资源简介

单元素养测评卷(三)
Unit 3
第一部分　听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
(　)1.What can the woman have
A.Fruit. 　　　　　B.Vegetables.　　　　 C.Coffee.
(　)2.What does the woman think of Gina
A.Untidy. B.Unusual. C.Impolite.
(　)3.When will the speakers meet
A.At 5:00. B.At 5:45. C.At 6:15.
(　)4.What does the woman think of the man’s leaving
A.She is annoyed. B.She is excited.
C.She is understanding.
(　)5.What are the speakers talking about
A.The man’s friends.
B.The man’s school life.
C.The man’s weekend plan.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
(　)6.When does the meeting end
A.At 8:30. B.At 9:00. C.At 10:30.
(　)7.What do we know about the woman
A.She was late for work today.
B.She will be the man’s assistant.
C.She is a new worker of the company.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
(　)8.Where does the conversation take place
A.In a hospital. B.In a gym. C.In a park.
(　)9.What happened to Molly yesterday
A.She fell off the bed.
B.She had trouble breathing.
C.She almost died of heart disease.
(　)10.What annoys Molly most
A.Stopping drinking Coke.
B.Giving up fried chips.
C.Getting up early.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11至 13 题。
(　)11.Why is the man interested in this job
A.To challenge himself.
B.To work abroad.
C.To stay in Seattle.
(　)12.What is good customer service according to the man
A.Being a good listener.
B.Giving suitable suggestions.
C.Visiting customers frequently.
(　)13.How can the man improve his work
A.By being more patient.
B.By doing paperwork quickly.
C.By keeping learning new skills.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
(　)14.What time is it now by the man’s watch
A.3:30 am. B.8:00 am. C.7:30 pm.
(　)15.What does the woman want to do
A.Set her watch. B.Sleep for a while.
C.Ask for a blanket.
(　)16.Why can’t the woman hear properly
A.Because of the loud noise made by passengers.
B.Because of the loud noise made by the plane engine.
C.Because of the change in air pressure.
(　)17.What can we learn from the conversation
A.It’s a short flight.
B.The speakers are landing now.
C.The plane is going to take off soon.
听第10 段材料,回答第18至20题。
(　)18.What does the speaker think of his first marathon
A.Boring. B.Satisfying. C.Difficult.
(　)19.Why does the speaker find the race in Kuala Lumpur hardest
A.He was too nervous.
B.He lacked training beforehand.
C.He didn’t take his running shoes.
(　)20.What made the speaker shocked in the race in Russia
A.He got the third place.
B.He completed his challenge.
C.It took place in hot weather.
第二部分　阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A [2025·武汉市部分重点中学高一期末联考]
Washington, D.C. is a theatre town. Here’s where you can get the best performances and cultural experiences offered for every taste in the nation’s capital.
Kennedy Centre
Kennedy Centre hosts hundreds of world-class performances each year and is home to the National Symphony Orchestra and the Washington National Opera. The Suzanne Farrell Ballet also counts Kennedy Centre as its performance headquarters. The company—under the direction of Farrell—was first invited to perform there in 1993 and has since become one of the venue’s most famous attractions.
Woolly Mammoth Company
Woolly Mammoth Company is an experimental theatre that welcomes original plays that push the boundaries of live theatre. The New York Times has called it “Washington’s most daring theatre company”, and the half dozen plays Woolly produces each year continue to live up to that reputation.
Shakespeare Theatre Company
For more than 25 years, Shakespeare Theatre Company has committed itself to serving as the nation’s classical theatre. It operates out of two spaces, including Sidney Harman Hall at the Harman Centre, which seats 775, and the Lansburgh Theatre, which seats 451. The shiny, glass-walled Harman Centre showcases classic Shakespeare plays, modern updates and Shakespeare-inspired original shows.
Wolf Trap
For locals, summer isn’t complete without at least one trip to Wolf Trap, the only national park dedicated to the performing arts. The venue is best-known for performances of touring artists. The open-air theatre offers covered seating, but when the weather warms up, we suggest buying seats on the grassland and packing a picnic.
(　)21.Where can you appreciate the top-level ballet
A.Harman Centre. 　　　B.Kennedy Centre.
C.Lansburgh Theatre. D.Woolly Mammoth Company.
(　)22.What is Shakespeare Theatre Company focused on
A.Providing the national classics.
B.Working on the performing arts.
C.Holding world-class performances.
D.Showcasing the latest creative plays.
(　)23.What may be the particular feature of Wolf Trap
A.Its original works.
B.Its covered seating.
C.Its open-air atmosphere.
D.Its Shakespeare plays.
B [2025·江苏盐城八校联考高一期末]
I did my first marathon at 25. I’d taken up running to get fit and thought I’d give it a try. However, I started too fast, found it very painful and struggled to finish. Then, seven years ago, when I was 43, I went to talk with someone who had just done the Sahara Desert race. I felt so inspired and promised I would run it, too.
