资源简介

2025—2026年度上学期河南省高一年级第一次联考
英语
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What would the man like extra for breakfast today
A. A cup of coffee. B. A sandwich. C. A salad.
2. What do the speakers mainly talk about
A. The height. B. The family. C. The weight.
3. What will the man probably do next
A. Finish his schoolwork. B. Borrow a bike from his father. C. Get his mother’s car repaired.
4. How did the speakers promise to help Mrs. Yang out
A. By fixing her chair. B. By working in her garden. C. By bringing her some food.
5. Which season is it now
A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Winter.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man
A. He broke his pocket. B. He lost his keys. C. He was late for work.
7. What will the speakers do first
A. Call their friends.
B. Walk back to their friends’ house.
C. Have someone come to open the door.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why does the woman talk to the man
A. To ask for some information. B. To make an invitation. C. To discuss a problem.
9. Which language is the most difficult according to the man
A. German. B. Arabic. C. French.
10. When does the French course end
A. In February. B. In March. C. In April.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Writer and reader. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student.
12. Who is retiring this year
A. The man. B. Mrs. Guppy. C. The woman’s husband.
13. What does the man want to write
A. Plays. B. Novels. C. Poems.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Where did Emily read the articles
A. In a newspaper. B. In a magazine. C. On the Internet.
15. What does the man think of the present situation
A. Renewable energy is not enough.
B. Wind and sun power are popular.
C. It takes ten years to stop climate change.
16. What are many countries building according to the woman
A. Wind farms. B. Electric cars. C. Power plants.
17. What are the speakers concerned about
A. Energy. B. Climate change. C. Technological development.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Where is the Guangzhou-Los Angeles Friendship Garden
A. In Los Angeles. B. In New York. C. In Guangzhou.
19. In which year did Guangzhou and Los Angeles become “sister cities”
A. 1979. B. 1981. C. 2021.
20. What is the main idea behind “sister cities”
A. To share goods and ideas.
B. To help fight climate change.
C. To support each other through difficult times.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Kids’ Fun Science Museum is a magical place where young minds can explore, learn, and have fun. It is designed especially for kids, offering a wide range of exciting activities that make science come alive. The activities aim to inspire (唤起) children’s curiosity about the world of science in a fun and easy-to-understand way. With colorful exhibits, hands-on experiments, and engaging shows, it’s a place that every kid would love to visit.
Activity Name Time Time length Place
“Little Fish” 5D Film 2:00 pm 30 minutes 5D Room
Star-watching Class 10:30 am 40 minutes Star Room
Water Experiment Show 9:00 am 25 minutes Science Room
Paper Toy Class 3:00 pm 45 minutes Craft Room
General Visitor Rules
●Kids’ Fun Science Museum is a smoke-free area. You can’t bring cigarettes (香烟) or e-cigarettes, even in outdoor areas.
●Pets are allowed inside.
●If you want to listen to music, please use headphones. Don’t let it bother others.
●All tickets are final. You can’t get a refund (退款) after buying.
●Refuse entry for ticket holders more than 15 minutes late for their exhibition entry time without refunds.
●If you want to change your activity time, you must do it at least 12 hours before the original time.
Ticket Prices
You can buy general admission tickets on-site or online. If you buy them online, you will get a 10% discount.
Age General Admission
Youth (3-17) $20
Adults (18+) $40
1. What is the aim of the activities in Kids’ Fun Science Museum
A. To develop children’s interest in science.
B. To connect with children through science.
C. To teach children how to do science experiments.
D. To help children get better grades in science class.
2. What is allowed in Kids’ Fun Science Museum
A. Entering 20 minutes late. B. Smoking in outdoor areas.
C. Bringing a dog. D. Refunding the ticket.
3. How much should a parent with a 15-year-old teenager pay if they buy the tickets online
A. $36. B. $54. C. $58. D. $60.
B
Last weekend, I took my 4-year-old grandson Oliver to the park. He had been pestering (纠缠) me to take him to the park to watch the ducks in the pond; I finally realized his wish. I went in thinking I’d be the teacher to teach him about the ducks, but that day, Oliver ended up teaching me more.
