资源简介

单元素养测评卷(一)
1—5　　BACCC　 6—10　 CCAAA　 11—15　ACBCC　　16—20　AAACA
21—25　ABCBA 26—30　CACBD 31—35　BCABD 36—40　EGDBF
41—45　BCDCD 46—50　ABDCA 51—55　BACAD
第一部分
录音稿
Text 1
W: Oh my goodness! I cannot find the key. It’s not in my pocket.
M: What I remember you put it in your backpack.
W: Ah, there it is. Thank you.
Text 2
W: I’ve never had candy like this before. It isn’t very sweet. What’s it made from
M: A fruit that’s quite sour. It is also salty, isn’t it I love these two tastes existing together.
Text 3
W: Mike and I are getting together for dinner. Do you want to come with us
M: Yeah, that would be nice. I have a meeting in about ten minutes. I can meet you afterward if that’s OK.
W: That’s fine. Who are you meeting with
M: The Boston Insurance Company.
Text 4
W: John, pick up the package downstairs, OK I must go to work now.
M: Oh, mum, you know I have to do my homework now. Why not ask Lisa
W: You are always looking for excuses. Lisa is going out for her piano class.
Text 5
M: I just heard on the radio that a storm is coming.
W: Well, our boat is going about 25 miles per hour. Normally, we go about 20.
M: Maybe we should head back. I don’t want to get caught in the storm.
W: Good idea. I can go five miles per hour faster at most.
Text 6
M: Only five more push-ups, OK
W: You said five more last time!
M: Come on, I’m pushing you to be your best.
W: OK. I’ll do five more.
M: Four, three, two, one…Well done. Now, three more.
W: Oh, I’m going to die!
M: No, you won’t. Just a little more…
W: Last two more, OK
M: Deal. Two, one. Great! Now, you can have one minute to rest. Then, we’re going to lift weights.
W: I’m so tired from the push-ups.
M: Listen, if you want to get stronger, you have to challenge yourself. Just think of all the weight you will lose, too.
W: All right, I’ll keep going.
Text 7
W: Ron just told me that you will be taking the 2 o’clock flight to attend the trade exhibition in New York. I’m going to visit a customer there today and we will be on the same flight. Would you like to share a taxi to the airport
M: That sounds great, but I can’t. I have to take this report to Mr Smith at our home office before his 10 o’clock meeting, so I was thinking about going to the airport straight from there. If you’d like, I could meet you at the airport.
W: In that case, how about meeting at 12 to have lunch together before our flight
M: That sounds like a plan. I’ll see you in the coffee shop on the second floor at noon, OK
W: OK. See you then.
Text 8
M: Hello, everyone. We are lucky to have Molly Taylor here today. Molly is organizing an activity course for the summer holidays. Molly, this is the second year of the course, isn’t it
W: Yes. The summer course operated for the first time last year for a six-week period. We did think about making it longer this year and having a seven-week course, as two schools have eight-week holidays. But in the end we decided to keep to the same plan as last year.
M: But, as I understand, last year’s course wasn’t a complete success, was it
W: Well, we were actually very surprised by the number of people interested in the course. We didn’t actually have enough assistants to look after all the children.
M: So, what activities can the children look forward to this year
W: Well, once again there’ll be artists and musicians who will lead creative classes. We also considered providing some more exciting adventure sports. But we decided not to, in the end. Instead we’re introducing some fun programmes. I think it’ll be good fun for the children.
Text 9
W:Henry, I heard you saved your little brother’s life last night. Could you tell me what exactly happened
M:Yes, Mrs Brown. I was in my bedroom playing the guitar with my friend Jason and my three-year-old brother Mike when my brother put a piece of a toy in his mouth.
W: When did you notice it
M:I didn’t notice it until I found he was fighting for breath.
W:What did you do
M:I immediately asked Jason to find my father, who was somewhere near the house. But then I noticed Mike was turning purple.
W:You must have been very worried.
M:Certainly. But I knew what I should do. Luckily, I’d learned how to perform first-aid skills. Finally, I helped Mike cough up that little thing.
W:You’re really great! Without you, your brother might have been in great danger.
M:Yes. When my father finally came, Mike was crying but he was totally fine.
W:Good. Can you share your story a bit later in class today
M:Certainly, Mrs Brown.
Text 10
M: The summer vacation in New Delhi begins on May 1st every year. Much before it began we started planning how to spend it. I suggested that we should go to Shillong. But my sister insisted that we see Darjeeling. My father decided that we would go to both places with one month’s stay at each place. So, it was decided that we would be going first to Shillong and then to Darjeeling. We left the New Delhi Railway Station four days after the vacation began. It was a very long and tiring journey. The train reached Guwahati in the evening. The next day, early in the morning we drove to Shillong. We stayed there for nearly a month in the hotel. The climate was no doubt cool and pleasant, but there were very few places of interest. We left Shillong on June 4th. On our way to Darjeeling, we travelled by train. We saw thick forests and beautiful tea gardens. We reached Darjeeling at about noon. We took a taxi and went to a hotel where reservations had been earlier arranged by my father. One day we went to the Tiger Hills by taxi at 4 am to enjoy the famous sunrise. It was a wonderful sight which we had never seen before. And that was the last day of our vacation.
