautiful
44. A. zoo B. lake C. park
45. A. although B. but C. and
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Once upon a time, ___46___ owl (猫头鹰) flew to the east. The owl ___47___ (be) very tired, so the owl ___48___ (decide) to stop and have a rest in a tree for a while. Suddenly the owl ___49___ (see) a dove (鸽子) resting there.
Hearing the voice of the owl, the dove turned ___50___ (slow) to him and asked, “Where are you going ”
The owl said, “I am moving to the east.” The dove felt excited ___51___ they went the same way. She asked again, “Why are you going there ” The owl said, “People in the west all don’t like me because my voice ___52___ (sound) terrible. I cannot stay there. I must go ___53___ a different place.”
The dove said, “Can you solve (解决) your problem by changing a place If you don’t change ___54___ (you) voice, the people in the east won’t like you, either. You don’t need to care about (在乎) others’ ____55____ (thought) too much and change yourself to let others like you.”
Hearing that, the owl was lost in thought...
第四部分 综合技能(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答问题或翻译画线部分。
Dear Mike
How are you Breakfast is important because everyone starts a day with it. My breakfast on weekdays is very simple (简单). I usually eat bread and milk. At weekends, I have a big breakfast—vegetable noodles, eggs and fruit salad. To keep fit, I always have a healthy and balanced breakfast. And my mother and I make breakfast together.
The breakfast is common, but ours is very special on some important days.
At the Dragon Boat Festival, I always have rice dumplings for breakfast. On that day, my parents and I get up very early in the morning and we make the rice dumplings together. There are many kinds of rice dumplings. My favourite is the rice dumpling with red date stuffing (红枣馅). It tastes very delicious.
During the Spring Festival, I have pork dumplings for breakfast. I like helping my mother make pork dumplings. It always takes us a long time to make them, but I don’t mind (介意). I think it’s very interesting.
What does your breakfast look like Take a photo of it and write to me soon.
Yours,
Li Hua
56. What does Li Hua usually eat for breakfast on weekends
_____________________________________________
57. What does Li Hua think of the rice dumpling with red date stuffing
_____________________________________________
58. At which festival does Li Hua eat rice dumplings for breakfast
_____________________________________________
59. Does Li Hua like making pork dumplings Why
_____________________________________________
60. 将短文中画线句子翻译成中文。
_____________________________________________
第二节(共1小题,满分15分)
61. 某英文网站正在开展以“人类的好朋友——动物”的专题征文活动。请你以My favorite animal为题写一篇短文,向该网站投稿,介绍你最喜欢的一种动物,描写它的外貌并阐述你喜欢它的原因。
提示问题:
1. What does it look like
2. What can it do
3. What is it like
4. Why do you like it
注意:
(1)文中不得出现人名或校名等真实信息;
(2)词数为80左右。
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2025年上期期末质量检测题
七年级英语
时量:100分钟 满分:100分
注意事项:
1.试题分为四个部分,共8页,61小题。
2.答题前,请按要求在答题卡上填写好自己的姓名和学校。
3.答题时,切记答案要填在答题卡上,填写在试题卷上的答案无效。
4.考试结束后,请将试题卷和答题卡都交给监考老师。
第一部分 听力理解(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. B
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. B
【10~11题答案】
【答案】10. C 11. B
【12~14题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. B
【15~17题答案】
【答案】15. B 16. B 17. B
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. C 19. A 20. B
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共11小题;每小题2分,满分22分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. B 29. B 30. B 31. A
第二节(共4小题;每小题2分,满分8分)
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. B 33. E 34. A 35. C
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. A 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. B
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. an 47. was
48. decided
49. saw 50. slowly
51. because
52. sounds 53. to
54. your 55. thoughts
第四部分 综合技能(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. Vegetable noodles, eggs and fruit salad.
57. Delicious.
58. The Dragon Boat Festival.
59. Yes, because it’s very interesting.
60. 为了保持健康,我总是吃一顿健康且均衡的早餐。
第二节(共1小题,满分15分)
【61题答案】
【答案】例文:
My Favorite Animal
My favorite animal is the dog. It usually has a furry body and a wagging tail. Dogs can run fast and guard our homes. They are friendly and smart. Once my dog helped me find my lost keys. I like dogs because they are loyal and bring me happiness. They are really our good friends.

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