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2024-2025学年第二学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题
（总分120分 考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1.本试题包括第I卷和第II卷两部分。第I卷为选择题，65分；第II卷为非选择题，55分，共120分。
2.答题前务必认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。在答题卡的相应位置认真填写姓名、准考证号、座号；试题答案必须填涂或填写在答题卡的相应位置。
第I卷 选择题（共65分）
一、听力选择（共 15 小题，计 15 分）
（一）录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. A. Thank you. B. With pleasure. C. Very well.
2. A. You are right. B. My pleasure. C. Don’t say so.
3. A. By bus. B. It’s near here. C. Sorry, I’m not sure.
4. A. Yes, I did. B. I’m really short. C. It used to be.
5. A. By hand. B. I like drinking it. C. In many different areas.
(二)录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
6. What’s the scarf made of
A. Silk. B. Bamboo. C. Cotton.
7. Where is the bookstore
A. On the first floor. B. On the second floor. C. On the third floor.
8. How will the woman go to Shanghai
A. By plane. B. By train. C. By car.
9. What’s the best way to learn English for Mary
A. Keeping a diary in English.
B. Watching English videos.
C. Having conversations with friends in English.
10. What does Ben look like now
A. He is short. B. He is thin. C. He is tall.
(三)录音中有一段对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
11. When will the visitors come
A. In April. B. In May. C. In June.
12. How many visitors are coming
A. 11. B. 14. C. 15.
13. What will the visitors do on the second day
A. Have a party. B. Give a talk. C. Visit the schools.
14. How long will the visit be
A. Three days. B. Five days. C. Two weeks.
15. Where will the visitors visit the last two days
A. Schools. B. New York. C. Niagara Falls.
(注意：请同学们翻到第Ⅱ卷第四大题，继续做听力填表题。)
二、单项选择（共10小题，计10分）
从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
16. — In London, dogs and their owners can enjoy ______ hour-long free bus tour.
— Wow! I hope we can also have such a service in Dongying.
A. a B. an C. / D. the
17. You’d better stay at home, ______ it is raining.
A. so B. as C. but D. though
18. There is a lot of ______in the street. Be careful when you cross the street.
A. heat B. warmth C. traffic D. business
19. — What happens when we say “thanks” to AI
— If we use _______ words, it gives us clearer and more helpful answers.
A. polite B. private C. humorous D. convenient
20. When you lose your money, you lose nothing, but when you lose your health, you lose ______.
A. nothing B. anything C. something D. everything
21. — What time is it now
— I can’t tell you the time _____, but I know it’s too late.
A. wisely B. politely C. widely D. exactly
22. Wechat (微信) is widely used in our everyday life, but we’d better not _____ requests from strangers.
A. avoid B. delete C. accept D. refuse
23. — I’ve tried hard at my schoolwork but still _____.
—Don’t be upset. Sometimes losing is only a sign that you really tried.
A. failed B. worried C. improved D. succeeded
24. —Lucy, are you active in class
—Yes, but often I don’t have _____ to show myself in a fifty-student class.
A. reasons B. chances C. choices D. abilities
25. — Lucy, the film Nezha 2 is very hot now. Would you like to watch it with me tonight
— Good idea. Could you tell me _____.
— Just the two of us.
A. how we’ll get there B. what time you want to go
C. whom we’ll go with D. which cinema you’ll choose
三、阅读理解（共20小题，计40分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
(
Fun cooking classes for children at cooking club
Visit
www.
to
sign up
(报名)
for the classes!
Note:
You may use the
oven
or
the knife
. The hot water may also be necessary.
Be careful!
)
A
(
Easy hamburger
(Wednesday
5
:00 p.m. or Thursday 5:00 p.m
.
)
Making hamburger
s
is easy! All you need are bread, beef, chicken, lettuce and e and learn how to make
hamburger
s
with these simple
ingredients
(配料)
.
Teacher: Mrs. Smith
(Email:
happysmith@
)
) (
Jiaozi
magic
(Tuesday
5
:00 p.m. or Thursday
4:30
p.m.)
