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章丘区2025—2026学年第一次质量检测
八年级英语试题
本试卷共10页，满分150分，考试用时120分钟
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后，2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改正，用橡皮擦干净后，再选其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力 （共四节 满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. How was your holiday B. How was your weekend C. Who did you go with
2. A. That sounds great. B. It was such a good experience. C. It was fantastic.
3. A. You need a good rest. B. I have to do some work now. C. Please be careful.
4. A. Dad gave me a lift to school. B. I shared snacks with my cousin. C. I helped set the table.
5. A. What a nice girl! B. What good weather! C. How clean the room is!
第二节（共5小题；每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Where did Sam go during his vacation
A. To a beach. B. To a park. C. To a museum.
7. How did Lily spend her summer holiday
A. By joining a sports club. B. By learning to swim. C. By taking music lessons.
8. What does the girl want to do
A. Plan a treasure hunt. B. Go to a new house. C. Look for something to drink.
9. What does Amy want her father to do
A. Take her to buy some snacks. B. Work at home. C. Help her with homework.
10. What are the speakers doing
A. Having dinner. B. Seeing a movie. C. Cooking dinner.
第三节 （共5小题；每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. Where did Jack go on his trip
A. Qingdao. B. Jinan. C. Tai’an.
12. What did Jack visit first in Jinan
A. Baotu Spring. B. Qianfo Mountain. C. Daming Lake.
13. How did Jack feel about Baotu Spring
A. It was boring. B. It was amazing. C. It was noisy.
14. What did Jack do on Qianfo Mountain
A. He flew a kite. B. He had a picnic. C. He enjoyed the sight.
15. Does Jack want to visit Jinan again
A. No, he doesn’t. B. We don’t know. C. Yes, he does.
第四节（共5小题；每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. When did Jane have a trip to Australia
A. Last spring. B. Last summer. C. Last winter.
17. How did the students in the school welcome them
A. By giving a show. B. By having dinner. C. By sending gifts.
18. Who showed them around the school
A. Two teachers. B. Two girls. C. Two boys.
19. What is important for the students of the school
A. Passing exams. B. Doing sports. C. Finishing homework.
20. What did they do at the Victoria Market
A. They tasted some local food. B. They watched shows. C. They bought some clothes.
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解 （共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分 ）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Madrid sees lots of visitors every year. There are lots of places to visit. But before you go,
there are some things you’d better know.
Best time to visit The best season to visit Madrid is the fall, between September and November, or the spring, between March and May. During these seasons, temperatures are warm and pleasant（宜人的）in the city.
Getting around The fastest way to travel around Madrid is to take a metro. The metro is open from 6:00 a.m. to 1:30 a.m.
There are over 200 bus lines through Madrid and they work from 6:00 a.m.to 11:30 p.m. on weekdays, and from 7:00 a.m. to 11:00 p.m. on weekends.
Best things to do El Rastro Flea Market is the best stop for shoppers who love bargains (减价品). For nature lovers, Retiro Park is a wonderful place to spend a few hours. For chocolate lovers, there is no better place in Spain than Chocolateria San Gines.
Watch a football game at the Santiago Bernabeu and one of the world’s most famous football clubs, Real Madrid!
Travel tricks Dinners in Spain are always late at night. People there usually have dinner at around 9:00 p.m. So you’d better go to a restaurant at around 9:00 p.m.
21. The best time to visit Madrid is in ________.
A. January. B. April. C. June. D. December.
22. How many hours do bus lines in Madrid work on Sundays
A. 16. B. 17.5. C. 19.5. D. 20.
23. Which of the following is the best place for a nature lover in Madrid
A. El Rastro Flea Market. B. Retiro Park.
C. Chocolateria San Gines. D. Santiago Bernabeu.
24. When do people usually have dinner in Spain
A. At 5:00 p.m. B. At 7:00 p.m.
C. At 9:00 p.m. D. At 10:00 p.m.
25. Where can we probably read the passage
A. In a history book. B. In a storybook.
C. In a science magazine. D. In a travel poster.
B
Pop Mart toys are becoming more and more popular, not only
among children but also among adults. Peter’s mum, Lisa, a 30-year-old
woman, is a big fan of Pop Mart’s LABUBU toy. She says the toy helps
her relax. Pop Mart now has over 530 stores worldwide, and in 2024,
it made more than 13.2 billion yuan in sales.
One reason why Pop Mart is so popular is the trend (时尚) of “big kids”. Many people from Gen Z (who were born between 1997 and 2012) enjoy doing things that remind them of childhood. Collecting toys is one of them. Claire, a fan of these toys, feels close to her LABUBU toy because it is similar to her own personality (性格).
