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2024年秋期义务教育阶段教学质量监测
七年级上册英语答题卡
▄ ▄ ▄ 监考教师填涂,缺考标志
考号_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 条码区
姓名_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
班级_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
注 意 事 项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的考号、姓名、班级用碳素笔或钢笔填写清楚。 2.客观题使用2B铅笔填涂，答题区域用碳素笔或钢笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚，按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。 3.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破，客观题修改时用橡皮擦干净，答题区域修改禁用涂改液和不干胶条。 4.正确的填涂示例：正确▄
第Ⅰ卷 选择题 共110分
▄ ▄ 客 观 题
▄ 01 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 05 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 09 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 13 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 17 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 02 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 06 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 10 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 14 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 18 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 03 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 07 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 11 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 15 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 19 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 04 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 08 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 12 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 16 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 20 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
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▄ 21 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 23 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 25 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 27 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 29 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
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▄ ▄ 客 观 题
▄ 31 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 34 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 37 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 40 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 43 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 32 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 35 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 38 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 41 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 44 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 33 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 36 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 39 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 42 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 45 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
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▄ ▄ 客 观 题
▄ 46 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 49 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 52 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 55 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 58 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 47 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 50 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 53 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 56 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 59 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
▄ 48 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 51 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 54 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 57 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 60 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
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▄ ▄ 客 观 题
▄ 61 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 63 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 64 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ] 65 [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]
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七年级上册英语第 1 页 ●
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第一节 单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
第二节 选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
第三节 完成句子（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. ？
第四节 书面表达（满分15分） Hello,everyone.I’m Li Ping.
七年级上册英语第 2 页
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▄ 姓名: 学号: ▄
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▄ 姓名: 学号: ▄ ▄
● ●2024年秋期义务教育阶段教学质量监测
七年级上册英语听力材料
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面短对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出你所听到的答语。每段对话读两遍。
W: Hello. May I have your name
M: Hello, Ms Brown. My name is Peter.
2. W: Hi, Teng Fei! What do you have in your schoolbag
M: Hi, Emma! I have a red bottle, an orange cap and some white books.
3. M: Mum, where is my cap Is it on the desk
W: Oh, no. Jim. It is under the chair.
4. W: What’s in your pencil box, David
M: Three pencils and two erasers.
5. M: Can you see some baby chickens
W: Yes, I can. They are behind the tree.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7第小题。
W: Hi, Mike! Is the boy in the photo your brother
M: No. He is my cousin Dale.
W: How old is he
M: He is 17.
W: Is his birthday in June
M: No. His birthday is on July 12th.
W: Oh! That’s next month.
M: You’re right.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10小题。
W: Jack, I can’t find my schoolbag.
M: Oh, what is in your schoolbag, Mary
W: A pencil box.
M: Well, is this yellow schoolbag yours
W: No, it isn’t mine. It’s Alice’s.
M: Look! A schoolbag is in Classroom 6A. Is it yours
W: Yes. Thank you!
M: You’re welcome.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13小题。
M: Hello,Wendy! Do you like singing
W: Yes, music is my favorite subject.
M: Why do you like music
W: Because my music teacher Ms . Smith is nice and she can play the piano well . But there ' s only one music lesson in a week . So I go to the music club on Friday afternoon .
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16小题。
W: Who is your class teacher, Chen Jie
M:Ms Gao. She is tall and she has long brown hair.
W: Where can I find her
M:She is in her office now.
W:Where is that
M:It’s in the teachers’ building. It is behind the classroom building.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20小题。
My name is Helen. I am in No.1 Middle School. It’s a new school and it’s large.I am in Class 7D,Grade7. My class teacher is Ms Luo. She is smart. My classroom is clean and tidy. The desks and chairs in my classroom are blue. There is a reading corner in the classroom and it's my favorite place because I like reading. I also like biology so I’m in the science club.2024年秋期义务教育阶段教学质量监测
七年级上册·英语 参考答案
第一部分 听
1-5. BCCAB 6-10.CACCC 11-15.ABCBA 16-20.BBAAB
第二部分 读
第一节 单项选择
21-25.CBABB 26-30.BBAAA
第二节 完形填空
31-35.BCAAC 36-40.CCBAB 41-45.CACBA
第三节 阅读理解
46-50.CABBB 51-55.BACBA 56-60.BABCA
第四节 补全对话
61-65.BDAEC
第三部分 写
第一节 单词拼写
66. classmates 67. country 68. celebrate 69.balloon 70. teeth
第二节 选词填空
71.and 72.subjects 73.has 74.are 75.father’s 76.to do 77.delicious 78.afternoon 79.for 80.well
第三节 完成句子
81.Whose,is 82.Does,spend 83.part, everyday/daily 84.in,front
85. Meimei and Peter are in the same class./ Peter and Meimei are in the same class.
第四节 书面表达
参考答案：
Hello,everyone. I’m Li Ping. I am 13 years old. My birthday is on 3rd June. I am in Grade 7,Yucai Middle school. I am tall. I am quiet so I like reading books in the library on the weekend. There are 6 people in my family. We love and help each other. I like cooking so I really want to join the cooking club. I can teach students to cook much Yibin’s delicious food .As an old saying goes “Early to bed,early to rise”, so I usually get up at 7：00 and go to bed at 9:30. My favorite subjects are Chinese and biology because my Chinese teacher is kind and biology is useful and interesting.