What
fillings
(馅)
do you like in your
j
iaozi
, vegetables,
eggs,
meat or fish
Do you want to make
jiaozi
in different colors
Come and
join us
.
Teacher: Mr. Li
(Tel: 578-8766)
)
(
Tasty
z
ongzi
(Monday
5
:00 p.m. or Friday
4
:30
p.m.)
What kind of
z
ongzi
do you like Sweet or salty You can make your own
z
ongzi
with different tastes.
Teacher: Ms Wang
(WeChat: Wang6126)
) (
Cupcake fun
(Friday
4:00 p.m. or Saturday 2:30 p.m.)
Do you like cupcakes We can teach you how to make all your favorite cupcakes!
Teacher: Ms Green
(Tel: 578-9665)
)
26. If you want to sign up for the classes, you can____________.
A. visit the website B. talk on WeChat C. send email D. make a phone call
27. Jenny can’t take the “Tasty zongzi” class tomorrow. Who should she talk to
A. Mr Li. B. Mrs Smith. C. Ms Wang. D. Ms Green.
28. What do you NOT need to make hamburgers in the “Easy hamburger” class
A. Fish. B. Beef. C. Bread. D. Lettuce.
29. Jack is free at the weekend only. What class can he join
A. Jiaozi magic. B. Easy hamburger. C. Tasty zongzi. D. Cupcake fun.
30. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage
A. Having cooking classes is fun.
B. There is a cooking class every day.
C. You should be careful in cooking classes.
D. You can learn how to cook both Chinese and western food.
B
Bob likes climbing very much. However, there wasn’t one climbing club in his school at first, so he felt sad.
At the beginning of the second year of middle school, his school offered rock climbing lessons in order to encourage students to exercise. He was so happy that he joined at once.
In the first lesson, the coach said, “Rock climbing needs strength, speed, courage and persistence. All these are necessary.” But in Bob’s opinion, rock climbing was just a fun activity. It interested him.
During the following classes, the coach asked the students to run 1,000 meters first, and then climb with a rope. When Bob finished running, he almost lost his breath and got bored. And he even did not want to touch the rope. He thought it was less interesting than before. The coach noticed that and asked him, “Why do you want to take rock climbing lessons ” “I come for fun, of course.” “Is that fun ” he asked. Bob shook his head slowly. The coach then explained patiently, “That’s because you stop halfway. You know, beautiful sights are always on the top.”
After hearing his words, Bob made up his mind to finish his journey. When he got to the top in the end, he felt really excited.
Sometimes it’s hard to reach the top of the mountain, but it’s a pity to stop halfway, so don’t give up.
Why did the school offer rock climbing lessons
A. To develop students’ hobbies. B. To encourage students to exercise.
C. To offer students more clubs. D. To let students enjoy activities.
32. What does the underlined word “persistence” mean
A. Being kind. B. Having interests. C. Holding on to. D. Being Creative.
33. What did the coach ask the students to do during the classes
① Climb rocks ② Run 1,000 meters ③ Climb with a rope ④ Tie a rope
A. ①②. B. ①③. C. ②④. D. ②③.
34. How did Bob’s feelings change
A. Sad→ happy→ bored→ excited. B. Excited → sad → bored → happy.
C. Happy→ sad→ excited→ bored. D. Sad→ bored→ happy → excited .
35. What can we learn from the passage
A. Learn to accept advice. B. Take up a hobby.
C. Don’t give up halfway. D. Never stay the same.
C
In our country, we often see people happily sitting together, eating noodles, cakes when it is one family member’s birthday. This is a typical Chinese birthday. How birthdays are celebrated in other countries Here are four examples.
Many people regard their birthday as their own special day, but not in Vietnam, where everyone celebrates their birthday on the same day. This day is called TET. It means the start of spring and New Year. Families get together for a large meal and perform lion dances. Parents and relatives give children “Lucky Money” on that day.