第二部分
第一节
A
【文章大意】 本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了世界上一些独特且有趣的节日。
21.A　细节理解题。根据Mighty Mud (泥; 泥浆) Mania: Scottsdale, Arizona, USA部分中“Children’s dreams really do come true in the city of Scottsdale. Children, aged 1 to 13, get to join in the mud race. Mighty Mudway features water and mud games.”可知,Mighty Mud Mania最适合10岁的杰克和他的弟弟。故选A项。
22.B　细节理解题。根据Songkran Festival, Thailand部分中“What better way to celebrate the ‘start of the return of rains’ than with a country-wide water fight ”和“Water battles are fought out for days in the streets of every town and city over the country.”可知,泰国通过一场全国性的水仗来庆祝传统的宋干节。故选B项。
23.C　细节理解题。根据文中对4个节日的介绍可知,它们并不只适合成年人,1至13岁的儿童可以参加Mighty Mud Mania节;这些节日并非都在同一个季节举行,因为泰国的宋干节在4月,西班牙的番茄节在8月;它们也并不都发生在同一个国家,因为它们分别在美国、泰国、西班牙和澳大利亚庆祝,故A、B、D是错误选项。根据第一段中“We have selected a few of the more unusual, colourful festivals from around the world.”和下文的介绍可知,这4个节日都具有趣味性,充满了快乐的气氛。故选C项。
B
【文章大意】 本文是一篇新闻报道。文章报道了上海豫园灯会首次走出中国,在巴黎展出。它展示了60个大型灯组和2000多盏灯笼,彰显了中国传统文化的魅力,同时庆祝中法建交60周年。
24.B　细节理解题。根据第二段中“This year, the beloved Yuyuan Garden lantern show took place outside of China for the very first time…”可知,豫园灯会今年的特别之处是它首次在国外举办。故选B项。
25.A　细节理解题。根据第五段中“Visitors could also admire traditional Chinese costumes and accessories, and enjoy traditional Chinese cuisine.”可知,参观者在灯会上可以品尝中国美食。故选A项。
26.C　细节理解题。根据最后一段“More than just a lantern show, it also served as an opening activity to celebrate the 60th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic (外交的) relations between China and France in 1964, which is also the China-France Year of Culture and Tourism.”可知,这次灯会的目的之一是庆祝中法友谊。故选C项。
27.A　主旨大意题。通读全文,并结合第二段“This year, the beloved Yuyuan Garden lantern show took place outside of China for the very first time, with 60 large-sized bright structures and more than 2,000 lanterns lighting the Jardin d’Acclimatation—the oldest amusement park in Paris, as a way to celebrate the 2024 Year of the Dragon with an interesting combination of Eastern and Western culture.”可推知,“Yuyuan Lantern Festival shines in Paris”(豫园灯会在巴黎闪耀)是文章的最佳标题。故选A项。
C
【文章大意】 这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了AI技术的飞速发展正威胁着曾被视为稳定的白领工作。尽管AI有望提升企业效益,其对就业市场的冲击引发关注。文章强调需平衡技术进步与人力资源保护,确保工人在AI融合工作中拥有话语权。
28.C　细节理解题。由文章第一段中“Yet the light-speed use of AI tools may now mean knowledge-work jobs that were long considered ‘safe’ could be endangered even faster than workers expected.”可知,他们可能面临被人工智能取代的风险。故选C。
29.B　推理判断题。由文章第二段中“Our goal is to have Artisans working alongside humans directly and have cohesion (凝聚力), and we want the boring work to be moved onto the Artisan, which doesn’t have feelings about whether something is boring or difficult.”可知,他的目标是让Artisans直接与人类一起工作并形成凝聚力。由此可知,Artisans被期待成为人类团队的成员。故选B。
30.D　词义猜测题。由文章第三段中“…particularly in terms of job losses.”可知,文章提到了工作岗位的流失。因此,这里的toll指的是伴随经济增长而来的负面影响或代价,即这种增长会给人类造成多大的苦难。 interest利息;contribution贡献;action行动;suffering痛苦,遭受,苦难。故选D。
31.B　推理判断题。由文章最后一段“Whether the workers are reduced by AI technologies will be a choice. Workers will need to have the right to decide how AI is introduced and used in some industries. One example of this is the agreement between the Screen Actors Guild and Hollywood studios that sets limits on the use of AI in film and television production. The question is whether other industries will follow the example to protect their workers’ living.”可知,最后一段强调了工人在某些行业引入和使用AI时应有发言权的重要性,并以影视业中影视演员协会和好莱坞制片厂之间的协议为例。这表明作者认同的观点是B选项“Workers should have a say when AI is used in some industries.”(在某些行业中使用AI时,工人应该有发言权)。故选B。
D