A year later, I completed a 24-hour ultra-marathon in the Namibian desert. I wondered what on earth I could do next. My father, a former soldier, had just died of cancer and I wanted to gather funds for a soldiers’ charity in his memory. There are 66 cities in the UK so I came up with a challenge—a 50 km marathon in each city, no rest days in between. On the first day, I ran for around six to seven hours, eating along the way to get more energy. On day two, I tore my right Achilles tendon (跟腱). I slowed my pace and thought about the soldiers’ charity I was doing the run for. It was nothing compared with some of their injuries.
Then, on day 26, it got worse. I couldn’t bear even the light touch of an ice cube. I had to walk through the day, which took almost 11 hours. I kept telling myself I couldn’t fail. If I quit, the pain would have stopped, but I knew I would regret it for the rest of my life. On May 20 I finished, four days after my 50th birthday.
It’s been a long progression from being an unfit slacker (懒散的人) to where I am now. I have a better body now than at any point in my life. Anyone can do this. I’m not a super human. I’m just determined, and I have the next thing planned already.
(　)24.How was the author’s first marathon
A.He didn’t finish it.
B.He didn’t do it well.
C.He got hurt halfway.
D.He fell in love with it.
(　)25.What was the writer’s purpose of running marathons in the UK
A.To raise money for a charity.
B.To create a new world record.
C.To prepare for a marathon race.
D.To push himself to reach the goal.
(　)26.What does the author think is the most important quality he has
A.Kindness. 　　　　B.Curiosity.
C.Bravery. D.Determination.
(　)27.What can be the best title for the text
A.Never stop running
B.Running makes success
C.Being prepared for running
D.Running for a better future
C [2025·浙江丽水高一期末]
According to the Gallup World Poll for the World Happiness Report 2024, America has fallen out of the top 20 happiest countries for the first time. This is not surprising considering the rising costs of living and a number of daily disturbing news reports. But the key factor is that social media has replaced in-person interaction and often creates a feeling of missing out. One way that companies can help deal with these challenges is holding community-building activities and providing employees (雇员) with social purpose.
A recent study by Ares Management Corporation looked into the effects of workplace volunteer programmes, conducting interviews with more than 5,100 employees across five countries. The goal of this study is to understand how acts of selflessness change the givers. The results stress the fact that volunteering enriches the lives of both receivers and volunteers. According to the study, employees who participate in workplace volunteer programmes are more likely than nonparticipants to be content with their jobs and chances for professional growth.
Many companies make efforts to offer more time away from the office to make it easy for their employees to volunteer. One of the best examples is IBM, a leader in this space, recognizing the benefits of investing in community service for its employees. The company sponsors its employees on multi-week service projects in developing countries. Enabling volunteers to take much time away from the office to travel abroad to make an effect creates a life-changing experience for both the workers and the communities they are supporting.
Especially in times like today, when we face so many worries and stresses that are out of our control, volunteering offers mental improvement by bringing people together and giving them a way to make a positive difference. And there are no more meaningful ways to improve employee wellness and satisfaction.
(　)28.What’s the major cause in the reduction of happiness in America
A.Increasing living expenses.
B.Various social media apps.
C.Less face-to-face communication.
D.Countless troublesome information.
(　)29.According to Paragraph 2, the study mainly focuses on 　　.
A.how workplace volunteer programmes affect employees
B.what workplace volunteer programmes bring to the community
C.whether workplace volunteer programmes should be carried out
D.why workplace volunteer programmes are popular across countries
(　)30.Why does the author mention the example of IBM
A.To praise the employees in IBM.
B.To advocate volunteering abroad.
C.To comment on a new voluntary model.
D.To show companies’ support for volunteering.
(　)31.Which of the following is the best title for the text
A.Volunteering: bring people together
B.Volunteering: enrich the community
C.Volunteering: offer mental improvement
D.Volunteering: increase employee happiness
D [2025·广东茂名高一期末]
Educators and business leaders have more in common than it may seem. Teachers want to prepare students for a successful future. Technology companies have an interest in developing a workforce with the STEM (science, technology, engineering and maths) skills needed to grow the company and advance the industry. How can they work together to achieve these goals Play may be the answer.
Focusing on STEM skills is important, but the reality is that STEM skills can be improved when mixed with traditional, hands-on creative activities. This mix is proving to be the best way to prepare today’s children to be the makers and builders of tomorrow. That is why technology companies are partnering with educators to bring back good, old-fashioned play.
In fact, many experts argue that the most important 21st-century skills aren’t related to specific technologies or subject matter, but to creativity; skills like imagination, problem-finding and problem-solving, teamwork, patience and the ability to experiment and take risks. These are skills acquired when kids tinker (鼓捣小玩意). High-tech industries such as NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory have found that their best well-rounded problem solvers were master tinkers in their youth.
There are cognitive (认知的) benefits of doing things the way we did as children—building something, tearing it down, then building it up again. Research shows that given 15 minutes of free play, four- and five-year-olds will spend a third of this time absorbed in various activities. This type of play—especially with building blocks—helps children discover and develop key principles in maths.
