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2025-2026学年度上八年级第一次阶段性学情诊断
英 语 试 题
注意事项：
1. 考试时间120分钟。
2. 选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题部分必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3. 请按照题号在答题卡上各题目对应的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试卷上答题均无效。
4. 保持答题卡清洁，不得折叠、污染、破损等。
第一部分：听说应用（共四节，满分35分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
I.听短对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分）
（ ）1.What food are they going to take for the picnic
（ ）2.Where does the boy want to go？
（ ）3.When will they have the meeting？
A.In 5 minutes. B.In 10 minutes. C.In 15 minutes.
（ ）4.What’s the relationship between the speakers？
A.Teacher and student.
B.Mother and son.
C.Classmates.
（ ）5.What will the girl do on Sunday？
A.Go fishing. B.Study for a test. C.Swim in the lake.
第二节（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
听长对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分）
（ ）6.Why is Larry happy？
A.Because he won a game.
B.Because he’ll have a party.
C.Because he’ll see his teacher.
（ ）7.Where will they have the party？
A.In their classroom.
B.In Larry’s home.
C.In a restaurant.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10三个小题。
（ ）8.Which month is it now？
A.June. B.July. C.August.
（ ）9.How much is a double room？
A.160 yuan a day. B.214 yuan a day. C.240 yuan a day.
（ ）10.What can the woman do in the hotel？
A.Play tennis. B.Swim at the pool. C.Enjoy Chinese food.
听短文，选择正确答案。短文读两遍。
（ ）11.How many children does Sally have？
A.4. B.3. C.2
（ ）12.What does Sally always do every morning？
A.She walks her dog. B.She goes shopping. C.She cleans the streets.
（ ）13.What did Sally use to be？
A.A nurse. B.A teacher. C.A cleaner.
（ ）14.What does Sally do for the kids？
A.She cooks meals for them.
B.She prepares them for the test.
C.She helps them with their homework.
（ ）15.How does Sally feel every day？
A.Happy. B.Bored. C.Calm.
第三节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
IV. 听短文，写出表格中所缺的单词。每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Different ways to spend holidays
A beach holiday ·This is a great way to 16. . ·People can swim in the sea，play some games or just 17. on the beach and enjoy the sun there.
A 18. holiday ·People would take many things and go to places like parks or 19. . ·People will feel excited.
A holiday at home ·It is a 20. way to spend the holidays. ·People invite friends and hold parties.
第四节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
请根据下面的对话内容，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯，完整。
根据对话内容，选出适当的选项补全对话。
A: Hello, Jack! 21
B: Me, too. How was your summer vacation
A: 22 I have a great time in Xi’an.
B: That sounds great. 23
A: Sure. There are a lot of places of interest. 24
B: How come
A: 25 And the friendly guide told us many stories.
B: It seems that you really enjoyed yourself. I hope I could go there one day.
A．It was wonderful.
B．I’m so happy to see you at school.
C．Did you go anywhere special there
D．Because I can learn a lot about history there.
E．But for me, the most interesting one is the Terracotta Warriors.
第二部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Doing chores is very important. According to a survey，children who often do chores will have more chances to be successful. Here is the result of a survey by Beijing Academy of Educational Science(北京教育教学研究院) this year.
Luckily，our country has realized the importance of labour education. People’s Daily also gives us a chore chart for kids of different ages.
Chores by Age
Kids aged 5 to 6 years old ·Make the bed properly. ·Put their own things back. ·Learn to group things ·... Kids aged 7 to 9 years old ·Do the dishes. ·Clean their rooms. ·Get things ready for school. ·... Kids aged 12 years old and up ·Deep clean their rooms. ·Shop for the festivals. ·Make plans for the family trips. ·...
（ ）26.In which country do kids do the most housework？
A.In China. B.In England. C.In America. D.In Japan.
（ ）27.Who can do deep cleaning according to the text.
A.Kids aged 5—6. B.Kids aged 7—9.
C.Kids aged 12 and up. D.All the above.
（ ）28.Tim is an 8-year-old boy. What can he do at home？
A.Do the dishes. B.Plan for a trip.
C.Shop for a festival. D.Make a cake.
（ ）29.What’s the purpose of the text？
A.To encourage children to do chores. B.To tell us the benefits of doing chores.
C.To show us chores by age. D.To show why doing chores is important.
（ ）30.Where can we probably find the text？
A.In a storybook. B.In a newspaper.
C.On a map. D.In a shopping list.
B
A Trip to My Hometown
Last month, I went back to my hometown with my parents. My hometown is a small town in the north of China. I hadn’t been there for three years, so I was very excited.