Another reason is the excitement of “blind boxes”. A blind box is a small box with a mystery toy inside. You don’t know which one you will get until you open it. This surprise makes people want to buy more. Amanda Lee, a 26-year-old from Singapore, opens blind boxes with her coworkers during lunch breaks. She says it’s a fun way to relax and share feelings with others.
Pop Mart’s success shows that people enjoy things that bring joy and emotional connection (情感联系). The toys are more than just fun—they are a way for people to show themselves and feel young again.
26. What is true about Lisa
A. She works at Pop Mart. B. She collects toys to make money.
C. She feels relaxed to the LABUBU toy. D. She started Pop Mart.
27. What does the phrase “big kids” mean in the passage
A. People who are having children. B. Children who love toys.
C. People who grow up with Pop Mart. D. People who enjoy childhood fun.
28. What is a “blind box”
A. A toy without color. B. A game to guess toy names.
C. A surprise toy in a box. D. A place to keep toys.
29. Why do Amanda and her coworkers open blind boxes together
A. To sell the toys. B. To relax and share feelings.
C. To create new toys. D. To give them to kids.
30. What is the main idea of the passage
A. Toys are only for children. B. Gen Z doesn’t like toys.
C. Pop Mart toys help people feel happy and close. D. Blind boxes are too expensive.
C
“Cool” is a word with many meanings. Its old meaning is used to express a temperature that is a little bit cold. As the world has changed, the word has had many different meanings.
　　“Cool” can be used to express feelings of interest in almost anything. When you see a famous car in the street, maybe you will say “It’s cool.” You may think, “He’s so cool,” when you see your favorite football player.
　　We all maximize (扩大) the meaning of “cool”. You can use it instead of many words such as “new” or “surprising”. Here’s an interesting story we can use to show the way the word is used. A teacher asked her students to write about the waterfall they had visited. On one student’s paper was just the one sentence, “It’s so cool”. Maybe he thought it was the best way to show what he saw and felt.
　　But the story also shows a scarcity (缺乏) of words. Without “cool”, some people have no words to show the same meaning. So it is quite important to keep some credibility (可信性). Can you think of many other words that make your life as colourful as the word “cool” I can. And I think they are also very cool.
31. We know that the word “cool” has ________.
A. only one meaning　　 B. no meanings
C. many different meanings D. the same meaning
32. In the first paragraph, the word “express” means “________”.
A. see　　 B. show　　 C. know　　 D. feel
33. If you are ________ something, you may say, “It’s cool.”
　 A. interested in　 B. angry about C. afraid of 　　 D. unhappy with
34. The writer tells a story to show he is _________ the way the word is used.
　 A. happy with　　 B. strange to C. worried about　　 D. careful with
35. In the passage, the writer suggests (暗示) that the word “cool”_________.　　
　 A. can be used instead of many words B. usually means something interesting
　 C. can make your life colourful D. may not be cool as it seems
D
I have two children and I make them do housework. However, my mother-in-law（婆婆）
doesn’t agree with me. She thinks I’m too harsh. She thinks it is adults’ job to do housework.
There are four members in my family. No one in the family is more important than another, so each member should help with chores. I don’t ask my children to do the same chores, because their ages are different.
At the end of the day, after they finish playing with their toys, I ask them to put their toys away. If they don’t, they will have to say goodbye to their toys. I hope my children can sweep the floor, set the table and help fold their clothes. I don’t think I’m asking too much. I know they are tired after a long day’s study at school, but that’s life harsh but real. I don’t want to pay them for doing some chores. They live in the house, so they should help out with some things in the house. No one is going to pay them for cleaning up their rooms later in life and I’m not about to start doing it now.
Some parents protect their children too much from anything unpleasant（使人不愉快的）and make their children’s lives too comfortable and safe, but I’m not interested in that way. I hope my children are able to look after themselves and can be independent early.
36. What can we learn about the writer’s mother-in-law
A. She doesn’t get on well with the kids.
B. She doesn’t like doing housework.
C. She doesn’t want the children to do housework.
D. She doesn’t want the writer to do housework.
37. What does the underlined word “harsh” mean in Chinese
A. 幼稚的. B. 严厉的. C. 纵容的. D. 嚣张的.
38. When the writer asks her children to do chores, ________________.
A. she often asks them to do the hard ones.
B. she often asks them to do the easy ones.
C. she asks them to do different ones.
D. she asks her mother-in-law for advice.
39. If her children don’t put away their toys, the writer ________.
A. won’t give the children pocket money.
B. will ask her mother-in-law to do it.
C. will put the toys away by herself.
D. will probably throw the toys away.
40. What does the writer want to tell us from the last paragraph
A. Parents should protect their children.
B. Parents should help their children be independent(独立的).
C. It’s unfair for parents to do all the chores at home.
D. Children should be able to understand their parents.
第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下列短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Most students do not enjoy doing housework. 41 However, if you try the following ways, you will find that doing housework is not as boring as you think.