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一种名为“亲生物主义”的环保建筑设计,并介绍了这种设计的好处。
32.C　推理判断题。根据第一段内容“On average, 41% of global energy consumption (消耗) can be due to buildings and structures, notes the Energy & Environmental Building Alliance (EEBA). With EEBA also highlighting the fact that buildings produce dangerous emissions that pollute the air and that the construction industry produces more than 170 tons of debris (残骸) annually, there’s no question that the way that buildings are created needs to change.”可知,EEBA指出,全球平均41%的能源消耗可能来自楼房和建筑物,建筑物产生的危险排放物会污染空气,且建筑业每年产生170多吨残骸,因此,建筑物的建造方式需要改变,应该更加环保,由此可知,第一段中提到41%和170多吨这样的数字是为了解释对环保建筑设计的需求。故选C项。
33.A　细节理解题。根据第二段及第三段关键句“When we look for ways to meet eco-friendly design, biophilia—defined as ‘a love of life or living things’, has been used in architectural design to combine nature with the environment.”可知,“亲生物主义”是一种建筑设计,结合了大自然与环境,由此可知,“亲生物主义”是一种将环保放在第一位的建筑设计。故选A项。
34.B　细节理解题。根据第三段关键句“For example, indoor plants may work to lower stress and reduce anxiety, and may even provide a motivational boost.”可知,“亲生物主义”建筑中的室内植物可以减轻压力和焦虑,由此可知,“亲生物主义”能够缓解居民的情绪,对居民的身体有好处。故选B项。
35.D　主旨大意题。通读全文,并结合第三段关键句“When we look for ways to meet eco-friendly design, biophilia—defined as ‘a love of life or living things’, has been used in architectural design to combine nature with the environment.”可知,本文介绍了一种名为“亲生物主义”的环保建筑设计,并介绍了这种设计的好处,D项(一种环保设计)能够概括文章主要内容。故选D项。
第二节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文,主要提供了四条探寻自我的具体措施:识别个人价值,走出舒适圈,了解使你开心的事情和问自己想成为什么样的人。
36.E　根据空前内容“We often hear of people who make long journeys to different parts of the world.”以及空后内容“Having an insight into your true self helps you feel more confident and at peace with yourself.”可知, 空前提到长途旅行,空后提到对自己的洞察,中间缺少过渡句, E项“However, the biggest journey one can make is within oneself.”(然而一个人能进行的最大的旅途是在自己的内心。)可以连接上下文, 起承上启下的作用。故选E。
37.G　根据本段小标题“Identify what you value about yourself.”及本段首句“Know what you most like about yourself, something you are proud of.”可知, 本段主要讲述通过找到自己的长处来发现自我价值。G项“This will give you an insight into the personal values or abilities you hold dear.”(这会让你深入了解你所拥有的个人价值或能力。)中this指代上文“Know what you most like about yourself, something you are proud of.”故选G。
38.D　根据本段小标题“Get out of your comfort zone.”可知, 本段主要讲述通过走出舒适圈的方式来发现自我价值。根据空后内容“However, in order to discover yourself, you will need to put yourself in some uncomfortable situations.”可知, 此处和空后内容是转折关系, D项“It is always more comfortable to be on familiar ground.”(在熟悉的地方总是比较舒服。)符合语境。故选 D。
39.B　根据本段内容“What makes your eyes light up This will tell you where you obtain your true joy. It could be when you are performing a dance on stage, when you help your dad fix that bug in his computer, or even when you are doing research on your school science project.”可知, 本段主要讲述的是什么事情可以让你获得真正的快乐。B项能够概括整段内容。故选 B。
40.F　根据本段小标题“Ask yourself who you want to be.”可知, 本段主要内容为通过自我发问的方式探寻自我。根据空前内容“…ask yourself these questions to gain an understanding of your true self.”可知, F项“Such questioning will enable you to reflect, and increase self-awareness.”(这样的提问会让你反思, 并提高自我认识。)承接上句且与本段大意相符。故选F。
第三部分
第一节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇记叙文。本文中作者讲述了自己从波多黎各来到美国后找不到工作成了无家可归的流浪汉,后来在一些慈善机构的帮助下作者完成了学业,并且决定去帮助他人,把爱心传递下去。
41.B　根据前文“…I arrived alone in Central Florida from Puerto Rico.”可知,作者独自一人从波多黎各来到佛罗里达中部,当有工作机会时,作者应是努力去争取。故选B。depend on依靠;go for争取得到;run after追赶;react to对……有反应。
42.C　根据后文“…I became homeless and spent a year and a half living on the streets of Orlando.”可知,作者无家可归,找到工作的愿望没有成为现实。故选C。 dream梦;threat威胁;reality现实;puzzle疑问。