If play and building are important to 21st-century skill development, that’s really good news for two reasons: children are born builders, makers, and creators, so developing 21st-century skills may be as simple as giving kids room to play, tinker and try things out, even as they grow older. Moreover, it doesn’t take 21st-century technology to develop 21st-century skills. This is especially important for under-resourced schools and communities. Taking whatever materials they have and tinkering with them is a simple way to develop those important “maker” skills. And anyone, anywhere, can do it.
(　)32.What do you know about educators and business leaders from Paragraph 1
A.They will play together.
B.They have nothing in common.
C.They share the same goals.
D.They will partner with each other.
(　)33.What is the best way to prepare children for a successful future
A.Mixing STEM skills with DIY activities.
B.Developing specific technologies.
C.Focusing on STEM skills.
D.Relating to subject matter.
(　)34.Why does the author mention NASA’s best well-rounded problem solvers in Paragraph 3
A.To stress the benefits of skills.
B.To show the findings of NASA.
C.To explain the ways of tinkering.
D.To prove the importance of tinkering.
(　)35.What does the author advise schools and communities with limited resources to do
A.Add teaching materials.
B.Employ handy resources.
C.Introduce advanced technology.
D.Provide problem-solving opportunities.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
[2025·安徽省高一期末]
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Young people today can download an app on their phone in seconds. They can quickly make things like videos and music. 36.　　　　 They’re known as digital natives. It is a term for people who have grown up using digital technology.
But according to teachers, there’s one thing many of them can’t do very well: type on a keyboard. The 23-year-old singer Billie Eilish said this year that she never learned to type, and now she regrets it. According to the US Department of Education, there has been a big decrease in the number of courses that teach typing in the classroom. 37.　　　
The department said that in 2000, 44% of students had taken a typing course before finishing high school. 38.　　　　 In August, The Wall Street Journal spoke to a number of young adults and teenagers about typing. Many said they have to take their time while typing on a computer keyboard, looking carefully to find the letters they want.
39.　　　　 It involves using all fingers to type without looking at the keyboard. However, young people today often lack this ability. It’s said one of the reasons young people are slower at typing is that they do a lot of their schoolwork on smartphones or tablets.
Some teachers think young people’s typing speeds might cause them problems when they’re writing long assignments at university, or working in a job that needs them to type a lot. 40.　　　　 But experts still say being able to touch type can help people find better job opportunities.
A.One thing has changed.
B.It might not be needed for all jobs.
C.There are some excellent typing programmes online.
D.They might even be able to create an app themselves!
E.However, by 2019, only 2.5% of students had taken such a course.
F.That’s despite a big increase in the use of technology in classrooms.
G.In older generations, touch typing was considered an important skill.
第三部分　语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
[2025·江苏镇江高一期末]
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
My grandmother had always been an agriculture artist. Each part of her yard showed her 　41　 for plants. When moving to a new house, she viewed her new garden as a(n) 　42　 and immediately went to work.
However, a fruit tree 　43　 to bear fruit even though Grandma worked hard. She spoke to the tree, sang to the tree, reasoned with this tree—all of no use. Finally, she 　44　 a manager in the Department of Agriculture. After Grandma 　45　 what she had already done, he made a(n) 　46　 suggestion—to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick.
　47　 about what the neighbours might think of a woman in her seventies beating a tree, Grandma looked both ways before taking the end of a broom to the tree. She doubted whether fruit would be the result of such an 　48　 approach.
To her 　49　 the next spring the tree bore plentiful fruit. Her grandchildren enjoyed the 　50　 of the tree happily. We often laughed together at how 　51　 this beautiful elderly woman must have looked as she 　52　 the tree. The story will always serve as a great source of 　53　 for our family.
A few months before her death, when I was 　54　 an especially difficult time, I called Grandma for advice. She lovingly reminded me that my roots were being stimulated (刺激) by the personal trials (考验) I faced and that I would be a more 　55　 “tree” because of them.
She was both an amazing gardener and a wise grandma.
(　)41.A.preparation 　　　　　　　B.love
C.hope D.pity
(　)42.A.adventure B.workmate
C.disaster D.excuse
(　)43.A.offered B.expected
C.tried D.refused
(　)44.A.encouraged B.contacted
C.comforted D.taught
(　)45.A.listed B.forgot
C.drew D.imagined
(　)46.A.unexpected B.traditional
C.generous D.common
(　)47.A.Puzzled B.Concerned
C.Excited D.Disappointed
(　)48.A.unimportant B.unfair
C.unusual D.incorrect
(　)49.A.fright B.disappointment
C.shame D.amazement
(　)50.A.product B.beauty
C.warmth D.protection
(　)51.A.gentle B.silly
C.careless D.patient
(　)52.A.touched B.watched
C.watered D.hit
(　)53.A.sadness B.challenge
C.joy D.pain
(　)54.A.going through B.going over
C.going after D.going against
(　)55.A.important B.interesting
C.fruitful D.expensive
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
[2025·广东18校联考高一期末]
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Located in the centre of Beijing, Beihai Park is close to the Forbidden City in the west, and to Coal Hill Park in the east. It 56.　　　　　　 (connect) the Central Lake and the South Lake, and borders the Shichahai Lake in the north. Beihai Park has the 57.　　　　　　 (long) history among the Chinese imperial parks. Its history also ties in with the history of Beijing’s 58.　　　　　　 (develop) as a city.