He had no goals. 4-year-olds don’t need goals. As soon as we stepped 50 feet into the park, Oliver looked up at the sky, where big soft clouds moved slowly. He stood still, smiling, and found real joy in watching them. I’d long forgotten clouds’ magic: My mind was filled with things to do, but watching their slow movement could be soothing and reduce my worries and nervousness. Next, Oliver focused on the big trees, laughing as their branches shook in the wind. When a small bird jumped on the grass, he ran after it, laughing as though it were the funniest thing in the world. In that moment, nothing else mattered to him.
His curiosity never disappeared, especially when it came to fallen leaves. He hunted for them, big and small, treating each one like a treasure. He only saw them as tools for play. No screens or toys were needed. Nearby, kids played with their parents, and dog walkers passed by. Oliver waved at everyone, holding out his hand for high fives with 4-and 5-year-olds, who smiled and said hi back. His mix of real words and kid talk didn’t stop him — he just wanted to connect, without judgment, or fear.
The biggest lesson hit me then: live in the moment. He never asked the time, when we’d leave, or what would be next. Whether he was running after sticks, petting a dog, or running across the grass, he was entirely in the moment. That hour with Oliver reminded me of the wonder we lose as adults, and of many things we can learn from a child’s simple, unplanned joy.
4 Why did the author take Oliver to the park
A. To clean the park. B. To feed the ducks.
C. To act as a teacher. D. To watch the ducks.
5. What does the underlined word “soothing” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Dangerous. B. Confusing. C. Comforting. D. Changeable.
6. What do we know about Oliver from paragraph 3
A. He was afraid of meeting people.
B. He had fun playing toys in the park.
C. He had a strong curiosity about fallen leaves.
D. He didn’t get along well with other children in the park.
7. What can we learn from the text
A. Knowledge is power. B. Now is all that counts.
C. Friendship comes from getting together. D. Nothing is more important than education.
C
The University of Wyoming (UW) has good news for its students.
On Friday, the university will open a new North Residence Hall, along with its state-of-the-art, two-storey Dining Center. The opening is part of “Saddle Up”, a one-week program that helps first-year students get ready for university life.
This big project costs $285.50 million, the largest in the university’s history. It also includes South Hall, which is still being built and will open in the next spring. These are the first new student dormitories (宿舍) at UW in 60 years. North Hall has 410 beds, and South Hall will have 542.
School leaders believe the new halls will give students a safe and friendly place to live and study. The buildings are designed to better improve UW’s freshman interest groups and living-learning communities, where students share classes and activities with their dormitory neighbors along with shared interests and majors.
The halls are five or six storeys tall. They have single rooms, double rooms, and semi-suites with private or shared bathrooms. Each room has its own heater and air conditioner that stop working if a window is open. The halls are in the middle of campus, close to the student union and the wellness center.
Many students are excited. “The new hall and Dining Center are great,” says junior student Tennyson Smith. “They will make campus life better for everyone.”
The Dining Center will have nine food stations and will serve not only students, but also teachers, and local people. Students can choose a five-day or seven-day meal plan. Others can pay $12.99 to eat as much as they want.
“After years of planning, designing and constructing (建设), these new housing and dining facilities (设施) are not just buildings — they offer a better way to live, learn and connect on campus,” says Eric Webb, a UW’s teacher.
8. Why did UW decide to build the new halls
A. To meet the city’s housing needs. B. To allow students to do exercise.
C. To attract international students. D. To improve students’ campus life.
9. What is paragraph 5 mainly about
A. Basic information about the halls. B. An introduction to the new campus.
C. The total cost of the dining center. D. School leaders’ views on teenage life.
10. What does Eric want to say about these facilities
A. They aim to explore a greener lifestyle. B. They will mainly work as food stations.
C. They will shape students’ college experience. D. They are designed by famous engineers.
11. Which can be a suitable title for the text
A. UW Welcomes Freshmen Warmly B. New Buildings to Open for UW Students
C. A One-week Program Is Free to All D. First-year Students Face New Challenges
D
A recent study suggests that eating cheese (奶酪) might have a good effect on health, especially when it comes to sleep. The study, published in the Sleep Medicine journal, explored the possible relationship between eating cheese and a reduced risk of sleep apnea, a condition where breathing stops and starts during sleep.