In Australia, people sometimes eat “Fairy Bread” instead of birthday cake, which is a kind of bread cut into cute shapes. Many Australians celebrate a birthday with a barbecue (烧烤) in the garden. Being given the key to the house is an important tradition. This is held when someone turns the age of twenty-one, which means the birthday girl or boy officially (正式地) becomes adults.
In Norway, the birthday child dances with a friend in front of their class, while the others sing a happy birthday song. Most birthday parties have chocolate cake with chocolate freezing and fish-shaped pieces. At birthday parties, guests may go fishing, but not for fish; They play a game known as “fishing for ice cream”.
In Korea, a child’s first “birthday” is called Baekil and celebrated at 100 days. One of the traditional customs (习俗) is making the birthday baby sit at a table filled with all kinds of objects. The first two objects they pick up predict their future. Money and rice mean wealth (财富); a pen means intelligence (才智), and so on.
36. Which country is the writer probably from
A. Vietnam. B. Norway. C. Korea. D. China.
37. What can we learn about Vietnamese birthday customs
A. People regard their birthday as their own special day.
B. Everyone celebrates their birthdays on TET.
C. All Vietnamese’ birthdays are on the same day.
D. Everyone can get some “Lucky Money” as a gift.
38. Why does Steve from Australia get a key to his house on his 21st birthday
A. His family gave him a new house.
B. It means he’s become an adult from now on.
C. Sending bread with key shapes is their tradition.
D. He likes houses that can have a barbecue in the garden.
39. What does a birthday child from Norway usually do on his birthday
①Dance with a friend. ②Sing a birthday song.
③Go fishing by the lake. ④Share the chocolate cake.
A. ①③ B. ②③ C. ①④ D.②④
40. In Korea, what does it mean if a baby picks up rice during the Baekil celebration
A. The baby will be rich. B. The baby will be intelligent.
C. The baby will be healthy. D. The baby will be artistic (艺术的).
D
WELCOME TO THE LIBRARY
●READ●LEARN●GROW●
Opening Hours Monday to Friday 10 a.m.～4 p.m.
Library Rules 1. Please keep quiet in the library. 2. You can borrow up to 5 library books. 3. You must give back the books in 2 weeks. 4. If you lose a book, you must pay for it.
Finding Right Fit Books ● A “right fit” book is a book that you can enjoy on your own. Reading just right books helps you become better readers. To find a book that is just the right fit for you, try using the five-finger test. ● Here’s how it works: Turn a page in the middle of the book. As you read, put up a finger for every word you don’t know. Use the following rules.
(
Easy book for
you.
Good choice for you.
Maybe you need some help, but still good choice .
Maybe it
’
s difficult to read and understand. You need help .
Too difficult
for
you.
)
41. When can you read in the library
A. At 9 a.m. on Monday. B. At 2 p.m. on Tuesday.
C. At 5 p.m. on Friday. D. At 10 a.m. on Saturday.
42. How many books can you borrow at most
A. 5. B. 4. C. 3. D. 2
43. What is a “right fit” book
A. A book that there are five fingers in it.
B. A book that you can only read with help.
C. A book that you must read with a better reader.
D. A book that you can enjoy reading by yourself.
44. What can the five-finger test help you
A. Learn the new words. B. Improve reading ability.
C. Know the difficulty of a book. D. Count the number of fingers.
45. What should you do if you put five fingers up after taking the test
A. Keep reading. B. Choose another book.
C. Ask for help. D. Find a better reader.
第II卷（非选择题，共55分）
四、听力填表(共5小题，计5分)
录音中有一段短文，听录音两遍后，根据所听到的短文内容，完成下面的表格。（每空不多于3个词）
Telephone Message Card
From whom It is from Simon.
What to do 1. To watch (46) a ________ game first. 2. To see a (47) _________ film, then.
When 1. The game will begin at 3 o’clock. 2. The film (48) ________ at 8:30.
How much The price of the film ticket is (49) _________.
How long 1. The game will last (持续) about (50)________. 2. The film will last about one hour and a half.