The Emperor Qianlong of the Qing Dynasty (1644—1911) enjoyed 59.　　　　　　 (build) gardens. So for 44 years, from 1742 right through till 1786, he oversaw (监督) 60.　　　　　　 construction of a monumental project. The project included 126 halls, lots of arches over gateways and temples, 25 bridges, restoration as well as reconstruction of 12 61.　　　　　　 (exist) buildings on the shore of the lake.
Then 62.　　　　　　 (come) the arrival of one of the most famous women in Chinese history, Cixi. She took a lot of money that 63.　　　　　　　　 (suppose) to be distributed to the army and used it to renovate the palace. She even built a 1,510.4-metre-long railway, 64.　　　　　　 started at the Tower of Vermilion Light (in the Middle Sea) and ended at the Clear Mirror Study (the Heart-Ease Study) in Beihai Park. During the Qing Dynasty, Beihai Park was regarded 65.　　　　　　 a place of recreation for the imperial family, and was known as the Winter Palace.
第四部分　写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)[2025·安徽省江南十校高一联考]
假定你是李华,你的英国好友 Tom听说你校最近举办了中国茶文化展,对此非常感兴趣,来信向你咨询相关情况。请你给他写一封回信。内容包括:
1.文化展内容及意义;
2.活动反响。
注意:1.词数为80个左右;
2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Tom,
I hope this letter finds you well.




Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分) [2025·河南许昌高一期末]
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Josh was a young boy who loved playing video games. He had a group of friends with whom he played online, and they made a great team. They used headsets (耳机) to talk to each other while playing games together, and they did this almost every day.
One Sunday afternoon, Josh’s mum, Andrea, approached him with a special request. She asked if he could help her make leche flan (焦糖布丁), which was Josh’s favourite dessert (甜点). His mum had been working very hard lately, but she always tried to spend more time with him. Josh wanted to play games with his friends because they hoped to do well in matches to compete for prizes. He finally refused his mum’s request.
A week later, Josh’s team lost many of their matches. Josh was very sad. This meant they wouldn’t be able to take part in the upcoming final. He wished he had spent more time playing games with his friends.
One evening, he came home and his mum wasn’t in. He texted her and found out she was in the hospital because she had fainted at work. She said she was safe and asked Josh to pick her up later at night.
Josh was at a loss. He realized that his mum was overworking herself. He wanted to express his feelings without just saying sorry, but he wasn’t sure how. Then he remembered a moment from his childhood. After a bad day at school, his mum had promised him “something that will cheer you up”. After working in the kitchen, she brought out a plate of fresh leche flan. She ate a spoonful and smiled happily. Leche flan was also his mum’s favourite.
注意:续写词数应为150个左右。
Paragraph 1:
Back in the present, Josh decided to cheer up his mum.




Paragraph 2:
Josh went to the hospital to pick up his mum.



单元素养测评卷(三)
　　1—5　　BABAC6—10　 CCCBC11—15　BABAB16—20　CBBCA
　　21—25　BACBA 26—30　DACAD 31—35　DDADB 36—40　DFEGB
　　41—45　BADBA 46—50　ABCDA 51—55　BDCAC
第一部分
录音稿
Text 1
M: Would you like a piece of cake or a coffee
W: No, I’m on a diet. I’m only supposed to eat vegetables. I can’t even have fruit because it has too much sugar.
Text 2
M: So what do you think of Gina
W: Well, she is a nurse, but she is a bit untidy. Before she moved in, she said she loved cleaning her old apartment.
Text 3
M: Hello, Sally. How about going for a meal this evening
W: Good idea! I finish work at five. Why don’t we meet at a quarter to six
M: OK, that sounds good. Let’s meet in front of the train station.
Text 4
M: I hope you can understand my reasons for deciding to leave, Mrs Harrison.
W: Do I have to remind you that we have put a lot of time and money in your career here
Text 5
W: What are you going to do at the weekend
M: I’m going to have music lessons, and I’m also going to see a film with my friends.
W: Sounds good.
Text 6
M: Hello, Sarah. Good to see you again. Welcome to the company.
W: Thank you. I know you asked me to come in a little later on my first day, but what time do I normally start work
M: Well, the office opens at 8:30 and the team starts work at a 9 o’clock meeting.
W: What happens after the meeting
M: We take a break at 10:30. My assistant Mia makes coffee for us all. Then it’s time to call customers and make sales.
W: That sounds good.
Text 7
M: Hey, Molly. What are you doing here
W: Can’t you see that I’m running
M: Of course. But I never saw you in the park at 6 o’clock in the morning. You never exercised, did you
W: Well, I’ve decided to make a change.
M: Why
W: I was reading books at home yesterday. When I got up to get something to drink, I had trouble breathing. Although the discomfort went away soon, I was scared, so I went to the doctor immediately.
M: Was there anything wrong
W: He said I would die of heart disease if I kept the former lifestyle.