While past research has talked about the general health advantages of cheese, this study specifically looked at its possible connection to sleep apnea. The researchers noted that cheese contains important nutrients (营养物) like calcium, protein, and vitamins, which may support metabolic and heart health-two factors (因素) related to sleep apnea.
To conduct the study, the researchers analyzed data from two large health databases: the UK Biobank and the FinnGen. They studied health information from 400,000 people and found that those who ate cheese had a 28% lower risk of developing sleep apnea compared to those who did not eat cheese.
The study used a method called Mendelian randomization, which helps recognize cause-and-effect relationships between risk factors and health results. It also examined how eating cheese might influence 44 different biomarkers (生物标志物), such as blood pressure. The results showed that eating cheese affected 23 biomarkers, with six of them directly connected to a lower risk of sleep apnea.
While this connection is certainly exciting, Kael Merrick, a professor of Collegiate Mental & Physical Health Sciences, warned that the study only shows a relationship, not a cause-and-effect relationship, so we have a long way to go.
Dr. Kevin Shayani, who is from Lenox Hill Hospital at Northwell Health in New York City, said that cheese might reduce some bad factors connected to sleep apnea. However, he advised against eating plenty of cheese, as some cheeses are higher in fat than others. Some experts say that people with sleep apnea may feel tired when they wake up after a full night’s sleep. Treatment may include lifestyle changes, medicine, or even operations, depending on how serious the problem is. Always ask a doctor for advice if you have worries.
12 What did the new study aim to explore
A. Clear advantages of getting a deep sleep.
B. Different factors affecting the general health.
C. The rising risks of heart problems among the elderly.
D. The connection between eating cheese and a reduced risk of sleep apnea.
13. What does the author want to do in paragraph 4
A. Point out new research directions. B. Provide extra information connected to the study.
C. Present a practical solution. D. Introduce results of other findings.
14. What does Kael Merrick think of the study
A. It is unexpected. B. It makes no sense.
C. It is well-designed. D. It remains to be continued.
15. What does Dr. Kevin Shayani suggest people do
A. Eat cheese reasonably. B. Get enough sleep.
C. Keep a balanced lifestyle. D. Go to the doctor’s often.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Advantages of Learning Chinese Chess for Children
The chance to learn from their mistakes
Kids tend to give up if they lose too often and too quickly in Chinese chess. However, if they could go over their mistakes, they would see what they did wrong and how to make the right moves. ____16____. With the practice, they can avoid making the same mistakes next time.
The ability to bear pressure (压力)
One of the greatest advantages of Chinese chess to children is that it helps them to develop their ability to bear pressure. When the situation is tense (令人紧张的) on the chessboard, they need to focus and try their best. ____17____. They also know that they must take their chances, but that it will not always lead to success.
The will to win and succeed
____18____. The key goal is to allow them to play long enough so that they start winning. Playing Chinese chess helps children understand that if they want to get better and beat their challengers, they must put in effort. In short, they learn that success is not easy, although it is possible if they make the effort.
____19____
By playing Chinese chess, children understand that they cannot do this or that if it goes against the rules. If they break the rules, they must be responsible for the failure. Children also learn about the responsibility that comes with making a move. There are no takebacks in Chinese chess. ____20____.
A. They know that they can’t give up
B. The courage to deal with the failure
C. The way to teach rules and responsibility
D. Similarly, there is no second chance in life
E. As is known to us, children don’t like losing
F. This leads them to realize that winning often is a must
G. This is the reason why thinking carefully after the game is so important
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I think we should be kind to people around us because we’re all just trying to get through each day. Being polite and sharing a smile ____21____ nothing, right
Many years ago, I needed to ____22____ a heavy truck part from a company in another city. My company and this company were both recently bought by another company, but some jobs needed to be ____23____ thousands of miles away. The few workers left there were only ____24____ what’s left of a years-old business. You could see the ____25____ on our faces. No one felt good about it.