五、动词填空(共10小题，计10分)
阅读下面短文，用括号内所给动词的适当形式填空(必要时可加情态动词或助动词)。
My grandmother was an iron-willed (强硬的) woman. When I was five, she invited some friends to her apartment. Among the guests there (51) ______ (be) a rich man and his daughter. Grandmother considered them the most important among the guests.
During the party, I went to the bathroom. I was still sitting down when the girl walked in. “You (52) ______ (stay) here too long!”　　
“It’s not your business. Don’t you know that little girls shouldn’t come into the bathroom when a little boy (53) _____ (use) it! ” I said in anger. The little girl (54) _____ (surprise) by what I said. Then she started to cry. Most guests had heard what I said and laughed. But not Grandmother.
She (55) ______ (wait) for me when I left the bathroom. Grandmother shouted that I was impolite and rude and ordered, “You (56) ______ (say) sorry to her.” All the guests watched in silence.
Twenty minutes later, Grandmother walked by the bathroom and found some water (57) ______ (run) out from under the door. Everyone knew who did that. Grandmother was so angry that she tried (58) ______ (get) me anyway. It took several strong men finally to move her away and calm her down.
My grandfather took me by the hand and seated me on his lap. He looked at me, not at all angry or upset. “(59) ______ (tell) me,” he asked, “why did you do it ”
“Well, she shouted at me for nothing,” I said seriously. “Now she’s got something to be angry at.”　
Grandfather didn’t speak right away. He just sat there, looking at me and smiling. I (60) ________ (not forget) his expressions forever.
“Eric,” he said at last, “I think you did the right thing.”
六、综合填空(共10小题，计10分)
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容及首字母提示，在空白处填入一个适当的单词。
In a peaceful forest, a clever fox named Felix found the stream (小溪) had dried up. Animals were (61) t________ because they had no water to drink. Felix decided to find a way to solve the problem.
He followed the old stream way and discovered a large rock that made the water stop. “If we move this rock, the stream will run again,” Felix thought. But the rock was too heavy for him (62) a________.
Just then, a strong bear named Bruno walked by. “Can you help me push this rock I can’t do it myself.” Felix asked. Bruno agreed, but even their teamwork (合作) wasn’t (63) e________.
Felix sat down to think. A rabbit came and suggested, “Why not ask the beavers (河狸) They can chew (咬) through wood. (64) M________ they can break the rock!”
The beavers arrived and started chewing on the rock’s sides. Hours later, the rock broke a little. “Now, let’s push together!” Felix shouted.
This time, the rock moved away! Water rushed (65) d________ the stream, and the animals cheered. However, Felix found the water was a little dirty. “We need to filter (过滤) it (66) b________ drinking,” he said.
The birds flew to collect clean sand, while the giraffes found large leaves to make a filter. Soon, the water became clear. Everyone drank (67)h_____ and saved some for later.
That night, the animals held a party to celebrate. “Teamwork is magic!” said Bruno, handing Felix some honey.
Felix smiled. “This taught me that no problem is too big if we use our (68) m_______ and work together.”
The next day, Felix found a new challenge: a tall tree blocking sunshine. He called a meeting. “Let’s solve this problem (69) t________ like we did before!”
The monkeys volunteered to climb and cut the sticks, while the mice dug around the roots (根). By noon, sunshine poured through the forest (70) a________ .
七、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)
阅读下面短文,根据要求完成下面各小题。
Two American astronauts, Butch Wilford and Sunita Williams, came back to the Earth in March 2025. They stay in the space for 9 months. In such a long time, they must follow some special rules to keep them healthy.
In space, everything moves freely in the air. Astronauts must sleep in special-bags that are tied to the wall. 73 If they don’t, they may move around and hit things. What’s more, they have to clean themselves with wet cloths because there is not much water in space.
74 The astronauts eat special food that doesn’t break into small pieces. Small pieces can fly around and break important things in the space station. They eat thin, round bread only for astronauts. They also need to drink lots of water to stay healthy.
