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广西南宁市2026届高中毕业班摸底测试英语试题
(考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分) 2025.10
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the man need to do first
A. Cross a bridge. B. Go straight on. C. Turn left at the end of the street.
2. What does the woman want to do
A. Eat at a restaurant.
B. Have a meal delivered.
C. Bring pizza home from a restaurant.
3. What does the man remember about James
A. His natural talent. B. His hard work. C. His interesting jobs.
4. Why does the man need time off work
A. He is having an operation.
B. He is recovering from stress.
C. His mother is having a surgery.
5. What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Pet store owner and customer. B. Husband and wife. C. Friends.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where are the speakers
A. At a restaurant. B. At home. C. At the school.
7. What was a problem for Brian
A. Catching the school bus.
B. Creating a study schedule.
C. Deciding on a school club.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What problem does the man mention about pets
A. Birds may be noisy. B. Cats can hurt neighbors. C. Dogs need more walks.
9. Why did the man choose a cat as his pet
A. It doesn't make noise. B. It needs less attention. C. It loves being around people.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What was the main problem before the man took over the branch
A. Staff lacked motivation and kept quitting.
B. Staff failed to meet their sales targets.
C. The company couldn't compete against other firms.
11. What has been the key to the man's success
A. Rewarding his staff with cash bonuses.
B. Establishing weekly team meetings.
C. Creating a culture of appreciation.
12. What does the woman probably plan to do
A. Apply for a promotion.
B. Give an award to the man.
C. Set up a company-wide strategy.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the man's first suggestion about the show
A. Start and end with music.
B. Make the audience moved.
C. Open with something eye-catching.
14. What do“the pair” probably do
A. They perform modern dances.
B. One sings and the other plays the piano.
C. They work together to do magic tricks.
15. Which performance will follow the magic show
A. Music. B. Comedy. C. Dance.
16. What will the woman likely do next
A. Check with the band. B. Call the piano player. C. Speak to the dancers.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Why does the school hold the“Fun Day”
A. To enrich today's meeting.
B. To meet the government's need.
C. To celebrate the end of the year.
18. What activity can be enjoyed in the evening
A. A concert. B. Swimming races. C. Exciting rides.
19. Who will be charged for the“Fun Day”
A. School students. B. Family members. C. The governors.
20. How can students get the latest news about the“Fun Day”
A. By searching the Internet.
B. By asking the website builders.
C. By listening to the announcement.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Tulip Festivals in the USA
Today, tulips are celebrated across the the United States at tulip festivals. Here are a few of our favorite tulip festivals —— and the reasons why you should check them out.
Holland Tulip Time
It doesn't get more Dutch than Holland, Michigan. The city hosts one of the nation's largest and best-known tulip festivals each year. Tulip Time is an 8-day celebration that features parades,traditional Dutch dance demonstrations, art exhibitions, concerts, and five million blooming tulips.New this year: You can even name a blooming bed for your family or loved one.
Skagit Valley Tulip Festival
The fields near Mount Vernon, Washington have always been packed with tulips; the Dutch have planted bulbs(鳞茎) in the area for more than 100 years. It includes art shows, concerts, farm tours,a fun run, bike rides, and the Downtown Mount Vernon Street Fair. Many events that require tickets will be available online.
Wooden Shoe Tulip Fest
In Woodburn, Oregon, the Wooden Shoe Tulip Farm plants more than 40 acres of tulips and welcomes guests from the end of March until the first week of May. During the week, they sell cut flowers and bulbs. On the weekends, there's plenty of family fun on the farm grounds, including shuttles to the flower fields, a children's play area, and wooden shoe-making demonstrations.
Pella Tulip Time Festival
The tiny town of Pella, Iowa was founded by Dutch immigrants. Pella’ s Tulip Time Festival is an entire long weekend featuring parades, performances, museum tours, a craft market, concerts, auto and tractor shows, and of course, several large tulip displays with hundreds of thousands of blooms in a whole host of colors. Most events are free; tickets for others can be purchased on-site.