All in all, this is me! Do you want to be my good friend
[评分细则]
1.评分原则:
(1)本题总分15分,按5个档次给分。
(2)评分要求:先读文章,再定档次,最后评分。
(3)内容要点:共7个要点,每个要点2分,共14分。整体语言表达丰富，有拓展，可加1分。
(4)其他:如书写较差,影响信息传递,将分数降低一个档次。词数少于60的,从总分中减去1分。
(5)评分时应关注内容表达、词汇和语法结构的使用是否准确以及上下文是否连贯。
2.各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(13~15分):能写明全部要点,语言基本无误或有少量拼写错误,行文流畅,表达清楚。
第四档(10~12分):能写明大部分要点,语言有一些错误(句子结构或动词形式错误1~2处),但行文基本流畅,表达基本清楚。
第三档(7~9分):能写明一些要点,语言错误较多(句子结构或动词形式错误3~4处),但意思基本连贯,表达基本清楚。
第二档(4~6分):能写明少数要点,语言错误很多,意思不连贯,影响意思表达。
第一档(0~3分):所写内容与题目无关;只能写出若干单词,无可读的句子。2024年秋期义务教育阶段教学质量监测
七年级上册·英语
（总分150分）
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的考号、姓名、班级填写在答题卡上。
2．答选择题时，务必使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。
3．答非选择题时，务必使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔，将答案写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4．所有题目必须在答题卡规定的位置上作答，在试卷上答题无效。
5．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面短对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出你所听到的答语。每段对话读两遍。
1. What is the boy’s name
A. Brown. B. Peter. C. Paul.
2. What colour is Teng Fei’s bottle
A. Orange. B. White. C. Red.
3. Where is Jim’s cap
A. In his schoolbag. B. On the desk. C. Under the chair.
4. How many erasers are there in David’s pencil box
A. Two. B. Three. C. Five.
5. Where are the baby chickens
A. Under the tree. B. Behind the tree. C. Behind the flowers.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6、7两个小题。
How old is Dale
He is 11. B．He is 12. C．He is 17.
7．When is Dale’s birthday
A. On July 12th. B. On August 12th. C. On July 22nd.
听第7段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8．What is in Mary’s schoolbag
A．A watch. B．A book. C．A pencil box.
9．What colour is Alice’s schoolbag
A．Green. B．Blue. C．Yellow.
10．Where is Mary’s schoolbag
A．In Classroom 4A． B．In Classroom 5A． C．In Classroom 6A．
听第8段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11. What is Wendy’s favorite subject
A．Music. B．Chinese. C．English.
12. What is Ms. Smith good at
A．Playing the violin. B．Playing the piano. C．Singing.
13. When does Wendy go to the music club
A．On Monday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Friday.
听第9段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14、What does Ms Gao look like
A . She is short. B . She has long hair. C . She has black hair.
15. Where is Ms Gao
A . In her office. B . In the classroom. C . In the gym.
16.What is behind the classroom building
A . The school hall. B . The teachers’ building. C . The school library.
听短文，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. What does Helen say about her school
A . It’s old. B . It’s large. C . It’s beautiful.
18. What is Ms Luo like
A . Smart. B . Quiet. C . Funny.
19.What is Helen' s hobby
A . Reading. B . Hiking. C . Playing chess.
20.What club is Helen in
A. Art club. B. Science club. C. Chess club.
第二部分 读（共四节，满分80分）
第一节 单项选择 (共10小题，每小题1分, 满分10分)。
从下列各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.Which underlined sound（下划线读音） is different from others
time B. rice C. ship
22.-Who’s your class teacher -John Smith. We can call him .
A. Mr. John. B. Mr. Smith. C. Mrs.Smith.
23.There a teachers’ building across from the school hall.
A. is B. are C. has
24. Biology is difficult important.
A. and B. but C. or
25. - are the birthday card and the doll -They are 45 yuan.
A. How many B. How much C. How
26. -When is China’s National Day
- It’s on .