◆ 42
You should learn to do small things around the house. For example, you can do the dishes, sweep the floor and walk the pet. Part of growing up is to be able to take care of yourself. It’s good to do some small things around the house. 43
◆Share housework among family members.
44 It’s good to share housework among family members. All the family members can do the housework together. Sharing housework among all the family members will make everyone’s job much easier.
◆Make doing housework fun.
Cooking is one part of housework. 45 When you learn how to cook your favourite food, you will also get a feeling of satisfaction(满足).
(
A. Learn to do small things
.
B. It helps you to be independent
.
C. Instead, they always eat out in restaurants
.
D. They think it is boring to do housework
.
E. If you put your heart into it, cooking can be
great fun
.
F. We shouldn
’
t ask small children to do too much
housework
.
G. It can be tiring for one person to do all the
housework
.
)
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
Peter: Hello, Ted. Do you remember me
Ted: Oh, wow! 46
Peter: Yes, I am.
Ted: You were thin and short two years ago.
Peter: Yes, 47
Ted: People sure change. 48
Peter: I went to Yunnan with my family.
Ted: Oh, I like Yunnan, too. By the way, do you know where I can buy some water
Peter: Sure. 49 Shall we go together
Ted: 50
46. A. When was it invented B. Are you Peter？
C. Is he at school D. What happened
47. A. I think it helps. B. I learned a lot.
C. but now I am stronger and taller. D. it wasn’t used wisely.
48. A. What are they used for B. Where did you go on holiday
C. Did you use to be quiet D. How is your holiday
49. A. There is a supermarket down the street. B. It closes at 7:00 p.m. today.
C. He didn’t use to like tests. D. The coin is made of silver.
50. A. Turn left. B. It looks scary.
C. Be careful. D. Sounds great.
第二节 完型填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
You’ re at your new school. It’s lunch time, but you don’t have anyone to sit with.
You want to 51 someone at their table, but you’re not sure if they’ re friendly. What do you do Natalie’s 52 to solve (解决) the problem was to make an app. She knows what it feels like to be lonely (孤独的) at a new school. She found it 53 to make new friends and had to look for a new table at 54 every day. If she sat by herself, she felt sad. But 55 she asked to join someone, she felt shy. She thought out a lunch planning app to help students like 56 find people to have lunch with.
The app called Sit With Us is 57 . If a student is having lunch in the afternoon, he or she can make an invitation (邀请). Other students can open the app and accept (接受) that invitation. They can then use the app to decide when and where to 58 . This helps students to make 59 online. This is the reason why it works so 60 : we don’t feel lonely any more and we’ re not shy about that.
Natalie is 61 to see that more people like her app especially those who are having 62 friends to have lunch together with. Soon after she made her app free to everyone, she won a prize for it. She 63 appeared (出现) in many news stories.
Natalie was even asked to speak at a university. In her 64 , Natalie wanted people to know that you don’t have to do something 65 to change lives. Sometimes, a small thing— like having a friend to enjoy lunch with— can make all the difference.
51. A. help B. share C. join D. leave
52. A. way B. job C. habit D. question
53. A. important B. different C. difficult D. interested
54. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner D. home
55. A. so B. or C. if D. but
56. A. it B. us C. her D. them
57. A. cheap B. useless C. noisy D. easy
58. A. begin B. exercise C. work D. meet
59. A. plans B. trouble C. reports D. money
60. A. late B. well C. hard D. fast
61. A. sad B. happy C. angry D. sorry
62. A. no B. many C. good D. more
63. A. still B. just C. hardly D. also
64. A. talk B. book C. school D. picture
65. A. new B. big C. similar D. enjoyable
第三节 阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
It is a virtue (美德) to care for the old people. And we should show our love for the old people around us.
Last Sunday, I（66）_______(go) to visit my grandparents. I made some gifts by（67）________(my) and they were glad to get the special gifts. Then I talked（68）________ them happily. In the afternoon, I went（69）_________(shop) with them. I made a few special （70）_________(dish) for them and then we had dinner together. My grandparents and I really enjoyed ourselves that day.