M: So what was the doctor’s advice
W: Have a balanced diet and take more exercise. Thus, I have to say goodbye to my favourite fried chips and Coke, but what annoys me most is that I have to leave my warm bed at such an early time while others are still having dreams.
Text 8
W: So Mr Smith, why would you like to leave your current job
M: Well, the sales position that you are offering would give me opportunities to work internationally. At the moment, I’m just based in Seattle.
W: I see. But what makes you suitable for this job
M: I’ve been very successful so far in sales and I think I can offer a good service to your customers.
W: Interesting point. What is good customer service in your view
M: The most important skill is the ability to listen to what customers have to say.
W: Very true. But of course learning is a never-ending process for anybody in business. Now, what are your weaknesses, would you say
M: I suppose I’m not very good at making sure all the paperwork in sales is completed quickly. You know, I prefer to be out there, going on to the next customer. But of course, I know it has to be done. I’m trying to improve.
W: OK. Now, what are your salary requirements For this sales position, I mean.
Text 9
M: This is a long flight. Marina, are you OK
W: Gee, I’m sleepy. What time is it now
M: According to my watch it’s 3:30 am. We’ve been flying for eight hours. I set it at the airport. Do we have to set our watches back when we cross the International Date Line or do we move them up I can never remember which way it is.
W: I have no idea, too. I think I’ll take a nap.
M: Go ahead. Here is your blanket and your pillow.
W: My ears feel funny. I can’t hear properly.
M: Don’t worry. It’s because of the change in air pressure.
W: Do you feel all right
M: I’m OK. If you open and shut your mouth repeatedly, it will help.
W: I will try chewing some gum.
M: Listen to the announcement. The plane is taxiing on the runway and making a perfect landing.
Text 10
M: I’ll talk about the marathons I ran these years. My first marathon was in Okinawa, Japan. On the morning of the race, I was pretty nervous. But the weather was beautiful, the atmosphere was fantastic, and my training beforehand was just enough—I finished the race! It was an amazing feeling! My favourite marathon was the one in Reykjavik, Iceland. Iceland is a beautiful country and the scenery along the course was breathtaking. The most difficult race was in Kuala Lumpur. First of all, it was really hot. But, my biggest mistake was that I forgot to pack my running shoes! Can you believe it So, the day before the race, I had to buy new shoes and during the race, my feet were pretty painful! In St. Petersburg, which is in Russia, I managed to finish in third place! This was a real shock. After my last race in Bangkok, Thailand, I had completed my challenge. I still enjoy running. I’m currently preparing for a full marathon in Stockholm. And maybe I’ll try running 20 marathons in the new year!
第二部分　
第一节
A
【文章大意】 本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了四个位于华盛顿的剧院。
21. B　细节理解题。根据Kennedy Centre中的“Kennedy Centre hosts hundreds of world-class performances each year and is home to the National Symphony Orchestra and the Washington National Opera. The Suzanne Farrell Ballet also counts Kennedy Centre as its performance headquarters. The company—under the direction of Farrell—was first invited to perform there in 1993 and has since become one of the venue’s most famous attractions.”可知,在肯尼迪中心可以欣赏高水平芭蕾舞表演。故选B项。
22. A　细节理解题。根据Shakespeare Theatre Company中的“For more than 25 years, Shakespeare Theatre Company has committed itself to serving as the nation’s classical theatre…The shiny, glass-walled Harman Centre showcases classic Shakeseare plays, modern updates and Shakespeare-inspired original shows.”可知,该剧院展示经典的莎士比亚戏剧、现代改编版和受莎士比亚启发的原创作品。由此可知,它集中提供国家经典剧目。故选A项。
23. C　细节理解题。根据Wolf Trap中的“For locals, summer isn’t complete without at least one trip to Wolf Trap, the only national park dedicated to the performing arts…but when the weather warms up, we suggest buying seats on the grassland and packing a picnic.”可知,尽管Wolf Trap国家公园有带顶棚的座位,但当天气变暖时,建议购买草地上的座位并准备野餐,因此它的特色在于露天环境。故选C项。