Exercise is very important in space. Without the Earth pulling down on them, their muscles and bones (肌肉和骨骼) become weak. The astronauts must run for two hours every day on a special machine. They use belts to hold them in place while running. They also need to do yoga to keep their muscles strong.
These rules help the astronauts stay healthy while they wait to come home. Space is a hard place to live, following these rules can also keep them safe.
根据短文内容，回答下列问题。
71. How do the astronauts exercise every day in space
_________________________________________________
72. Why are the rules important for astronauts
_________________________________________________
将文中划线句子翻译成汉语。
73. ________________________________________________
74. ________________________________________________
给文章起一个合适的题目
75. ________________________________________________
八、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
年夜饭是中国文化中最重要的团圆饭。请以“The Family Dinner on Spring Festival Eve” 为题，写一篇约100词的短文，向外国笔友Steve介绍自己家乡年夜饭的菜式、寓意，以及丰富多样的文化习俗。
要求：
1. 文中不得出现考生姓名、学校及其他相关信息。
2. 照抄试卷内容不得分。
The Family Dinner on Spring Festival Eve
2024-2025学年第二学期期末质量检测
八年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第 I 卷 （选择题, 共 65 分）
一 ～ 三题
(一) 一 ～ 三题答案：
1-5 ABCAC 6-10 BCBAC 11---15 AACBC 16-20 BBCAD 21 -25 DCABC
26-30 ACADB 31-35 BCDAC 36-40 DBBCA 41-45 BADCB
(二) 评分说明：
1、1-25 题，每小题 1 分;
2、26-45 题，每小题 2分；
3、与答案不符, 不得分。
第 II 卷 （非选择题, 共 55 分）
四、听力填表
(一) 答案：
46. basketball 47. Chinese 48. will finish / finishes
49. 14 dollars / fourteen dollars / $ 14/ $ fourteen 50. 2 hours /two hours
（二）评分说明:
1. 本题共 5 分，每小题 1 分；
2. 第49小题，只写14或fourteen，得0.5分；dollars漏写s，不扣分；
3. 第50小题，只写2或two，得0.5分；hours漏写s，不扣分；；
五、动词填空
(一) 答案:
51. was 52. have stayed 53. is using 54. was surprised 55. was waiting
56. must say 57. running 58. to get 59. Tell 60. will, forget
(二) 评分说明：
(二) 评分说明：
1. 本题共10分，每小题1分；
2. 未用所给动词者，不得分；
3. 第59题，tell小写不扣分；
4. 与所给答案不同，只要语法正确， 符合逻辑及英语表达习惯也可得分。
六、综合填空
(一) 答案:
61. thirsty 62. alone 63. enough 64. Maybe 65. down
66. before 67. happily 68.mind 69. together 70.again
(二) 评分说明：
1. 本题共10分，每小题1分；
2. 与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写正确，符合逻辑及英语表达习惯也可得分。
七、阅读表达
（一）答案：
71. They jog and do yoga. /By jogging and doing yoga. /Jog and do yoga.
72. They can help them keep safe and stay healthy.
73.否则/如果不这样，他们可能会四处移动并撞到东西。
74.宇航员食用特制的食物，这些食物在太空中不会碎裂成小颗粒。
75. Rules for Astronauts in Space
（二）评分说明:
1. 本题共10分， 每小题2分。
2. 第71题，有两个要点① run ② do yoga每答出一个要点，得1分。与所给参考答案不同，但逻辑和表达都准确，也可得分；
3. 第72题， 有两个要点① keep safe ② stay healthy每答出一个要点，得1分。与所给参考答案不同，但逻辑和表达都准确，也可得分；
4. 73小题和74小题与所给参考答案表达方式不同， 但意思一致， 符合汉语表达习惯， 也可得分。
5. 75小题第75小题满分2分，与所给参考答案表达方式不同，但意思一致， 无语言错误， 符合英语表达习惯， 也可酌情得分。
6. 其他情况， 酌情得分。
八、书面表达
(一) A possible version：
The Family Dinner on Spring Festival Eve
In my hometown, the Spring Festival Eve dinner brings everyone together around a table full of meaningful dishes. We always serve steamed fish, symbolizing a wish for "surplus every year," and golden dumplings shaped like ancient coins to represent wealth. Sweet sticky rice balls remind us of family unity.