21. What is newly added to Holland Tulip Time
A. Admiring Dutch folk dancing. B. Celebrating with festive parades.
C. Giving a name to a blooming bed. D. Exploring art shows in blooming tulips.
22. How is Wooden Shoe Tulip Fest different from the other festivals
A. It's time-honored. B. It's family-friendly.
C. It's world-famous. D. It's multi-cultural.
23. Which festival can be recommended to a person interested in vehicles
A. Holland Tulip Time. B. Skagit Valley Tulip Festival.
C. Wooden Shoe Tulip Fest. D. Pella Tulip Time Festival.
B
When famous stem cell(干细胞) biologist Helen Blau reads her recently published picture book,Stem Cells to the Rescue, to her grandchildren, even the 5-year-old sits still.
“I' ve read it to them many times,” says Blau. The grandmother of four describes how her grandkids, between the ages of 5 and 9, especially love to point to the curly-haired frog looking through a microscope on page 30. “They knew right away it was me,” she says, laughing.
Filled with dancing stem cell blobs(小团) and active frogs —— who like to color, eat ice cream,and swim, just like her grandchildren —— Blau’ s rhyming book is a joint effort with illustrator MargeryFain, 69. It was inspired by their own grandchildren and by a desire to educate all children (and hopefully their parents and grandparents too) about stem cells —— those building blocks that play an important role in tissue maintenance and repair.
“It's not very easy for the general public to understand what stem cells are all about,” says Blau,“We thought the book was a possible means to address this as the book can teach while bringing joy to kids.”
The book was published last year by Cold Spring Harbor Laboratory Press. The first half of Blau's book shows how stem cells come to the rescue when kid frogs hurt their knees. Then, in the second half, as the frogs age and turn into grandparents with glasses, facing age-related problems, scientist frogs like Blau become the rescuers who develop stem cell technologies to treat these conditions.
Researchers are making progress on how to“make new stem cells,” the book says, to repair grandma's eyes or to regenerate cartilage(软骨) in grandpa's aching knees —— both among Blau's research projects. For Blau, who has written hundreds of scientific publications, this was her first attempt into children's literature. It was fun and she might write another. She says, “Wouldn't it be great if we could motivate kids to become scientists ”
24. What do Blau's grandchildren think of the book
A. Confusing. B. Appealing. C. Valuable. D. Professional.
25. What is a feature of Stem Cells to the Rescue according to the text
A. It uses personified characters. B. It focuses on frog activities.
C. It presents rhyming songs. D. It stresses a healthy lifestyle.
26. What does the underlined word“this” mean in paragraph 4
A. The public's limited understanding of stem cells.
B. The lack of children's books about stem cells.
C. The difficulty of making science interesting.
D. The need of carrying out joyful education.
27. What does Blau expect of the book in the future
A. It can have a place in children's literature. B. It can show her progress in stem cells study.
C. It can help apply the stem cell research. D. It can inspire children's scientist dream.
C
When Percy Lee has a bad day, he hangs out with his chinchilla, Rin. “She’ s like emotional support for me,” says the 14-year-old. He's not alone —— whether holding a cat or petting a pup, people worldwide find comfort in relaxing with their pets. That animal affection may have benefits that go far beyond temporary mood boosts. Researchers have found that pets can reduce stress and enhance people's immune(免疫) systems.
Developmental psychologist Patricia Pendry's research reveals that just 10 minutes of petting animals significantly lowers cortisol, the body's stress hormone(荷尔蒙). “Rhythmic petting releases oxytocin——a hormone that helps calm the stress system,” she explains, noting even eye contact with dogs sets off this effect.
Beyond mental health, early pet exposure boosts immunity. Mikael Knip's 2020 study shows children growing up with pets exhibit dramatically lower health risks:40% less asthma, 28% fewer allergies, and half the likelihood of developing type I diabetes.