43.D　根据后文“…I became homeless and spent a year and a half living on the streets of Orlando.”可知,作者有限的资金用完了,无家可归,所以只能住在街道上。故选D。 patience耐心;energy能量;resource资源;funds资金。
44.C　根据后文in a middle class family可知,作者来自中产阶级家庭,应是过着舒适的生活。故选C。busy忙碌的; painful痛苦的;comfortable舒适的;stressful压力大的。
45.D　根据后文“…when they don’t get enough to eat.”可知,吃不饱饭时,应是绝望的。故选D。disappointment失望;anger愤怒;loneliness孤独;despair绝望。
46.A　根据后文“…to make it to a local feeding programme before they…at 7 pm.”可知,作者需要在晚上7点之前赶到救济站,因此他需要快速到达,跑步是最合适的方式。故选A。 run跑;measure测量;keep保持;walk步行。
47.B　根据前文“I clearly remembered…a distance on many occasions just to make it to a local feeding programme…”可知,作者跑着去是为了在关门前赶到那里。故选B。open打开;close关门;refuse拒绝;retire退休。
48.D　根据后文可知,在一些慈善机构的帮助下,作者度过了这段痛苦的经历,应是幸运的。故选D。frankly坦率地;occasionally偶尔;gradually逐渐地;fortunately幸运地。
49.C　根据后文“With the…of these programmes, I was accepted by a college scholarship programme…”可知,这些项目帮助作者度过了这段痛苦的经历。故选C。relate联系;identify识别;survive艰难度过;battle斗争。
50.A　根据前文“…local programmes like the Coalition for the Homeless, Second Harvest Food Bank and the Wayne Densch Centre helped me…my painful experience.”可知,在这些项目的帮助下,作者加入了一个大学奖学金项目。故选A。assistance帮助;recognition识别;benefit利益;operation行动。
51.B　根据前文“…I was accepted by a college scholarship programme through the Coalition…”可知,作者获准加入了一个大学奖学金项目,此处指获得了瓦伦西亚大学的两个学位。故选B。reject拒绝;receive收到;find发现;lose丢失。
52.A　根据后文“…the fact that help meant everything to people in need…”可知,作者的亲身经历让他意识到帮助对于需要帮助的人来说至关重要,他的经历唤醒了他对于这个问题的认识。故选A。awake唤醒;apply申请,应用;offer提供;send发送。
53.C　根据后文“I am so proud to be able to…food resources to those in need and help hundreds more like me.”可知,作者致力于帮助他人。故选C。be impressed by留下深刻印象;be concerned about关心;be devoted to致力于;be attracted to被……吸引。
54.A　根据后文“I am so proud to be able to…food resources to those in need and help hundreds more like me.”可知,作者向需要帮助的人提供食物资源,所以此处应指供餐项目。故选A。feeding喂食;school学校;camp营地;vacation假期。
55.D　根据前文可知,作者负责监督夏季供餐项目,为那些需要帮助的人提供食物资源。故选D。donate捐赠;show显示;award授予;deliver递送。
第二节
【文章大意】 本文是一篇说明文。清明节是中国的传统节日,清明又是二十四节气之一。清明假期,人们外出赏春,祭祖扫墓,吃青团,这一节日兼具悲喜的情感。
56.has been celebrated　考查动词时态、语态和主谓一致。“for+一段时间”与现在完成时连用,从句主语为that,指代a Chinese holiday,与celebrate构成被动关系。主语为单数,助动词用has。故填 has been celebrated。
57.or　考查固定搭配。固定搭配either…or…意为“……或……”。故填 or。
58.who/that　考查定语从句。空处引导定语从句,family members是先行词,关系词在从句中作主语,指人,应使用who或that引导定语从句。故填who/that。
59.amazing　考查形容词。修饰名词spring,应使用形容词amazing作定语,意为“令人惊叹的”。故填 amazing。
60.chatting　考查现在分词。chat和they为主动关系,且与laughing并列,应使用现在分词作状语。故填 chatting。
61.to memorize　考查动词不定式。此处应使用动词不定式短语作后置定语,修饰a day,表示“……的日子”。故填 to memorize。
62.themselves　考查反身代词。enjoy oneself是固定短语,意为“玩得开心”,they的反身代词为themselves。故填 themselves。
63.made　考查过去分词。make和a kind of green coloured balls之间为被动关系,应使用过去分词作后置定语。故填 made。
64.the　考查冠词。juice后面有of brome grass修饰,指雀麦草的汁水,为特指意义。故填 the。
65.happiness　考查名词。空处作介词 of 的宾语,应用名词happiness。故填 happiness。
第四部分
第一节
One possible version:
Let’s celebrate!
Dragon Boat Festival, also called the Duanwu Festival, is celebrated on the fifth day of the fifth month according to the Chinese lunar calendar.
For thousands of years, the festival has been marked by eating rice dumplings and racing dragon boats. The rice dumpling is made of rice, meat and so on. Besides, the festival is best known for its dragon-boat races, especially in the southern places where there are many rivers and lakes. Dragon Boat Festival is celebrated in memory of the death of the famous ancient poet Qu Yuan, who was a devoted government official and poet.
Overall, the Dragon Boat Festival enjoys great popularity among people in China.