Before the meal, our house glows with red lanterns while we wear new clothes. Elders give children red envelopes filled with lucky money for good fortune. After dinner, we stay up late making dumplings together, sharing stories until midnight. When fireworks explode outside, we shout "Happy New Year!" and exchange hugs.
This warm tradition isn’t just about delicious food—it’s about sharing love and hopes for the coming year with those who matter most.
(二) 评分说明：
评分时，要从内容与结构、表达的逻辑性、层次性、连惯性和创造性、语法运用的恰当程度、单词拼写、标点符号的使用等方面综合考虑。本题共 20 分，分四档评分：
１、短文通顺完整，表达清楚, 语言基本无误，17－20 分；
２、短文较通顺完整，表达基本清楚，语言有少量错误，12－16 分；
３、能写明基本要点，短文不够通顺完整，语言有较多错误，但尚能达意，6－11 分；
４、仅能写明部分要点，短文不完整，语言错误多，影响意思表达，0－5
听力原文
一、听力选择（共 15 小题，计 15 分）
(一) 录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. Take it easy and you will get better soon.
2. Thank you very much for your beautiful present!
3. Could you tell me how to get to the post office
4. You used to be short, didn’t you
5. Where is tea produced in China
录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
6. M: I love the scarf. Is it made of silk
W: No, it’s made of bamboo. Some people think it’s made of cotton because it feels very soft.
7. M: Could you please tell me where the bookstore is Is it on the first or the second floor
W: Neither, it’s on the third floor of the mall.
8. M: Are you going to fly to Shanghai
W: No. I’m going there by train. It is much cheaper. And more convenient than driving a car.
9. M: Mary, what’s the best way to learn English for you
W: I think keeping a diary in English is the most useful. Besides, watching English videos and having conversations with friends in English also help.
10. W: I remember your brother, Ben, used to be thin and short.
M: Yes, he was. But now he is 1.9 meters tall. He is in his school basketball team.
（三）录音中有一段对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
W: When are the visitors coming, Philip
M: They had three dates to choose, April 25th, May 12th and June 28th. They chose the earliest one.
W: OK. How many visitors are coming 14 or 15
M: They said 14 at first, but they changed to 11 this morning.
W: Good, we have two weeks to get everything ready. Here are my suggestions. On the first day, we’ll have a welcome party. Then they can visit the schools on the second and third days.
M: Since the visitors want to learn about how computers are used in the classroom, we may ask Mr. Goodman to give them a talk about it on the third day afternoon.
W: That will be nice. What about the last two days？ Have a tour in New York
M: Why not take them to Niagara Falls I’m sure they’ll love them.
W: Good idea.
（注意：请同学们翻到第Ⅱ卷第四大题，继续做听力填表题。）
四、听力填表（共 5 小题，计 5 分）
录音中有一段短文，听录音两遍后，根据所听到的短文内容，完成下面的表格。（每空不多于3个词）
W: Sorry, the Green family is not at home right now. Please leave a message.
M: Hi, Linda. It’s Simon. I’m at home with my American family. They’re really friendly. What’s your family like Anyway, we’ve just finished lunch. The weather is really nice, and we are thinking about going to watch a basketball game this afternoon. Someone in the family plays on a basketball team, and his team is playing at 3 o’clock today. it lasts about 2 hours, and then we’re going to see a Chinese film named “Ne Zha” in the cinema. Have you heard of it The price of the ticket is only $14, including a free drink. The film is about one and a half hours long. It begins at 7:00 and finishes at 8:30. Call me if you want to join us. Bye!
听力测试到此结束，请同学们做其他试题。

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