Animals themselves probably don't help train our immune system. “The idea is that early exposure to a dog or a cat in the house leads to an increased exposure to‘healthy’ microbes,” Knip explains. All kinds of microbes collect on an animal’ s paws and fur while they’ re outdoors. The animal then brings those microbes home, which exposes family members to the germs. Those exposures help train up kids' immune systems.
While owning pets offers these benefits, not everyone can have one. “If you can't have a pet of your own, talk to your neighbors, family members or friends,” suggests Dr. Kerri Rodriguez, who studies animal-human bond. “Can you volunteer to walk their dog for them one day a week ” You could even visit a cat café now and then, or volunteer at an animal shelter. Interacting with animals can be beneficial, Rodriguez says.“But animals have feelings and emotions too Remember to always respect an animal's boundaries and personal space, just like you'd like to be treated.”
28. Why does the author mention Persy Lee in the first paragraph
A. To prove a theory. B. To define a concept.
C. To introduce the topic. D. To provide the background.
29. Why does early pet exposure improve immunity according to Knip
A. It helps cure asthma and allergies. B. It lowers the number of microbes in the house.
C. It relieves children's stress and pain. D. It enhances exposure to beneficial microbes.
30. What can be inferred from Kerri Rodriguez's words
A. Volunteering can bring people closer. B. Animals should be treated considerately.
C. Cat cafés are a good way to own a pet. D. Pets improve neighborhood relationships.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Pets: Health and Well- Being Boosters B. Pets: Children's Illness fighters
C. Pets: Human's Emotional supporters D. Pets: Owners' Helpful Companions
D
The world is changing, and so is the way we build things. Traditional construction materials have been causing environmental and resource problems, but now there are new, exciting alternatives on the rise. One of these creative materials is FabBRICK, a brick made from waste fabrics(织物).
FabBRICK was founded by architect Clarisse Merlet in 2019. During her studies in 2017, Merlet experimented with various waste materials, such as plastic bottles and cardboard. Her focus soon shifted to fabric waste, using cotton's natural ability to block sound and heat to create ecological building materials. Merlet explains,“Being an architecture student made me look for ways to build differently. I created several models using eco- friendly glues and tried different ways to press fabric together. My successful model was fire- resistant and waterproof(防水的).”
FabBRICK works with businesses to transform their fabric waste into new products, promoting waste reduction and recycling awareness. The company processes unwanted clothes at a Parisian studio, where clothes are sorted by color and cut up into fibers. These fibers are then mixed with an ecological glue and pressed into bricks without the use of conventional dyeing, maintaining the fabric's original colors.
These bricks find various applications, from individual blocks and dividing walls to furniture parts built into chairs and tables. FabBRICK's innovative approach has made it possible to work with various brands, turning over 90 kg of recycled fabric into decorative wall coverings for stores like theKilo Shop in Paris. The company also engages in significant projects, such as creating mobile walls that block sound for Decathlon's new workspace in Lille, using over 200 kg of the brand's leftover fabric from production.
The potential of FabBRICK as a structural material is still being explored. With the aim of expanding its market reach, FabBRICK is considering the establishment of factories in different regions to deal with local fabric waste effectively. Clarisse Merlet emphasizes the global applicable of FabBRICK, stating,“FabBRICK can be developed worldwide, as unfortunately, fast fashion is everywhere, providing a continual source of fabric waste.”
32. What made Clarisse Merlet focus on fabric waste
A. Failed trails in experiments. B. Special properties of cotton.
C. Requirements from her studies. D. New ways to press waste.
33. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. How the eco- bricks are made. B. What FabBRICK aims to do.