第二节
【思路点拨】 本文以人物和时间为线索展开,讲述了作者因身材瘦小而一直没有机会在赛道上为自己的团队争得荣誉,心生自卑。但是在一次环湖2英里的比赛中,辅导员Barry选他当第四个参赛运动员,并指点他只要跟着他的朋友——跑得最快的Bill就行了。作者照做了,尽管在比赛过程中心里忐忑不安,疲惫不堪,但他们最终获得了团体冠军,这使他对自己充满了信心。
【详解】
1.段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“Bill立刻爬了起来,又开始跑。”可知,第一段可描写作者跟在Bill后面的状况,Barry的话鼓舞了作者,在最后200米处他全力冲向终点线。
②由第二段首句内容“我不知道我什么时候越过了终点线。”可知,第二段可描写Fred的努力使团队赢得冠军,看着欢呼的老师和同学时Fred的心理变化。
2.续写线索:Bill爬起来后—作者筋疲力尽—最后200米冲刺—越过终点线后—得知比赛结果后
One possible version:
In a moment, Bill was up again and running. I couldn’t think of anything but to follow him closely. I could even feel the air hitting my face and I was totally worn out. Naturally, my pace slowed down. Just at the moment, Barry’s words “Just follow Bill” called me back. Convinced that I was no longer a loser, I was refreshed again and accelerated and soon I was quite close to Bill again. The gun cracked again, announcing the last 200 metres. I closed my eyes, threw my head back and ran with my last ounce of strength, in the direction of the dream line.
I didn’t know when I crossed the finish line. I still kept running on when the thunderous applause burst, which signaled the birth of the champion. I stopped and opened my eyes and saw my camp of kids and the camp counsellor gathering around me. “We have won the race! We are the champion!” they shouted and cheered, throwing me in the air. To me, the race meant more than a champion; it well proved that I was not a loser as an athlete and that I could further explore my potential. Just as Hemingway put it, “The true nobility is being superior to your former self.”单元素养测评卷(一)
Unit 1
(时间:120分钟　分值:150分)
　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　
第一部分　听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
(　)1.Where is the woman’s key
A.At her home.　　　　　　　B.In her backpack.
C.In her pocket.
(　)2.What does the candy taste like
A.Sour and salty. B.Sweet and sour.
C.Sweet and salty.
(　)3.What will the man do next
A.Have a get-together. B.Visit a company.
C.Attend a meeting.
(　)4.What does the woman ask John to do
A.Do his homework. B.Take the piano class.
C.Pick up the package.
(　)5.What’s the top speed of the boat
A.About 20 miles per hour. B.About 25 miles per hour.
C.About 30 miles per hour.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
(　)6.What does the man keep doing
A.Lifting weights.
B.Telling the woman to take a break.
C.Adding more exercise to the woman.
(　)7.What does the woman probably think about the exercise
A.It’s useless. B.It’s too exciting.
C.It’s very difficult.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
(　)8.What time does the flight leave
A.At 2:00 pm. 　　　　　B.At 12:00 noon.
C.At 10:00 am.
(　)9.What is the woman going to do today
A.Visit a customer. B.Write a report.
C.Talk with Mr Smith.
听第8段材料,回答第10至13题。
(　)10.What is the man doing
A.Having an interview. B.Applying for a course.
C.Organizing a summer trip.
(　)11.How long will the course run this year
A.6 weeks.　　　　 B.7 weeks.　　　　 C.8 weeks.
(　)12.What surprised the woman last year
A.The extremely hot weather.
B.The inexperienced assistants.
C.The number of children attending the course.
(　)13.What new activities will be added this year
A.Adventure sports. B.Fun programmes.
C.Creative classes.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
(　)14.What was Henry doing when the accident happened
A.Playing toys. B.Calling his friend.
C.Playing the guitar.
(　)15.How did Henry notice something wrong with Mike
A.Mike suddenly cried. B.Mike was turning purple.
C.Mike started to fight for breath.
(　)16.What did Henry do to save Mike
A.Perform first-aid skills. B.Go to find his father.
C.Take him to hospital.
(　)17.What’s the most probable relationship between the speakers
A.Teacher and student. B.Doctor and patient.
C.Classmates.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
(　)18.How did the speaker’s family go to Shillong from Guwahati
A.By car.　　 　　 B.By taxi.　　　　 C.By train.
(　)19.What do we know about Shillong
A.The climate wasn’t good.
B.The transport wasn’t convenient.
C.There weren’t many tourist attractions.
(　)20.What did the speaker’s family do at the end of their vacation
A.They admired the sunrise.
B.They visited tea gardens.
C.They explored thick forests.
　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　
第二部分　阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A [2024·山东临沂高一期中]
There are festivals going on somewhere in the world every day of the year. These range from very large events to local celebrations in tiny villages. We have selected a few of the more unusual, colourful festivals from around the world.
Mighty Mud (泥; 泥浆) Mania: Scottsdale, Arizona, USA
Children’s dreams really do come true in the city of Scottsdale. Children, aged 1 to 13, get to join in the mud race. Mighty Mudway features water and mud games. There are also water slides, sandcastle buildings and fun for all ages. Mums and dads, remember to send your kids out with old clothes and shoes.
Songkran Festival, Thailand
What better way to celebrate the “start of the return of rains” than with a country-wide water fight Thais celebrate their festival officially from April 13th until April 15th. These three days represent the last day of the old year, the day of transition, and the first day of the New Year. Water battles are fought out for days in the streets of every town and city over the country.