A. 10th September B. 1st October C. 1st June
27. The art building is between the gym and the library.Which position（位置）is right（正确的）bellow
A. art building gym library B. gym art building library C. library gym art building
28. Sunday morning, Sam often helps his mother with housework.
A. On B. In C. At
29. -Why do you want to join the cooking club
- I love Chinese food.
Because B. When C. But
30. -Have a nice day, Jane.
- .
A. Thank you too. B. Good morning. C. Nice to meet you.
第二节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）。
阅读下面两篇短文， 从短文后各题所给的 A、 B、 C 三个选项中， 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
It’s Monday today. Li Hua comes to school at 8:15 in the 31 . He has Chinese at 8:30. He likes Chinese 32 it’s interesting. He doesn’t like maths because it’s 33 . At 11:00, he has maths. The math teacher speaks very well , but Li Hua doesn’t like him . 34 favourite teacher is the PE teacher , Mr Gao . He is fun . His class sounds funny . He has PE on Monday afternoon . So Li Hua 35 Monday . On weekdays , from Monday to Friday , he has lunch at school at 11:45. After school , he plays football on the school playground . Then he goes home .
A . evening B . morning C . afternoon
A. and B . but C . because
A . difficult B . fun C . interesting
A . His B . My C . Her
A . misses B . needs C . likes
B
Hello, friends! I'm Harry. I'm a middle school student. There are many 36 in my school. Students can have great fun in these clubs. I love music. I can 37 and dance very well. So I join the music club. The club has activities on Tuesday and Thursday. I 38 many good friends in the club. We have the 39 interest . I’m always very happy to 40 with my dear friends. Besides(除……之外)music, I’m also very good 41 playing chess. So I join the chess club, too. The chess club 42 has activities on Monday. So you can see, I have club activities 43 times a week.A music festival is coming. All the students in the music club need to prepare well for it. 44 next week there is a chess game for me to join in. So I’m very 45 these days. But I think my school days are really interesting.
36. A. subjects B. lessons C. clubs
37. A. swim B. draw C. sing
38. A. join B. make C. show
39. A. same B. old C. easy
40. A. tell B. talk C. think
41. A. with B. for C. at
42. A.also B. then C. very
43. A. one B. two C. three
44. A.Or B. And C. But
45. A. busy B. right C. sure
第三节 阅读选择（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面表格或短文，从短文后每小题所给的 A、 B、 C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome back to the Tang Dynasty(唐朝). There are so many famous poets (著名诗人). Do you want to know them Here are three of the most famous poets in the Tang Dynasty.
Hello everyone, I’m Li Bai. I enjoy drinking and writing poetry (诗). Many people call me“Poet Immortal (诗仙)”. I think you surely know my poem(诗）Jing Ye Si. If not, you may not listen carefully in your Chinese class. I have many friends, such as Du Fu and Meng Haoran. We all love writing poetry.
Hi, I’m Du Fu, a friend of Li Bai. I’m 11 years younger than Li Bai. I love writing poems about nature, people and life. Chun Ye Xi Yu is one of my most famous poems. I write poems to record (记录) the real life and true feelings of poor people. So people call me “Poet-Sage (诗圣)”. Li Bai and I are good friends. I often write poems as gifts for him.
I am Meng Haoran. I’m 12 years older than Li Bai. I love nature and often write poems about rivers, mountains, and the beauty (美好) of life. People call me a“Poet of Nature" because of this. The poem Chun Xiao is one of my most famous poems. Both Li Bai and I love poetry and the beauty of nature. So we are good friends.
46. What do people call Li Bai
A. Poet of Nature. B. Poet-Sage. C. Poet Immortal.
47. Which of the following is Li Bai’s poem
A. Jing Ye Si. B. Chun Xiao. C. Chun Ye Xi Yu.
48. What are Du Fu’s poems about
A. The beauty of life. B. Nature, people and life. C. Rivers and mountains.
49. Why do Li Bai and Meng Haoran become good friends
A. They are both poets. B. They love the same things. C. They live in the same place.
50. What do we know about the three poets
A. They are all good friends.
B. Meng Haoran is the oldest (年龄最大的).
C. Li Bai often gets poems from Meng Haoran.
B
FARM-TO-FUN-TRIP (AT HAPPY FARM)
When: 1:00 pm-6:30 pm, Saturday, September 10th
Cost(花费): Adults(成人): 20 Kids(12 & under): 5
Where: Happy Farm Caihong Road
Delicious Farm Lunch:▲Vegetables and fruit ▲Beef and chicken ▲Cakes ▲Drinks
Tour(游览):2:00 pm-5:30 pm
▲Tour around the farm ▲Visit old houses built(建造) ▲Meet lovely animals
Interesting Activities(5:40 pm-6:30 pm)
▲Listen to Mahu’s stories ▲Get a plant to take home ▲Show your favorite photos of the farm
For more information, visit www.happy .