C. Who FabBRICK partners with. D. How colors are preserved in eco- bricks.
34. How does the author introduce the bricks’ application
A. By offering rich statistics. B. By analyzing scientific principles.
C. By listing real-life examples. D. By comparing with other materials.
35. What can we learn from the last paragraph
A. FabBRICK has limitations as a structural material.
B. FabBRICK provides a continual source for fast fashion.
C. Fast fashion's waste drives FabBRICK's global expansion.
D. Building new factories is FabBRICK's most important goal.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
根据下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Four Ways to Give Back During the Holidays
Between your holiday parties, family responsibilities, and the pressure of finding the perfect gift, this time of year can go by in a flash. But during the holiday season, we are often reminded of something important. 36 Below are four easy ways to do just that by helping our neighbors facing hunger.
Set up a holiday food drive.
Get your friends, family or neighborhood together and start a food drive. 37 Then in the weeks leading up to the holidays and at holiday gatherings, encourage your neighbors and family to help make a difference by supporting your food drive. Deliver all the collected items to the food bank to ensure your efforts have the greatest impact.
38
Do you have a friend or family member that cares deeply for others This year, consider donating to Feeding America in honor of your friends and family. You will be spreading the love twice as far by giving meals to families who are in need and giving your loved one a meaningful gift. Give a gift today.
Volunteer!
Did you know that 51% of all food programs rely entirely on volunteers 39 But the feeling of helping your neighbors in need during the holiday season is priceless. Get in touch with your local food bank to learn more about volunteer opportunities.
Make a difference online.
There are lots of ways that you can help people facing hunger without leaving the comfort of your own home. You can start an online fundraiser or add Feeding America as your charity of choice onAmazon Smile or eBay. 40
A. Give a gift that gives back.
B. It won't cost you anything.
C. Show concern for your loved one.
D. They truly play a key role in volunteering.
E. It's to give back, especially to those in need.
F. Your digital footprint may inspire others to join you.
G. Contact your local food bank and learn what items they need most first.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Years ago, I disliked exercise. My gym visits were nothing but short treadmill(跑步机) walks and 41 attempts at weights, thus I even persuaded members to 42 classes for happy hours.Exercise wasn't fun—— until a personal crisis 43 me to seek relief through fitness.
Then came the turning point. I joined Adria's training studio. As both owner and coach, she was good at motivating me. Before long, I was seeing 44 both in body and mind. Not only did I come across a great trainer, but I also gained a friend. However, exhausted from running her studio alone,Adria joked,"I wish you'd get certified—— you' re the only one I'd trust with the keys."I laughed it off,knowing that was impossible. Me A trainer —— but her words 45 me. After weeks of hesitation, I 46 the ACE certification course.
Studying proved 47 because memorizing muscle groups and safety regulations was challenging for me. Luckily my son kept me 48 , just like I'd once lifted his spirits in study for medical school. Test day came and my every move was 49 carefully during the whole exam.Finally the"PASS" result brought me relief and 50 .
Now at 54, my certification hangs proudly on the wall, a reminder that 51 lasts longer than passing motivation. I' ve learned that 52 starts when you step outside your comfort zone. Adria didn't just teach me about fitness — she showed me that belief from others can 53 the courage to believe in yourself.
Every time I walk into the studio and see that certificate, I'm reminded: it's never too late to 54 your story. What once felt impossible now feels like the most 55 journey of my life.
41. A. active B. random C. positive D. brave
42. A. attend B. offer C. skip D. forget
43. A. ordered B. forced C. allowed D. invited
44. A. limits B. signals C. changes D. problems
45. A. failed B. puzzled C. hurt D. struck
46. A. put up with B. dropped out of C. signed up for D. kept away from
47. A. interesting B. surprising C. refreshing D. demanding
48. A. satisfied B. discouraged C. disappointed D. inspired
49. A. watched B. directed C. corrected D. questioned
50. A. pride B. test C. model D. need
51. A. movement B. commitment C. enthusiasm D. habit
52. A. dream B. growth C. plan D. story
53. A. take B. reduce C. fuel D. remove
54. A. rewrite B. replace C. share D. finish
55. A. relaxing B. colorful C. peaceful D. rewarding
第二节(共10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We set off from Pai Village to Motuo, arguably the remotest county in China.