The La Tomatina Festival, Spain
On the last Wednesday of every August thousands of Spaniards take part in the La Tomatina Festival in Bunol. Truckloads of tomatoes are pulled in each year and dumped in the city centre. The people throw tomatoes at each other for the whole day, but the only rule is that the tomato must be flattened in the hand first, before being thrown. Even elderly grandmothers have been known to take part.
Canberra Sled Dog Classic: Canberra, Australian Capital Territory, Australia
Dog sledding is one of the fastest growing sports on the east coast of Australia. As there’s no snow (the trail is earth and sand and is smooth and wide with a few hills and turns), the sleds have wheels instead of runners, but the excitement is the same.
(　)21.Which festival is most suitable for 10-year-old Jack and his younger brother
A.Mighty Mud Mania.
B.Songkran Festival.
C.The La Tomatina Festival.
D.Canberra Sled Dog Classic.
(　)22.How is the Songkran Festival in Thailand traditionally celebrated
A.With a dog sledding race.
B.Through a country-wide water fight.
C.By having a nationwide tomato fight.
D.By building sandcastles in a muddy environment.
(　)23.What do the festivals above have in common
A.They are all for adults.
B.They happen in the same season.
C.They all have joyful atmosphere.
D.They all happen in the same country.
B
The annual Yuyuan Garden lantern show in Shanghai is an important event in the city’s Chinese Lunar New Year celebrations for 28 years. It is one of the country’s oldest lantern fairs, where locals go to experience the festive atmosphere and wish each other well during the Spring Festival.
This year, the beloved Yuyuan Garden lantern show took place outside of China for the very first time, with 60 large-sized bright structures and more than 2,000 lanterns lighting the Jardin d’Acclimatation—the oldest amusement park in Paris, as a way to celebrate the 2024 Year of the Dragon with an interesting combination of Eastern and Western culture.
From dragon-shaped lanterns to motifs (图形) inspired by the legendary world of Shanhai Jing (a book dating back to 2,000 years ago, regarded as a major source of Chinese mythology), the Yuyuan Garden lantern show in Paris built a world of lights and imagination for visitors, showing the charm of traditional Chinese culture.
Highlighting various cultural and spiritual symbols, the lantern displays include mythical creatures such as Kunpeng and Yinglong that represent ambition and strength.
Beyond the lanterns, the celebration in Paris also consisted of market events. Visitors could also admire traditional Chinese costumes and accessories, and enjoy traditional Chinese cuisine.
With a mixture of dancing, acrobatics (杂技) and martial arts performances, the lantern show was an impressive experience in the world of Chinese folklore and lanterns, which was open until February 25, 2024.
More than just a lantern show, it also served as an opening activity to celebrate the 60th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic (外交的) relations between China and France in 1964, which is also the China-France Year of Culture and Tourism.
(　)24.What was special about the Yuyuan Garden lantern show this year
A.It attracted more local visitors.
B.It was held in a foreign country.
C.It showed the long history of lanterns.
D.It had more larger lanterns than before.
(　)25.What could visitors do at the show
A.Taste Chinese food.
B.Buy Chinese costumes.
C.Dance with the performers.
D.Learn to make lanterns.
(　)26.What was a purpose of the show
A.To provide more opportunities for the performers.
B.To attract more visitors and improve the tourism.
C.To celebrate the friendship between China and France.
D.To show its long history and worldwide popularity.
(　)27.What’s the best title of this passage
A.Yuyuan Lantern Festival shines in Paris
B.Chinese-French friendship gets strengthened
C.Yuyuan Lantern Festival attracts foreign visitors
D.New activities are added to Yuyuan Lantern Festival
C [2024·江苏扬州高一月考]
In early 2023, OpenAI’s ChatGPT brought a new age—one in which artificial intelligence (AI) went from a dream to an issue for workers. Many workers may have believed that burger-flipping (翻汉堡包的) robots in fast food restaurants would be the first to be replaced by AI tools. Yet the light-speed use of AI tools may now mean knowledge-work jobs that were long considered “safe” could be endangered even faster than workers expected.
Robots that act like AI coworkers are on the way—and in some cases, they’re already here. In early December 2023, Artisan AI—a startup founded by Jaspar Carmichael-Jack—showed its first “Artisan”, an AI-powered digital worker called “Ava” who will work as a saleswoman. “She can make suggestions, edit campaigns, join meetings and take notes,” Carmichael-Jack says. “Our goal is to have Artisans working alongside humans directly and have cohesion (凝聚力), and we want the boring work to be moved onto the Artisan, which doesn’t have feelings about whether something is boring or difficult.”
Although AI technology is already shaking the workforce, “we’re still at the beginning” when it comes to AI fully combined into the workplace, says Erik Brynjolfsson, a Stanford University professor. He says as AI plays a more important role in economical fields, it should increase output and money for businesses. The question, however, is what the human toll of that growth will be, particularly in terms of job losses.
Whether the workers are reduced by AI technologies will be a choice. Workers will need to have the right to decide how AI is introduced and used in some industries. One example of this is the agreement between the Screen Actors Guild and Hollywood studios that sets limits on the use of AI in film and television production. The question is whether other industries will follow the example to protect their workers’ living.