We should care for not only our own grandparents but also the other old people around us. The old people were so lonely(孤独的)（71）_________they need help and love,（72）_________ (especial) if their families live far away from them.
Around my primary school, there is a nurse home. I often go to visit the old people who live there. I like to sing songs to them and tell them jokes. I am their old friend, and they are always（73）__________ (excite) to see me.
Don’t be too shy（74）__________( show) your love for the old people. Your kindness will make（75）__________ big difference to their lives.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一部分 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据所提供的图画情景提问或应答。
(
A:
Where did you go on vacation

B:
_________________
______________
__________
.
)
(
specia
l
) (
76
.
77
.
78
.
79
.
80
.
) (
特别
的
) (
A:
__________________________________________

B:
Oh, sorry,
I have to take out the rubbish
.
) (
A:
How did you get to the Red Square in Moscow

B:
_________________________________________.
) (
A:
What
chores
does he
usually do at home

B:
_________________________________________.
) (
A:
__________________________________________

B:
Yes
,
I
d
id
.
I tasted the steamed
chicken
soup
.
)
第二节 作文（满分25分）
悠长的暑假就像一首丰富多彩的乐章(symphony)。在这段属于自己的时光里，我们用脚步丈量世界的广度，用双手感受生活的温度，用思考规划未来的道路。请你结合自己的经历，完成以下内容：
1. 描述你的暑假旅行经历和感受；
2. 分享暑假在家学会了哪些家务，说说学习过程中的感受与收获；
3. 制定本学期的计划。
注意： 1. 词数100左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息。
词汇： 变得更独立 become more independent 照顾 take care of
制定计划 make a plan
The long summer holiday is like a colorful symphony. During this summer vacation , I
章丘区2025--2026学年第一次质量检测
八年级英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力 （共四节 满分30分）
1—5 BACBC 6—10 CCAAA 11—15 BCBCC 16—20 BACBA
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
阅读理解 （共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分 ）
21—25 BABCD 26—30 CDCBC 31—35 CBACD 36—40 CBCDB
阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分 ）
41—45 DABGE
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
46—50 BCBAD
完型填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分 ）
51—55 CACBC 56—60 CDDAB 61—65 BADAB
第三节 阅读填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分 ）
66. went 67. myself 68. with 69. shopping 70. dishes
71. that 72. especially 73. excited 74. to show 75. a
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
情境运用（共5小题； 每小题2分，满分10分 ）
注意1.每小题错1-2个单词扣1分，错3个词以上的，包括3个词的，扣2分；
2.句型结构错的扣1分。
3.答案不是唯一的，合理即可。
76. I went to the mountains./ I climbed the mountains (on vacation).
77. Did you eat/taste/try anything special/special food/special things
78. Could /Can you (please) do/wash the dishes
79. I got to the Red Square by the Moscow metro/by subway.
I took the Moscow metro (to get to the Red Square).
By subway.
80. He (usually) sweeps the floor/cleans the room (at home).
第二节 作文 （25分）
作文评分标准：
1）本题共25分。
2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣1－2分。
3）拼写错误每个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达分为五个等级:
(1) 21—25 分:短文内容覆盖所有要点，能正确表达个人观点。语句通顺，语
言丰富，书写工整，语法错误3处内，字数符合要求;
(2) 16—20 分:短文内容基本覆盖所有要点，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句
通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少(4-6 处)，字数符合要求;
(3) 11—15 分:短文内容基本覆盖所有要点，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句
尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数基本符合要求;
(4) 6—10 分:短文内容要点不全，不能正确表达个人观点，语句不够通顺，语
法错误较多，书写一般，字数不足;
(5) 5分以下:短文内容明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，不能表达个人
观点，语法结构或词汇方面错误较多，影响对写作内容的理解。
作文(One possible version）
The long summer holiday is like a colorful symphony. During this summer vacation , I did a lot of meaningful things. I am happy to share them with you .
I traveled to a mountain village with my family. The beautiful mountain scenery there was so amazing that it took my breath away. I talked with the locals and tasted fresh fruits, and it made me love nature more. At home, I learned to wash clothes and cook simple dishes. It was hard at first, but soon I got better. Now I can take care of myself and become more independent. For the new term, I made a plan. I plan to read English every morning and finish homework on time. I also want to join a science club, because I am very interested in science.
All in all, I had a wonderful summer vacation. It not only opened up my eyes, but also made me more independent. With gains, I’m looking forward to the new term.
(
A:
What will the future be like
B:
__________________________________________.
) (
80
.
) (
高楼
)

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