B
【文章大意】 本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者从首次艰难完成马拉松到挑战自我,连续在英国66个城市每个城市完成50公里跑,为慈善机构筹款并纪念父亲的故事。
24. B　细节理解题。根据首段中的“I did my first marathon at 25. I’d taken up running to get fit and thought I’d give it a try. However, I started too fast, found it very painful and struggled to finish.”可知,作者第一次跑马拉松时起始速度过快,痛苦并挣扎着完成。由此可知,作者的第一次马拉松跑得不好。故选B项。
25. A　细节理解题。根据第二段中的“My father, a former soldier, had just died of cancer and I wanted to gather funds for a soldiers’ charity in his memory. There are 66 cities in the UK so I came up with a challenge—a 50 km marathon in each city, no rest days in between.”可知,作者的父亲曾是一名军人,因癌症去世,作者希望为一个军人慈善机构筹集资金以纪念他。由此可知,作者在英国跑步的主要目的是为慈善机构筹集资金。故选A项。
26. D　推理判断题。根据第三段中的“I kept telling myself I couldn’t fail. If I quit, the pain would have stopped, but I knew I would regret it for the rest of my life.”以及尾段中的“I’m just determined, and I have the next thing planned already.”可知,作者在感到痛苦的时候不断提醒自己不能放弃,并且认为自己有决心。由此推知,作者认为决心是他最重要的品质。故选D项。
27. A　主旨大意题。通读全文可知,作者从第一次艰难完成马拉松,到后来挑战自我完成一系列极限跑步,这一过程展现了作者不会停止追求新的目标的决心。由此可知,“Never stop running”(永不停止奔跑)最能概括文本的主题思想,适合作为最佳标题。故选A项。
C
【文章大意】 这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了美国幸福感下降的原因以及志愿服务对提升幸福感的作用。美国幸福感下降的主要原因是社交媒体取代了面对面交流,公司可以通过举办社区建设活动和让员工参与志愿服务来改善这种情况,且志愿服务对员工和社区都有益处。
28.C　细节理解题。根据第一段中“According to the Gallup World Poll for the World Happiness Report 2024, America has fallen out of the top 20 happiest countries for the first time. This is not surprising considering the rising costs of living and a number of daily disturbing news reports. But the key factor is that social media has replaced in-person interaction and often creates a feeling of missing out.”可知,美国幸福感下降的关键因素是社交媒体取代了面对面的交流,让人产生一种错过的感觉。故选C项。
29.A　细节理解题。根据第二段中“A recent study by Ares Management Corporation looked into the effects of workplace volunteer programmes, conducting interviews with more than 5,100 employees across five countries. The goal of this study is to understand how acts of selflessness change the givers.”可知,这项研究主要是调查职场志愿者项目对员工(给予者)的影响,了解无私的行为是如何改变给予者的。故选A项。
30.D　推理判断题。根据第三段中“Many companies make efforts to offer more time away from the office to make it easy for their employees to volunteer. One of the best examples is IBM, a leader in this space, recognizing the benefits of investing in community service for its employees.”可知,作者提到 IBM 的例子是为了展示公司对志愿服务的支持。故选D项。
31.D　主旨大意题。文章开篇指出美国幸福感下降,接着提到公司可以通过让员工参与志愿服务来应对挑战,然后阐述了志愿服务对员工的好处,如对工作和职业成长机会更满足,最后强调志愿服务能提升员工的幸福感和满意度。由此可知,D 选项“志愿服务:增加员工幸福感”符合文章主旨,是最佳标题。故选D项。
D
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了通过结合STEM技能与传统动手的创造性活动,特别是“玩”的方式,来培养21世纪所需技能的重要性。
32.D　推理判断题。由文章第一段“Educators and business leaders have more in common than it may seem. Teachers want to prepare students for a successful future. Technology companies have an interest in developing a workforce with the STEM (science, technology, engineering and maths) skills needed to grow the company and advance the industry. How can they work together to achieve these goals Play may be the answer.”[教育工作者和商业领袖的共同点比看起来要多。老师想让学生为成功的未来做好准备。科技公司有兴趣培养具有STEM(科学、技术、工程和数学)技能的员工,以促进公司发展和行业发展。他们如何共同努力实现这些目标 “玩”可能是答案。]可知,教育工作者和商业领袖将相互合作。故选D。
33.A　细节理解题。由文章第二段中“Focusing on STEM skills is important, but the reality is that STEM skills can be improved when mixed with traditional, hands-on creative activities. This mix is proving to be the best way to prepare today’s children to be the makers and builders of tomorrow.”(专注于STEM技能很重要,但现实情况是,STEM技能可以在与传统的、动手的创造性活动相结合时得到提高。事实证明,这种组合是让今天的孩子成为明天的创造者和建设者的最佳方式。)可知,STEM技能与传统动手的创造性活动相结合被认为是培养未来建设者和创造者的最佳方式。故选A。
34.D　推理判断题。由文章第三段中“These are skills acquired when kids tinker (鼓捣小玩意). High-tech industries such as NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory have found that their best well-rounded problem solvers were master tinkers in their youth.”(这些都是孩子们在鼓捣小玩意时获得的技能。美国国家航空航天局喷气推进实验室等高科技行业发现,它们最出色的、最全面的问题解决者在年轻时都是鼓捣小玩意的大师。)可知,作者在第三段中提到了美国宇航局最出色的、最全面的问题解决者是为了证明鼓捣小玩意的重要性。故选D。
