广东省揭阳市揭西县棉湖中学2024-2025学年高一上学期期末教学质量监测英语试题(含答案)

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广东省揭阳市揭西县棉湖中学2024-2025学年高一上学期期末教学质量监测英语试题(含答案)

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2024—2025学年度第一学期教学质量监测
高一级英语科试卷
温馨提示:请将答案写在答题卡上;考试时间为120分钟,满分120分。
第一部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Are you looking for a great day camp program for your little ones this summer Here we have collected some of the best summer camps close to New York.
Atletico de Madrid
This camp once worked with Arsenal Football Club. It offers boys and girls aged 5-16 chances to train with one of the world’s most successful soccer colleges. Two players from the camp will be chosen by coaches to play a game in Madrid in October. This year, this camp will be running for two weeks.
Abrons Art Center
The Abrons Art Center offers learning experiences in dance, music and theater to campers aged 5-13. Campers will take part in an exchange with professional artists and arts workers, who will explain the artistic process. Extended (延长的) day classes provide more chances for arts learning.
A Montessori Summer
A Montessori Summer is for children aged 3.5-14. Each week, the program provides the students with a day trip away from school. Usually, children can enjoy the trips to beaches, parks and wildlife preserves (保护区) and they also go mountain-climbing. Certainly, these activities make students’ life more colorful.
92Y
The 92Y offers all kinds of experiences to every camper, from their outdoor day camps in beautiful Rockland County (县) (suitable for kids from 5-13 years of age) to their Preschool Day Camp for kids from 3-5 years of age. They also include more camps in the city for kids aged 3-18. From sports to language learning to adventure camps, every kid can pick whatever they like.
1. Campers in Atletico de Madrid may have a chance to ________.
A. win a two-week free training course. B. take a trip to Madrid.
C. join Arsenal Football Club for free. D. attend a famous soccer college in Madrid.
2. How is 92Y different from the other three programs
A. It has suitable camps for kids of different age groups.
B. Its activities mainly take place in cities.
C. Its adventure camps are very popular.
D. It often holds some sports games.
3. For whom is the text most probably written
A. Children from poor family backgrounds.
B. Parents looking for summer activities for kids.
C. Children with learning difficulties.
D. Parents searching for family activities.
B
Steve Spark s was a young successful lawyer working for a famous law office when his 3-year-old daughter’s serious leg problem changed his focus and the direction of his life. The problem led to many visits to doctors and an uncertain future. In a moment his life’s changed from where he was going to take his clients (客户)to lunch to whether his daughter Katie was ever going to see her fourth birthday.
For three years Katie received many treatments (治疗) in the hospital. And with the help of wonderful doctors and kind care-givers in Nemours Foundation who Steve and his wife Michelle describe as heroes, Katie’s illness was cured (治愈).
Forever changed by the experience and inspired (鼓舞) by the heroes who saved his daughter’s life, Steve felt he couldn’t go back to business as usual. He felt there was something else he was meant to do. He joined the Nemours Foundation as their lawyer. The job change came with a 65% pay cut from what he was making, but Steve’s purpose had found him and it was more important than a paycheck.
Fast forward 18 years, Katie is now a healthy 20-year-old junior in college and Steve is the Senior Vice-president of the Nemours Foundation where he brings Kati story and his purpose to work every day.
In 3 weeks Steve will celebrate Katie’s 21st birthday, and give a big thank-you to Nemours by riding his bicycle from Nemours’ headquarters in Jacksonville, Florida to Wilmington, Delaware. He will ride more than 900 miles in 9 days and raise $100,000 for the Nemours Foundation. His purpose hasn’t just become a part of his work. It has become a part of himself and his family.
4. What’s the text mainly about
A A hospital saved a girl’s life. B. A girl going through an illness.