We took a train to get there. The train ride was about 5 hours. When we arrived, my uncle came to meet us. He drove us to his house. His house is bigger than before—now it has a small garden. My aunt cooked a big dinner for us. We ate dumplings, fish and vegetables. All the food was my favorite.
The next day, we visited the town center. There are many new shops and restaurants now. I also went to my old primary school. It looked different too—there is a new playground and a library. I met my old teacher, Ms. Li. She still remembered my name, which made me very happy.
On the third day, we went to a park near the town. We walked by the lake and flew kites. The weather was sunny and warm. We took many photos there. Before we left, my uncle
gave us some fresh fruit from his garden. I felt a little sad to say goodbye, but I know I will come back soon. This trip made me miss my hometown even more.
根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。
（ ）31.How did the writer go to his hometown
A. By car B. By train C. By bus D. By plane
（ ）32.How long hadn’t the writer been to his hometown
A. For one year B. For two years C. For three years D. For four years
（ ）33.What did the writer’s aunt cook for dinner
A. Dumplings, fish and vegetables B. Rice, chicken and noodles
C. Bread, eggs and milk D. Hamburgers and chips
（ ）34.What’s new in the writer’s old primary school
A. A new house B. A new garden
C. A new playground and library D. A new shop
（ ）35.How did the writer feel when he left his hometown
A. Happy B. Sad C. Angry D. Bored
C
Have a look at the picture. There is a fairytale (童话式的) tree house in it.
Radamshome, a lovely dad，built it for his daughter. It is really beautiful,isn’t
it？
Radamshome is an artist. His job is to make video games. One day, his daughter said that she dreamed to have a fairy tree in her bedroom that she could sit and read books inside. So Radamshome decided to build a fairytale tree house for his daughter.
Radamshom said that he began with an idea，and then drew a picture. Next，he made a scale model (比例模型). He prepared all the things he needed. He first built a tree house with steel and cement (钢筋和水泥). Then he painted it in beautiful colours. He even decorated it with flowers, bird nests and some beautiful lights. The tree house looks fantastic and special when the lights are on at night. There are also some animal toys near the tree.
Radamshome spent eighteen months finishing this tree house. He feels very happy whenever he sees his daughter reading books inside the fairy tree house.
（ ）36. Why did Radamshome build the tree house
A. Because his daughter loved fairy tales.
B. Because he enjoyed building tree houses.
C. Because their house was too small.
D. Because his daughter wanted a fairy tree in bedroom.
（ ）37.Which is the right order to build the tree house according to the passage
①built a tree house with steel and cement ②painted the house in beautiful colours
③drew a picture ④decorated the house
⑤made a scale model
A.②⑤③①④ B.③⑤①②④ C.④⑤①②③ D.③⑤④①②
（ ）38.How long did it take Radamshome to build the tree house
A. Eight months. B. One year.
C. One and a half years. D. Two and a half years.
（ ）39.Which of the statements is TRUE according to the passage？
A.Radamshome decorated the tree house with different things.
B.Radamshome painted the tree house light blue.
C.It wasn’t difficult job to finish building the tree hose.
D.There were many interesting books inside the tree house.
（ ）40.What is the best title for the passage？
A.An Artist Father B.A Fairytale Tree House
C.An interesting Idea D.A Lovely Family
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Some farmers in England play jazz music for their cows. 41._________ They think music helps cows feel happy and makes milk better. This idea became famous on TikTok. Farmer Charles says he started playing music for cows 10 years ago.
At first, he played quiet music to cover the loud machine noises. 42._________ Now the cows like jazz best. Music also helps cows make more milk. Like how dogs learn that a bell means food, cows learn that music means milking time. 43._________
The music helps cows relax so they give milk more easily.44._________ Next time you drink milk, it might come from a cow that loves jazz! 45._________
A. The cows like the music and feel happy. B. Farmers try new things to help their cows. C. This helps the milking go better. D. Many people think this is interesting. E. Happy cows make better milk. F. It shows how music can help animals.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
第三节 信息摘录(共5小题；每小题2分，计10分)
阅读短文，根据短文内容，在短文后的空格里填入最恰当的单词(每空限填一词)。
Sharing housework is really important for creating a warm family. When everyone in the family helps with housework, it makes life easier and brings family members closer together. The best way to start is by giving small tasks to each person. For example, parents can ask kids to sweep the floor, make their beds, or water the plants. This not only helps children learn to be responsible（负责的）but also makes them feel like they' re an important part of the family.
Doing housework together is also a fun time to talk. It is a perfect chance for family members to spend time together. While you clean the room or wash the dishes, you can share what happened at school, talk about your favourite TV shows, or tell funny stories. These small talks turn boring tasks into enjoyable moments, making family members feel more connected（有联系的）。
Also, doing housework teaches kids useful skills. Kids can learn many practical things from doing daily housework. They learn how to organize their toys and clothes, keep things tidy, and even cook simple meals.These skills will be very helpful when they grow up and live on their own.