35.B　细节理解题。由文章最后一段中“Moreover, it doesn’t take 21st-century technology to develop 21st-century skills. This is especially important for under-resourced schools and communities. Taking whatever materials they have and tinkering with them is a simple way to develop those important ‘maker’ skills. And anyone, anywhere, can do it.”(此外,培养21世纪的技能并不需要21世纪的技术。这对资源不足的学校和社区尤其重要。利用他们拥有的任何材料并对其鼓捣是培养这些重要的“创造者”技能的简单方法。任何人在任何地方都可以做到。)可知,作者建议资源有限的学校和社区使用方便的资源。故选B。
第二节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了当今数字时代下年轻人打字技能缺失的现象,并提到了一些老师对年轻人打字速度慢的担忧,以及专家对打字技能在职场中的重要性的看法。
36. D　根据上文“Young people today can download an app on their phone in seconds. They can quickly make things like videos and music.”可知,上文描述了现在年轻人使用数字技术的能力。选项D“They might even be able to create an app themselves!”(他们甚至可以自己开发一款应用程序!)进一步说明年轻人在数字技术方面的能力,承接上文。故选D。
37. F　根据上文“According to the US Department of Education, there has been a big decrease in the number of courses that teach typing in the classroom.”可知,教授打字的课程数量大幅减少。选项F“That’s despite a big increase in the use of technology in classrooms.”表明尽管在教室里技术的使用大幅增加,但打字课程却减少了,形成对比。故选F。
38. E　根据空前“The department said that in 2000, 44% of students had taken a typing course before finishing high school.”可知,上文提到2000年44%的学生在高中毕业前上过打字课程。选项E“However, by 2019, only 2.5% of students had taken such a course.”通过however转折,给出2019年的数据,体现出打字课程参与率的下降,与前文对应。故选E。
39. G　根据下文“It involves using all fingers to type without looking at the keyboard. However, young people today often lack this ability.”可推测,空处需要指出this ability是什么。选项G“In older generations, touch typing was considered an important skill.”(在老一辈人中,盲打被视为一项重要技能。)中的touch typing即下文的it以及this ability,与下文内容一致。故选G。
40. B　根据上文“Some teachers think young people’s typing speeds might cause them problems when they’re writing long assignments at university, or working in a job that needs them to type a lot.”可知,年轻人打字速度可能在写长篇作业或从事大量打字工作时带来问题。选项B“It might not be needed for all jobs.”与上文内容形成转折,指出不是所有工作都需要快速打字的能力,自然引出下文“But experts still say being able to touch type can help people find better job opportunities.”。故选B。
第三部分
第一节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇记叙文。本文主要讲述了热爱园艺的祖母,在面对果树不结果的问题时,采取了奇特方法——用扫帚敲打树干基部,最终使果树结出了丰硕的果实。祖母给家人带来了欢乐和启发,作者还从祖母的话中获得了面对人生困难时的勇气和力量。
41.B　根据前文“My grandmother had always been an agriculture artist.”可知,祖母一直是一位农业艺术家,因此院子里的每一部分都展现出她对植物的热爱。故选B项。preparation准备;love热爱;hope希望;pity遗憾。
42.A　根据后文“…immediately went to work.”以及下文“…even though Grandma worked hard. She spoke to the tree, sang to the tree, reasoned with this tree—all of no use.”可知,她搬到新家后立即开始工作,把新花园当成了需要努力的工作,就像一次冒险一样,看能否有收获。故选A项。adventure冒险;workmate同事;disaster灾难;excuse借口。
43.D　根据后文“She spoke to the tree, sang to the tree, reasoned with the tree—all of no use.”可知,奶奶对这棵树说话、唱歌、讲道理,但都没有用,说明这棵树就是不肯结果。故选D项。offer提供;expect预期;try尝试;refuse拒绝。
44.B　根据后文“…a manager in the Department of Agriculture.”以及“…he made a(n)…suggestion—to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick.”可知,她联系了农业部的一位经理寻求帮助。故选B项。encourage鼓励;contact联系; comfort安慰;teach教。
45.A　根据后文“…what she had already done…”可知,祖母列举出(说出,提到)已经做过的事情。故选A项。list列出,列举出;forget忘记; draw画;imagine想象。
46.A　根据后文to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick可知,用扫帚击打树的底部是一个意想不到的建议。故选A项。unexpected意想不到的;traditional传统的; generous慷慨的;common普通的。
47.B　根据后文“…about what the neighbours might think…”以及上文to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick可知,祖母担心邻居们会如何看待她打树的行为。故选B项。puzzled困惑的;concerned担心的,关心的;excited兴奋的;disappointed失望的。
48.C　根据上文to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick可知,用扫帚击打树的底部是一种不寻常的做法。故选C项。unimportant不重要的; unfair不公平的; unusual不寻常的;incorrect不正确的。
49.D　根据上文“She doubted whether fruit would be the result of such an…approach.”以及后文“…the next spring the tree bore plentiful fruit.”可知,祖母一开始对用扫帚击打树的底部让树结出果实这一方法表示怀疑,但结果是树结满了果实,这让祖母很惊讶。故选D项。fright恐怖;disappointment失望;shame羞愧; amazement惊讶。
50.A　根据上文“…the next spring the tree bore plentiful fruit.”可知,这棵树上结满了果实,所以孙辈们开心地享受着这棵树的果实。故选A项。product产物;beauty美丽;warmth温暖;protection保护。