51. This poster(海报) is about .
A. a zoo tour. B. a farm trip. C. a delicious lunch.
52. People can have __ __for lunch.
B. C.
How much should a mother and her 5-year-old child pay if they go to the farm together
A. 20 B. 5 C. 25
54. What can people do on the farm
A. Buy some vegetables. B. Visit old houses. C. Water the plants.
55. Where can you get more information about the farm
A. Visit the website www.happy . B. In the photo of the farm C. In the old house
C
I am Teng Fei. Here are some things of my family’s.
These books are my sister’s. She likes reading very much. She often spends about 50 minutes reading every evening. Sometimes, she asks me to read with her together.
The erhu is my brother’s. He likes music and the erhu is his favourite instrument. He can play the erhu very well. He is in the school music band.
The black piano is my mother’s. She likes playing the piano very much. She always practices playing it at about 5:00 p.m. I want to learn how to play it from her.
This is my brown basketball. I like sports and basketball is my favourite sport. I often play basketball with my good friends after school. It is really fun.
56. Whose books are these
A. Teng Fei’s. B. Teng Fei’s sister’s. C. Teng Fei’s mother’s.
57. Which "instrument" in the following sentences has the same meaning as the underlined word （划线的单词） "instrument"
A. Peter plays a traditional string(弦) instrument.
B. Language(语言) is an instrument for communication(交流).
C. A pen is an instrument used in writing.
58. When does Teng Fei’s mother often practice the piano
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
59. What do Teng Fei and his friends often do after school
A. Listen to music. B. Play the piano. C. Play basketball.
60. What do we learn about Teng Fei’s family
A. They each have a hobby. B. They have different jobs. C. They love each other.
第四节 补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据对话情景，从方框中所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
A: Hi, Emma. Can I ask you some questions
B: Sure. What are they
A: 61
B: At 6:30.
A: 62
B:Do morning exercises.
A: 63
B: For about 40minutes.
A: 64
B: Yes. I usually go to bed at 9 o’clock.
A: Wow, your living habits are really healthy. By the way, can you speak Chinese
B:Just a little. My Chinese isn’t good.
A: Oh,my Chinese isn’t good, either（也）. 65
B: Good idea.
How long do you usually do morning exercises
B. What time do you get up every morning
C. Let’s join the Chinese club.
D. What do you usually do after getting up
E. Do you go to bed early
61． 62． 63． 64． 65．
第三部分 写（共四节， 满分40分）
第一节 单词拼写 （共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母、音标和汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确、语言通顺、结构正确。
66.Peter and I are in the same class, so we are c .（66.67 都在一单元， 68.69都在七单元）
67.-Which c are you from -I’m from the UK.
68. In China, people usually (庆祝) their birthdays with families and friends.
69. Look, there is a /b ’lu:n/ in the sky.
70. My little sister is two years old. And she has ten (牙).
第二节 选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空。使短文通顺、意思完整（每空一词，每词限用一次）。
have afternoon delicious for be father good and subject do
Sarah is my classmate. She is an English girl 71 she is very nice. At school,she likes playing sports and she is good at all her school 72 . She 73 a happy family. There 74 four people in her family. They are her parents, her brother and Sarah. Her 75 birthday is on the second Saturday in January. She wants 76 some things for her father. In the morning, she buys some 77 food in the store. Her father likes it very much. In the 78 , she makes a big dinner. After dinner, she plays the piano 79 her father. She plays it very 80 .
71． 72． 73． 74． 75．
76． 77． 78． 79． 80．
第三节 完成句子（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据括号内的要求完成下列各题，每空一词 （含缩略词）。
This is Teng Fei’s erhu.（对划线部分提问）
Erhu this
Quan Hongchan spends a lot of time exercising.（改为一般疑问句）
Quan Hongchan a lot of time exercising
83.运动是我们每日生活重要的部分。(汉译英)
Sports is an important of our life.
The dining hall is behind the art building.(同义句转换）
The art building is of the dining hall.
class,the ,same,Meimei,are,Peter,and,in .（连词成句）
.
第四节 书面表达（满分15分）
假如你是李平，在新的初中学校开启了新的学习生活，你想交更多的朋友，想在烹饪社团教同学们做宜宾的美食。请根据以下内容提示写一份自我介绍的帖子。
要求：
1.帖子须包含表内所有提示信息,可适当发挥;
2.词数不少于60。帖子的开头已给出,不计入总词数。
3.文中不能出现你的任何真实信息。
Age and Birthday Grade and School Appearance and Personality Family Hobbies Daily routines Favourite
13, 3rd June 7, Yucai Middle school tall, quiet 6 people cooking get up at 7：00, go to bed at 9:30 Chinese, biology
Hello,everyone.I’m Li Ping.

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