Moreover, sharing housework helps keep our home clean and comfortable. When everyone joins in, the living room becomes tidy, the kitchen shines, and the whole house feels like a comfortable place to relax. A clean home reduces stress（减轻压力）and makes everyone happier.
In a word, sharing housework isn't just about work.It's a beautiful way to show love and care to our family.These small acts of helping one another help build a happy and loving family.
46. 47. 48. 49.
50.What chores do you usually do at home？(no more than 15 words)
第三部分：语言知识运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
先通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Dear Marcel,
I'm writing to tell you that we' ve finally found a new place to live after months of 51 ! We' re going to move in next Saturday. I can't wait. I'm really 52 it. By the way, our new address is 136 Bowerdean Street, Muswell Hill, London.
The new house is much nicer than the one we' re living in now. It's bigger, which makes it far more 53 . Cathy and John are growing up now and can't share a room forever. Our new place has got 54 bedrooms—one for Mary and me, one for each of the kids, and a spare bedroom—so you're always welcome to stay 55 us if you want to visit London again！
The new house has a small garden. It' ll be nice for the kids to have 56 to play. We plan to 57 some beautiful flowers and green plants to the garden to make it look more lively.
I don't think you are 58 with Muswell Hill. It's a nice area, but it's not very convenient (方便的) for transport(交通). There is no subway station here. You have to take a bus to Highgate and then take the subway there. It takes about 45 minutes to arrive at the city centre. Our house is very convenient for 59 , though. There are many lovely little shops just round the corner. Anyway, I hope you'll come and see it yourself sometime. I'm sure your 60 will bring much joy to all of us.
All the best,
Luke
（ ）51.A.reading B.searching C.listening D.speaking
（ ）52.A.looking forward to B.taking care of
C.looking for D.thinking of
（ ）53.A.ancient B.dangerous C.terrible D.comfortable
（ ）54.A.three B.four C.five D.six
（ ）55.A.with B.for C.as D.until
（ ）56.A.something B.somewhere C.anything D.anywhere
（ ）57.A.add B.pack C.guide D.hunt
（ ）58.A.powerful B.excellent C.famous D.familiar
（ ）59.A.shopping B.jogging C.swimming D.hiking
（ ）60.A.smell B.advice C.arrival D.vacation
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容，用方框中所给词块选择正确的形式填空，并将答案写在横线上。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
nothing but ready to pack up clean up by accident
Last weekend, Tom and his friends went hiking in the mountains. For them, the trip was 61. __________ joy and excitement. Before leaving, they 62.___________ all their gear（装备）, including tents and food. While setting up camp, they found a beautiful lake 63. ___________, which made the trip even more special. The next morning, they were 64.____________ explore the nearby trails. Before heading home, they took time to 65.____________ the campsite（营地）, leaving no trash behind. It was a perfect adventure
第三节 语法填空(共5小题；每小题2分，计15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个恰当的词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在题后相应的横线上。
Birthdays mean parties, dresses, cakes, sweets, gifts and so on. A birthday party is a time to have a lot of fun and relax ourselves. My birthday is 66 August 18th. Let me tell you how I celebrated it this year.
On the evening of my birthday, my parents invited my grandparents, aunt, uncle and cousins 67 (come) to my birthday party. Before that, they cleaned up all the rooms 68 (one). Then they 69 (decorate) our house with fresh flowers, colourful balloons and ribbons(丝带). When I went into my bedroom, I found a new dress on the bed and beautiful paper cuttings on the windows. Everything was fantastic and made me 70 (surprise) and excited. I took off my school uniform and put on 71 new dress. As I cut the cake, everyone around me began singing the birthday song. Their 72 (voice) were full of joy. Many of them prepared great gifts for me. I liked all the gifts, 73 (especial) the chocolate biscuits made by my grandparents.
At around 9:00 p.m., the party was over. My parents and I began to tidy up the house. 74 it was a little tiring, I enjoyed doing something to make our house cleaner and more beautiful. I was so 75 (luck) to have such a wonderful family and sweet home.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
第四部分：书面表达
86．今年暑假，你跟你的爸爸一起去四川度假。假如在8月4日（星期一）这天，你们去了峨眉山，并参观了动物园，看到很多大熊猫。请根据以下问题提示，写一篇日记，描述当天的情况。
提示：
1. How was the weather 2. Where did you go 3. Who did you go with
4. What did you do 5. How did you feel about the trip
写作要求：
1.文中须包含所给的要点提示，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称；
3.词数80左右。
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