51.B　根据上文“…about what the neighbours might think of a woman in her seventies beating a tree…”以及“She doubted whether fruit would be the result of such an…approach.”可知,用扫帚击打树的底部这种行为是一种不同寻常的做法,并且祖母在这样做的时候还很担心邻居们的想法,此处指祖母当时用扫帚击打树的底部这种行为看上去有多荒唐。故选B项。gentle温柔的;silly荒唐的,愚蠢的; careless粗心的;patient有耐心的。
52.D　根据上文to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick可知,这里是指祖母用扫帚击打树的底部时看上去很荒唐。故选D项。touch触摸;watch观看; water浇水;hit击,打。
53.C　根据上文“We often laughed together…”可知,这个故事给全家人带来了很多欢乐。故选C项。sadness悲伤;challenge挑战;joy欢乐;pain痛苦。
54.A　根据后文an especially difficult time以及“…I called Grandma for advice.”可知,这里是指作者正在经历一段特别艰难的时期。故选A项。go through经历;go over复习; go after追求;go against反对,违反。
55.C　根据上文“…to hit the base of the tree with a broomstick.”、“…the next spring the tree bore plentiful fruit.”以及“…my roots were being stimulated(刺激) by the personal trials(考验) I faced…”可知,祖母提醒作者,他所面临的个人考验就像当初那棵树的底部遭受的击打一样,会刺激他的根基,让他成长为一棵更加多产的“树”,即让作者变得更加优秀、更有成就。故选C项。important重要的;interesting有趣的;fruitful丰产的,成果丰硕的,富有成效的;expensive昂贵的。
第二节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了北京北海公园的历史概况,强调了它作为皇家园林的意义。
56.connects　考查时态和主谓一致。空格处是谓语动词,句子描述客观情况用一般现在时;主语是it,谓语动词用三单形式。故填connects。
57.longest　考查形容词最高级。根据among the Chinese imperial parks和空格前的定冠词the可知,空格处应该用形容词最高级longest作定语。故填longest。
58.development　考查名词。根据空格前的介词of和限定词Beijing’s可知,空格处应该用名词development作宾语。故填development。
59.building　考查非谓语动词。动词enjoyed后面应该用动名词作宾语。故填building。
60.the　考查冠词。根据下文的of a monumental project可知,此处表示特指,所以用定冠词the。故填the。
61.existing　考查形容词。根据空格后的名词buildings可知,空格处应该用形容词existing作定语,修饰后面的名词。故填existing。
62.came　考查时态。空格处是谓语动词,句子描述过去发生的事,应该用一般过去时。故填came。
63.was supposed　考查时态和主谓一致。be supposed to do sth“应该做某事”是固定搭配,句子描述过去发生的事,应该用一般过去时;定语从句的谓语动词与先行词money保持数的一致,用单数形式。故填was supposed。
64.which　考查定语从句。空格处引导非限制性定语从句,对先行词railway进行补充说明,从句中缺少主语,所以应该用关系代词which代替先行词在从句中作主语。故填which。
65.as　考查介词。be regarded as“被视为,被认为是”是固定搭配。故填as。
第四部分　
第一节
One possible version:
Dear Tom,
I hope this letter finds you well. Delighted to learn that you are interested in our school’s recent Chinese tea culture exhibition, I’m writing to introduce this wonderful event to you.
The event was aimed at spreading traditional Chinese culture, and attractive tea varieties were displayed, ranging from jasmine tea to green tea. Spectacular tea ceremonies were demonstrated, transporting everyone to a world of elegance and peace. The exhibition was a huge hit! Many teachers and students were attracted and walked away with a deeper understanding and appreciation of Chinese tea culture.
Hope you can come here to enjoy the magic of Chinese tea someday!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
【思路点拨】 本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了Josh因为沉迷于玩电子游戏而忽视了与母亲Andrea的相处时光,拒绝了母亲想和他一起做他最爱吃的焦糖布丁的请求。一周后,Josh的游戏团队在比赛中失利,他感到沮丧。随后,他得知母亲因过度劳累而在工作中晕倒住院,这让他意识到自己对母亲的忽视,并回忆起母亲曾在他情绪低落时用焦糖布丁安慰他的往事。
【详解】
1.段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“回到现在,Josh决定让他妈妈高兴起来。”可知,第一段可描写Josh为母亲制作焦糖布丁的过程和他的内心感悟。
②由第二段首句内容“Josh去医院接他妈妈了。”可知,第二段可描写Josh去医院接母亲回家的过程以及他与母亲相见时的情景。
2.续写线索:进厨房—做焦糖布丁—完成—找到妈妈—妈妈看到焦糖布丁高兴—感悟。
One possible version:
Back in the present, Josh decided to cheer up his mum. He went to the kitchen to make leche flan for her. He remembered watching his mum make it when he was a child. It was magic, which he would recreate for her right now. While cooking, he couldn’t help but remember all the times his mum had gone the extra mile to make him happy. Josh realized that it was time to give back. Strangely, this time, he totally forgot about playing games! When he finished, he packed it carefully, and left home.
Josh went to the hospital to pick up his mum. He called her on the cellphone to ask where she was. The hospital passage seemed really long, but he finally reached his mum’s room. When he opened the door, he found his mum sitting in bed. Her eyes lit up when she saw Josh with the sweet dessert. At that moment, Josh realized that spending time with his mum and making her happy was far more important than playing games with his friends.

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