The mountain path was stony and uneven with lots of sudden turns, testing our 56 (strong)and willpower at every step. Before dusk, we arrived at Lage, a reception station 57 (consist)of a few wooden houses. I could see the thick forest just steps away from our house, 58 a white waterfall hung in the middle of the forest. At midnight, it was 59 freezing cold that I was awakened several times. Over the next few days, we travelled through the jungle, 60 (follow) a cliff-cut path and climbed endless hillsides. Though 61 (push) to our physical and mental limits,we finally reached our destination.
Motuo, located in the southern foothills of the Himalayas, is positioned deep within the YarlungTsangpo Grand Canyon, the world's 62 (deep) canyon. Water vapor(水蒸气), formed from theIndian Ocean and Bay of Bengal, floated around the high peaks. Surrounded by clouds and mist, we found 63 (we) in a dreamlike fairyland of towering mountains and deep valleys. Numerous birds sang in the forest while sunshine poured through the mist and woods. Large white lilies blossomed in vast fields.
I used to wonder why Motuo keeps drawing groups of returning tourists. When we gazed 64 silence at the landscape, I 65 (gradual) got the answer.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华，外教 Chris上周答应帮你修改以“最美劳动者”为题的英文演讲稿。决赛临近，你尚未收到反馈。请给 Chris写一封邮件，内容包括：
(1)询问修改情况；
(2)请求尽快回信。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris, Best wishes, Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
“How did tryouts go, Shayna ” Mom asked after school.
“Terrible,” I said. “Kristie got Cinderella’ s part!”
“What part did you get ” Mom asked, putting a hand on my shoulder.
“None,” I whispered, fighting back tears. I ran to my room and started drawing in my sketchbook.Drawing always makes me feel better.
The next day, Kristie was in high spirits yet couldn't hide her nervousness, constantly begging me to accompany her to the rehearsal (排练). I sighed but finally agreed, knowing she needed the support. Upon arriving at the concert hall, Ms. Carson handed out script(剧本) copies to the actors. Isat in the third row, wishing I were in my room drawing. At that moment, Ms. Carson moved a brown cardboard piece onto the center of the stage, which had small windows and doors on it. My eyes stayed glued to that poor sets. When the music started, Kristie and the actor playing the prince began dancing.
After the rehearsal, Ms. Carson praised them. Kristie looked at the cardboard castle, clearly dissatisfied with the simple sets, wondering when they would get the real sets. Ms. Carson explained that these were the actual sets, as there was no art teacher at the school this year.
Then Kristi e and I walked outside. I praised her for her wonderful performance, thinking that the audience would surely love the play. “Thanks,” Kristie said. “But did you see the sets ” I hesitated, and then said slowly. “Maybe there's something I can do — along with many fellow art-loving students.”
That night, I kept drawing, late into the night. My pencil moved on the paper, and I only saw the lines I was making. I thought only about my drawing and nothing else. Every time, I changed something: a bigger castle, a prettier carriage with wheels. The next morning, I stuffed my sketchbook into my backpack and hurried to Ms. Carson.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My heart was pounding as I knocked on Ms. Carson's office door. Eventually, opening night arrived.
南宁市2026届高中毕业班摸底测试
英语科参考答案及评分细则
1—5 ABBAC 6—10BCCBA 11—15CCABB 16—20CCABA
21—23 CBD 24—27 BAAD 28—31 CDBA 32—35BACC 36—40EGABF
41—45 BCBCD 46—50CDDAA 51—55 BBCAD
56. strength 57. consisting 58. and 59. so 60. followed
61. pushed 62. deepest 63. ourselves 64. in 65. gradually
第三部分 第二节 语法填空评分细则
1.按照参考答案给分。
2.单词一定要拼写正确才得分。
3.字母书写要规范并能辨别清楚才得分。
4.要区分单词首字母的大小写。
5.如果因扫描试卷的原因，导致试卷画面模糊，部分i字母上少了一个点，可给分。
6.评分以第一印象为准。
第四部分 第一节 应用文写作
一、参考范文
Dear Chris,
I hope this email finds you well. I'm writing to ask about my speech draft titled The MostBeautiful Workers, which you kindly offered to polish last week.