(　)28.What can be learned about knowledge workers
A.They have experienced greater creativity.
B.They have used the AI at the speed of light.
C.They may be at the risk of replacement by AI.
D.They may have a safer working environment.
(　)29.What does Jaspar Carmichael-Jack expect of Artisans
A.They will assist salesmen in their daily work.
B.They will become members of a human team.
C.They will assess the difficulty level of a task.
D.They will make boring work more interesting.
(　)30.Which of the following best explains “toll” underlined in Paragraph 3
A.Interest.　　　　　　B.Contribution.
C.Action. D.Suffering.
(　)31.What might the author agree with according to the last paragraph
A.AI should be forbidden in movies and television production.
B.Workers should have a say when AI is used in some industries.
C.Industries should work hard to protect their workers’ living.
D.AI-related agreements should be reached as soon as possible.
D
On average, 41% of global energy consumption (消耗) can be due to buildings and structures, notes the Energy & Environmental Building Alliance (EEBA). With EEBA also highlighting the fact that buildings produce dangerous emissions that pollute the air and that the construction industry produces more than 170 tons of debris (残骸) annually, there’s no question that the way that buildings are created needs to change.
By putting the environment first in architectural design, there are a variety of ways that the carbon footprint associated with buildings can be reduced, from the value in popular design trends like biophilia to how architects can work various eco-friendly materials into the job. The implementation of solar power is just one common design trend in eco-first buildings.
When we look for ways to meet eco-friendly design, biophilia—defined as “a love of life or living things”, has been used in architectural design to combine nature with the environment. In regard to the subject, ArchDaily notes, “The guiding principle is quite simple: connect people with nature to improve their well-being and quality of life.” With common elements of biophilic design in buildings including indoor trees and plants, skylights, and living walls occupants can enjoy the various benefits associated with the presence of nature indoors. For example, indoor plants may work to lower stress and reduce anxiety, and may even provide a motivational boost. The plants can also help absorb sound, provide privacy, and can even serve as a source of food (depending on the plants used, of course).
One green building design can be found in Milan, Italy, in which a residential development that consists of two towers can be found. Known as the “Bosco Verticale”, the towers stand 80 and 112 metres high, and their outer parts are covered in plants and trees. In addition to attracting wildlife, Boeri’s practice, Stefano Boeri Architetti, notes that the “green curtain” works to generate oxygen and absorb carbon dioxide.
(　)32.Why the numbers are mentioned in Paragraph 1
A.To show the climate change.
B.To prove the seriousness of air pollution.
C.To explain the demand for green building design.
D.To highlight the importance of new and green energy.
(　)33.What’s biophilia
A.An eco-first building design.
B.An eco-friendly building material.
C.A green power set in the building.
D.A popular environmental theory.
(　)34.How biophilia helps improve the well-being of residents
A.It will provide larger room for humans.
B.It will ease your mood and do good to your body.
C.It will give more reliable power storage to people.
D.It will completely change the living conditions into a carefree state.
(　)35.What is the best title for the text
A.Indoor plants full of benefits
B.Solar power applied in building
C.The most green building
D.An eco-friendly design
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
[2024·广东六校高一期中联考]
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How well do you know yourself
We often hear of people who make long journeys to different parts of the world.36.　　　　 Having an insight into your true self helps you feel more confident and at peace with yourself. How do you start your journey of self-discovery Here are four things you can do.
Identify what you value about yourself.
Know what you most like about yourself, something you are proud of. It could be about how creative you are, your ability to understand others or about your goalkeeping skills at football. 37.　　　　
Get out of your comfort zone.
38.　　　　 However, in order to discover yourself, you will need to put yourself in some uncomfortable situations. It could be about breaking the ice with a new classmate even though it gives you sweaty palms. This will give you an opportunity to learn more about how you feel, think and react when challenged.
39.　　　
What makes your eyes light up This will tell you where you obtain your true joy. It could be when you are performing a dance on stage, when you help your dad fix that bug in his computer, or even when you are doing research on your school science project.
Ask yourself who you want to be.
What is your true purpose in life Who or what do you want to be, really As you go about your daily activities, ask yourself these questions to gain an understanding of your true self. 40.　　　
The self-discovery journey is not a finite one. In fact, it is constantly evolving. As Ariana Huffington said, “The journey towards self-discovery is life’s greatest adventure.”
A.Know what your strength is.
B.Know what makes you excited.
C.It won’t be difficult for you to answer these questions.
D.It is always more comfortable to be on familiar ground.
E.However, the biggest journey one can make is within oneself.
F.Such questioning will enable you to reflect, and increase self-awareness.
G.This will give you an insight into the personal values or abilities you hold dear.
第三部分　语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
[2024·湖北华中师大一附中高一期中]
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
When I look back, I can’t help feeling grateful and blessed. Twelve years ago, I arrived alone in Central Florida from Puerto Rico. I had heard of a job opportunity and decided to 　41　 it. But it never became a 　42　.