C. A man with a good purpose. D. A family suffered a lot.
5. Which word can take the place of the underlined word “cut” in Paragraph 3
A. Injury. B. Hole. C. Share. D. Reduction.
6. What may be Steve’s purpose of life now
A. To find his purpose. B. To help others.
C. To make more money. D. To cure his daughter.
7. What can we learn from the text
A. Sometimes we find our purpose and sometimes our purpose finds us.
B. Unless you work hard, you cannot overcome any difficulty.
C. Anyone who is kind to others is worth good returns.
D. Nothing is more important than health.
C
The Paris Olympics organizers have applied to the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to include breakdancing (霹雳舞), which is also called breaking or b-boying/b-girling, after the sport’s success at the Youth Olympics in Buenos Aires, Argentina last year.
Along with breakdancing, the Paris committee has asked for skateboarding, climbing and surfing to be included as a way of making the 2024 Olympics more urban (城市的), more artistic and more attractive to young people.
Skateboarding, climbing and surfing — but not breakdancing — have already been included in the 2020 Summer Olympics in Tokyo. The IOC will make a decision on the Paris sports in December 2020, after the Tokyo Olympic Games.
“It is a victory for us. Even if it goes no further, we will still have won,” said Mounir Biba, one of the top breakdancers in France, where there is a strong breakdancing culture. The head of the Paris organizing committee, Tony Estanguet, said the committee’s goal was “to connect the games to their era (时代).”
Organizers explained the four sports have broad attraction to young people and large and active audiences on social media (社交媒体). The IOC is trying to make the Olympics less expensive and wasteful, which is good for the four sports as they shouldn’t need large and new stadiums.
8. B-boy or b-girling can also be called ________.
A skateboarding B. climbing
C. breakdancing D. surfing
9. When will the IOC decide on the Paris sports
A. In November,2020. B. In December,2020.
C. In September,2024. D. In October,2024.
10. The underlined word “broad” in the last paragraph means “________”.
A weak B. little C. new D. wide
11. Where can people most probably read the passage
A. In a science magazine. B. In an old textbook.
C. In a daily newspaper. D. In a children’s storybook.
D
What you do after studying could have a big effect on how well you learn and remember. Today on Education Tips, we will explore two no-cost ways that can help you improve your learning: wakeful rest and sleep.
When many students finish studying, they often go straight to another activity. Perhaps they look at their phone or computer. They might even play a video game or watch television. But research suggests that resting after your study may help you remember what you have studied.
The basic idea is this: by stopping your activity after the study, your brain gets a chance to rest. Resting is difficult when you are playing computer games.
While this might sound unusual to you, many studies have explored the benefits (好处) of resting after learning — what is called “wakeful rest”.
A 2019 study found that both young and older adults were able to better remember information they learned after doing wakeful rest.
If you want to give “wakeful rest” a try, here are a few simple things to do. Rest quietly for five to ten minutes. Do not look at your phone, read stories or play games. It is really that easy!
Besides wakeful rest, sleep is also important for learning. The Division of Sleep Medicine at Harvard Medical School(HMS)notes that sleep helps people to learn in two ways. A report on the school’s website explains that “a sleep-deprived (睡眠被剥夺的) person cannot focus attention well and so cannot learn well”. It also says, “Sleep itself helps us to memorize (记忆) and that memorizing is very important for learning new information.”
The National Sleep Foundation (NSF) suggests that adults between the ages of 20 and 64 get between 7 and 9 hours of sleep per day. Teenagers may need a little bit more, and people over the age of 65 may need a little less.
Try to get some “wakeful rest” after a study. Then try to get a good night’s sleep. That’s it — a simple, no-cost way to help you remember what you learn.
12. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The importance of sleep. B. The reason for having a rest.
C. The good ways to get a rest. D. The types of resting activities.
13. Which activity might be recommended shortly after studying
A. Sitting there doing nothing. B. Playing a video game.
C. Reading a newspaper. D. Having a nice sleep at night.
14. How long should teenagers sleep each day according to NSF
A. Less than 7 hours. B. Just 7 hours.
C. No more than 9 hours. D. Around 9 hours.
15. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Low-cost Tips on Working
B. Good Things to Do After Your Study
C. Why Do We Need to Have a Good Sleep
D. How Long Should We Rest After Learning
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Building positive relationships with others is important for personal growth. Here are some effective ways to better your interactions and build stronger connections.