With the final contest approaching, I'm wondering if you' ve had a chance to work on it and how it is going so far. How can I improve it Your valuable suggestions will be of great help to the speech. Would it be possible for you to give me some feedback before Wednesday evening
Thank you again! I'm looking forward to your early reply.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
二、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1)内容：内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
(2)词汇语法：使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3)篇章结构：上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
注意：
1.若文章时态不恰当，酌情降档扣分。
2.若文章得体性不够，酌情扣分。
第四部分第二节读后续写
一、参考范文
My heart was pounding as I knocked on Ms. Carson's office door: When she opened the door,Itook a deep breath and showed her my sketches. “I could help with the sets”, I said nervously. Ms.Carson's eyes lit up as she flipped through my sketchbook. Then I told Ms. Carson I could make it real with fellow art-loving students. The next weeks witnessed our consistent efforts after school every day. Eventually, the plain cardboard was transformed into a magical world with a fancy carriage and a grand castle. Looking at our works, we were seized by accomplishment.
Eventually, opening night arrived. As the curtain rose, everyone was struck by the fascinating sets. The moment the play was over, everyone applauded enthusiastically. The performance was definitely wonderful! Suddenly,I was called up to the stage by Ms. Carson. Then she said into the microphone, “I’ d like to thank the many students who made the sets, and especially Shayna, the designer. Her talent and effort made the night successful.” Everyone clapped for me! I did get a part in the play after all. And it was just as good as being Cinderella.
二、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1)创造内容的质量，续写的完整性及与原文语境的融洽度。
(2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于120的，酌情扣分。
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可以接受。
(3)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
档 次 描 述
第五档 (21-25分) 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档 (16-20分) 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 ● 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。 ● 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 (11-15分) ●创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 ● 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。 ● 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档 (6-10分) ● 内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。 ● 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。 ● 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档 (1-5分) ●内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。 ● 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。 ● 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
0分 ● 未作答。 ● 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判。 ● 所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
四、读后续写具体评分细则
(一)内容
第一段：
要点1：作者展示素描本，提出改进舞台布景的想法。
要点2：教师认可。
要点3：制作话剧舞台布景。
第二段：
要点1：演出成功。
要点2：舞台布景得到认可。
要点3：作者的感悟。
(二)衔接
全文内容衔接、连贯自然。
(三)语言
运用丰富的词汇、语法结构、丰富的句式和恰当得体的语言。
(四)书写卷面
注意：
1.文章要求语义连接，前后文衔接自然，故事发展符合逻辑，体现文章主题。
2.续写内容应紧接所给开头句，另起一行写的考生本次评卷不扣分，但是教师在讲评试卷时要和学生强调规范答题。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度给予考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)如书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
应用文各档次的给分范围和要求
档 次 描 述
第五档 (13-15分) ● 覆盖所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。 ● 使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 ● 有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。 ● 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10-12分) ● 覆盖所有内容要点，表达比较清楚、合理。 ● 使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。 ● 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 ● 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7-9分) ● 覆盖了大部分内容要点，少数内容表达不够清楚、合理。 ● 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当指出，但基本不影响理解。 ● 基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 ● 基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4-6分) ● 漏掉或未描述清楚一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。 ● 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。 ● 几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档 (1-3分) ● 遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相干。 ● 所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。 ● 几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不连贯。
0分 ● 未作答。 ● 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判。 ● 所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
四、应用文具体评分细则
1.内容：写信背景(外教答应帮修改演讲稿)。询问修改情况(是否已修改，意见如何等)。请求尽快回信(语气要得体，时间要具体)。
2.语言：运用多样且准确恰当的词汇、语法结构和句式。
3.书写卷面：如书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。

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