Once my limited 　43　 ran out, I became homeless and spent a year and a half living on the streets of Orlando. For the first time, I, who had lived a 　44　 life in a middle class family, understood the 　45　 someone feels when they don’t get enough to eat. I clearly remembered 　46　 a distance on many occasions just to make it to a local feeding programme before they 　47　 at 7 pm.
　48　, local programmes like the Coalition for the Homeless, Second Harvest Food Bank and the Wayne Densch Centre helped me 　49　 my painful experience.
With the 　50　 of these programmes, I was accepted by a college scholarship programme through the Coalition and 　51　 two degrees from Valencia.
My experience 　52　 me to the fact that help meant everything to people in need and inspired me to be 　53　 helping others. Today, I am employed as Childhood Hunger Programmes Manager at Second Harvest Food Bank and oversee the summer 　54　 programmes. I am so proud to be able to 　55　 food resources to those in need and help hundreds more like me.
(　)41.A.depend on　　　　　　　B.go for
C.run after D.react to
(　)42.A.dream B.threat
C.reality D.puzzle
(　)43.A.patience B.energy
C.resources D.funds
(　)44.A.busy B.painful
C.comfortable D.stressful
(　)45.A.disappointment B.anger
C.loneliness D.despair
(　)46.A.running B.measuring
C.keeping D.walking
(　)47.A.opened B.closed
C.refused D.retired
(　)48.A.Frankly B.Occasionally
C.Gradually D.Fortunately
(　)49.A.relate B.identify
C.survive D.battle
(　)50.A.assistance B.recognition
C.benefit D.operation
(　)51.A.rejected B.received
C.found D.lost
(　)52.A.awoke B.applied
C.offered D.sent
(　)53.A.impressed by B.concerned about
C.devoted to D.attracted to
(　)54.A.feeding B.school
C.camp D.vacation
(　)55.A.donate B.show
C.award D.deliver
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
[2024·江西南昌一中高一期中]
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tomb-Sweeping Day is a Chinese holiday that 56.　　　　　　　　　 (celebrate) in China for centuries. It is one of the Chinese Twenty-four Solar Terms, which falls on either April 4th 57.　　　　　　 5th of the Gregorian calendar. It’s also a time for people to remember family members 58.　　　　　　 have passed away.
The day is also regarded as the start of spring. As trees turn green and the sun shines brightly, people will go outside and enjoy the 59.　　　　 (amaze) spring. They will take this opportunity to travel together and go on long walks in parks, laughing and 60.　　　　　　 (chat). Therefore, Tomb-Sweeping Day not only is a day 61.　　　　　　 (memorize) the dead, but it is also a time for people to enjoy 62.　　　　　　 (they). There are many different activities, such as taking a spring outing, or flying kites.
On Tomb-Sweeping Day, people often eat a kind of green coloured balls 63.　　　　　　 (make) from glutinous rice(糯米). The green colour is from 64.　　　　　　 juice of brome grass(雀麦草) that is added in the rice.
All in all, Tomb-Sweeping Day is a combination of sadness and 65.　　　　　　 (happy).
第四部分　写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
[2024·山西大同高一期中]
你校英文报Festivals & Celebrations栏目正在征稿。请你写一篇短文投稿,介绍一个你熟悉的节日,内容包括:
1.主要庆祝活动;
2.该节日的意义。
注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
Let’s celebrate!






第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Be a true runner
For me, it was normal to feel lost at the inter-camp track. Four camps of kids were ready to lead their teams to a blue ribbon and win the day. Not me. I was too little to be the leader and too skinny to be an athlete. I knew this by the time I was twelve, because my camp counsellors (辅导员) and the other kids reminded me of it every chance they got. So when our camp needed a fourth runner in the two-mile race around the lake, I knew I was no one’s first choice.
I hid in the shade of a maple tree as they called the names of the runners. My body tensed as I heard a counsellor call, “Fred! Where is Fred! He is in this race!” It was Barry. He spotted me under the tree. “Fred! We need a 12-year-old who hasn’t been in other events to run the two-mile!”
He gave me a push towards the starting line. Having no confidence and trying to save myself from the shame of taking the last place as four camps watched, I pleaded with him.
“But I don’t know the way around the lake!”
“You’re in. Just follow Bill!” Barry smiled.
Bill was my friend and the fastest runner in our camp. And then Barry said, “When you make it to the last stretch(直道) on the field, just throw your head back and run.”
At the starting line, I stood next to Bill and trembled.
“On your mark…Get set…” The gun cracked and sixteen of us took off. I stayed close on Bill’s heels, a little too close for Bill, I guess. He shouted at me, “Back off!”
I did. Two guys passed me, but I kept my eyes on Bill.
It was tiring. The distance was widening between Bill and me. We made the turn from the dusty road onto the muddy wooded trail that would go around the lake back to the field. Through the trees, I saw Bill trip over a tree root and fall. A runner from another camp passed him.
注意: 续写词数应为150个左右。
Paragraph 1:
In a moment, Bill was up again and running.



Paragraph 2:
I didn’t know when I crossed the finish line.

展开更多......

收起↑