· Practice active listening. ___16___. It also means understanding and responding (回应) thoughtfully. When someone speaks, focus on their message and pay close attention to it. Show that you are interested in the conversation by nodding, keeping eye contact, and asking questions. These make them feel valued.
· Show empathy. Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of others. When a friend or coworker expresses sadness or joy, don’t offer help right away. ___17___ Words like “I can see why you feel that way” can help create a more supportive environment.
· Communicate clearly. Clear communication is key to avoiding misunderstandings. Be clear and direct in your language. When discussing your thoughts or needs, express yourself honestly while also being considerate (体谅的) of others’ feelings. ___18___.
· Be respectful and considerate. Respect is important in any good relationship. ___19___. Show consideration for their time and personal space by being on time and mindful of their boundaries (边界). Small gestures, like thanking someone for their help or recognizing their contributions, go a long way in building positive relationships.
· ___20___. Shared interests can strengthen connections. Take time to discover common hobbies or experiences you may have with others. Joining in activities that you both enjoy can create lasting memories and deepen your relationship. It also allows you to start enjoyable conversations.
A. Find common ground
B. Always treat others with kindness
C. Instead, recognize their feelings first
D. Listening is more than just hearing words
E. Stay in touch with the people who share our happiness
F. This doesn’t mean that we should say sorry to our friends
G. At the same time, encourage open dialogue by asking for opinions
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Earlier this month, I bought a new smart phone. I didn’t ____21____ it much at first, only to get a call from my daughter. Soon, however, I found it ____22____ to surf the Internet on the smart phone than my large computer. Even with my ____23____ time I quickly found myself spending more and more of it on this phone.
Yesterday when I was ____24____ short videos on TikTok, suddenly a long and white nose ____25____ its way between me and my phone. ____26____ ,I put the phone down, took my glasses off and petted my dog. Soon we were hugging, and romping (嬉闹) around in the house. And I ____27____ something too. There was a feeling in my heart: a wonderful mixture of love, laughter, and ____28____. It was a ____29____ that I hadn’t gotten once during all that time I had spent on my phone.
It’s strange how it took a dog to ____30____ me of what is important. I ____31____ to spend less time on my phone and more time doing the ____32____ things in life like hugging my children, talking to my friends and even playing with my dog. ____33____ is here to stay. But we shouldn’t let it control us or our ____34____. We should use it only when it ____35____ us to do the important things like loving each other or making this world better.
21. A. intend B. use C. like D. preserve
22. A. cheaper B. narrower C. easier D. further
23. A. limited B. suitable C. free D. formal
24. A. taking down B. pointing at C. making out D. checking out
25. A. pushed B. felt C. lost D. struggled
26. A. Shaking B. Laughing C. Begging D. Identifying
27. A. demanded B. revised C. noticed D. delivered
28. A. responsibility B. attitude C. strength D. joy
29. A. feeling B. description C. strategy D. behavior
30. A. contact B. remind C. challenge D. warn
31. A. pretended B. reserved C. promised D. arranged
32. A. unique B. average C. important D. extreme
33. A. Communication B. Technology C. Contribution D. Impression
34. A. energy B. wisdom C. time D. effort
35. A. helps B. threatens C. requires D. affects
第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
根据句子结构的语法性,在下面空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中词的适当形式填空。
In recent years food has ____36____ (obvious) become a new hot spot (热点) for Chinese cities to attract tourists. Following Zibo and Harbin, Tianshui, ____37____ ancient city in Northwest China’s Gansu Province, became the ____38____ (hot) tourists destination of 2024 because of malatang, a local street dish.
Malatang, literally (字面上地) meaning “numbing (麻的), spicy, and hot” in Chinese, is a common street food that can ____39____ (find) all over China, but its tastes differ depending ____40____ the region (地区). In Tianshui, malatang is a mix of fresh ____41____ (vegetable) and meat boiled in a hot, spicy chicken soup.
Tianshui went viral (走红) when a student ____42____ (post) a seven-second video in February on her social media. In the video, she suggested ____43____ (make) Gansu malatang a national dish. The video, ____44____ quickly received millions of likes online, attracted food lovers to the city _____45_____ (experience) this local dish firsthand. Malatang also helps attract more visits to key attractions in Tianshui, such as Maijishan Grottoes and Fuxi Temple.
第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节满分15分
46. 假设你是李华,你的好友Mary前不久随父母去了加拿大,她写信告诉你她觉得很无助,想征求你的意见去更好地适应加拿大的高中生活。请你根据以下要点用英语给她写一封电子邮件。
1)学好英语,以便与外国人更好地交流;
2)多交一些朋友,友情会使她忘记孤独;
3)积极参加各种活动,发掘潜力,培养自信。
注意:1)词数80词左右。
2)可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Mary,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节满分25分
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sam’s birthday was coming, but his heart was filled with disappointment. Turning eleven was a big deal, and he had always celebrated it with a big party surrounded by his friends. However, this year was different. He had so much homework and his parents’ business was not good, so Sam thought it not a good idea to have a birthday party.
One day after class, his best friend, Jim, asked, “Are you going to have a birthday party this year ”
“No,” Sam answered sadly, “There’s just too much going on and my parents are going through some difficulties.”
He smiled weakly, trying to hide his disappointment, but Jim saw through his pretence(假装)easily. But Jim did not say anything. After the break, Sam saw Jim talking to one of their classmates, Sarah, secretly. Curious, Sam went over to them, but as soon as Jim saw him, he quickly walked away. Sam was surprised by Jim’s strange actions and turned towards Sarah.
“What did he say ” Sam asked.
However, Sarah just said no and walked away with Jim, leaving Sam standing there, feeling left out and worried.
What is happening Sam wondered worriedly. Are they keeping something from me
As Sam’s birthday came nearer, Sam often found Jim chatting softly with other classmates. Whenever Sam went over to them, they would just walk away or tell him that they were talking about a secret which Sam was not allowed to know. Jim had never kept secrets from me before, Sam thought. His heart fell. Why were his friends keeping away from him And what were they hiding
注意:1)续写词数应为150左右;2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
On the day of Sam’s birthday, he went to school and found his classroom in total darkness(漆黑).
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Tears came from Sam’s eyes and there was a bright smile on his face
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度第一学期教学质量监测
高一级英语科试卷
温馨提示:请将答案写在答题卡上;考试时间为120分钟,满分120分。
第一部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. A 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. D 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. D 17. C 18. G 19. B 20. A
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A
第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. obviously
37. an 38. hottest
39. be found
40. on##upon
41. vegetables
42. posted 43. making
44. which 45. to experience
第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节满分15分
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Mary,
I’m sorry to hear that you’re feeling helpless in Canada. But don’t worry. Here are some suggestions for you to adapt to high-school life there.
First, learn English well. A good command of English will enable you to communicate better with foreigners. Second, make more friends. Friendship can drive away your loneliness. Finally, take an active part in various activities. This can help you discover your potential and build up your confidence.
I’m sure you’ll get used to the new life soon.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节满分25分
【47题答案】
【答案】On the day of Sam’s birthday, he went to school and found his classroom in total darkness(漆黑). He was confused and a bit scared. Just as he was about to turn on the light, he heard a loud “Surprise!” All his classmates, led by Jim, jumped out from their hiding places, holding balloons and presents. The classroom was beautifully decorated with colorful streamers and a big “Happy Birthday Sam” sign. Sam was completely taken aback. He never expected this. Jim walked up to him with a big smile and said, “We knew you thought you couldn't have a party, but we wanted to give you a special one.”
Tears came from Sam’s eyes and there was a bright smile on his face. He was deeply touched by his friends’ thoughtfulness. “Thank you all so much! This is the best birthday gift ever,” Sam said with a choked voice. They then started the party. They sang, danced, and ate delicious cake together. Sam realized that even though his parents were facing difficulties, he still had his wonderful friends who cared about him. This birthday became one of the most unforgettable and special days in his life, filled with love and joy from his friends.

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