When arriving there, a young worker asked ____26____ about my name and purpose before signing me in and fetching a forklift (叉车). But the part was too long. “I’ll get long forks,” he said and left. Twenty minutes later, he came back, sorry for my long ____27____. “Everything is a mess with the ____28____— no one knew where the forks were,” he explained. When I ____29____ about all the misfortunes (不幸), he smiled and comforted me, saying, “We’re all doing great. Keep going.” His smile was so ____30____ that I couldn’t help but smile back.
When we waved goodbye, I realized that whether it was a kind word or just a smile, it could ____31____ a person’s day, even when life feels messy. Whenever I ____32____ difficulties, I always think of that young worker. Even in ____33____ moments, there is always a spark (火花) of hope, Perhaps, by ____34____ kindness, we can become sparks for others and ____35____ each other through life’s ups and downs.
21. A. cost B. solve C. mean D. prove
22. A. design B. collect C. produce D. fix
23. A. tested B. compared C. chosen D. finished
24. A. showing off B. burning down C. turning to D. cleaning up
25. A. pride B. confidence C. sadness D. shame
26. A. actually B. politely C. secretly D. doubtfully
27. A. distance B. conversation C. check D. waiting
28. A. shutdown B. comeback C. setup D. takeoff
29. A. dreamed B. complained C. heard D. brought
30 A. meaningful B. annoying C. nice D. disappointing
31. A. change B. explain C. explore D. guess
32. A. meet B. discuss C. wonder D. discover
33. A. moving B. hidden C. fantastic D. challenging
34. A. getting B. observing C. spreading D. promising
35. A. teach B. help C. follow D. praise
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In June 1933, writer Ba Jin ____36____ (visit) a banyan tree over 380 years in Guangdong and later wrote about it in his short article. Several years later, the same natural scene deeply touched Zhu Danian, who showed art and nature of the perfect fit.
Zhu Danian is ____37____ famous artist in China. He is good at using mineral colors and the gongbi method of classic Chinese painting ____38____ (create) the works. His ceramic painting Ode to the Forest, a 20-meter-long piece shown to the public in 1979, ____39____ (true) shows the banyan’s thick and green leaves and white herons (鹭) flying among branches.
Nature was the center of Zhu’s creation. He spent hours, even days, ____40____ (draw) pictures to catch every lively detail of nature — from twisted and turned banyan roots to hot-area rainforest scenes in Yunnan. Today, a print of Ode to the Forest covers the entire wall of the ground-floor exhibition hall in the Tsinghua University Art Museum in Beijing. It is a major ____41____ (attract) at “Attuning to Life, Ode to the Forest”, an ongoing exhibition until Nov. 20 at the museum. The print of Ode to the Forest is 10 meters tall ____42____ 30 meters long, making it much ____43____ (large) than the original painting. Also on show are dozens of sketches (素描) of the outdoors and paintings of Zhu. Through these works, Zhu expressed respect ____44____ nature and tried to get harmony (和谐) among ____45____ (human), all living things, and the world.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华，刚进入高中，一些同学对高中生活不太适应。为此，你校上周五举办了校园分享会（Campus Sharing Session），邀请了一些老师和学生分享他们的建议和经验。请给你的外国朋友Chris写一封邮件，介绍此次活动，内容包括：
(1)活动目的；
(2)活动内容及意义。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Ryan never questioned his own abilities. He was known as the “idea machine” in the school because he could solve any problem with a clever solution. Teachers and classmates praised his creativity. To Ryan, success was natural, and teamwork seemed unnecessary.
The school would hold an innovation (创新) contest. The theme was “Technology for a Better Tomorrow”. His team cheered when they heard they had been chosen to represent (代表) the school. But Ryan was different. He told himself, “This is my stage.”
From the very beginning, Ryan took full control. He made plans, chose the technology, and even designed the presentation slides (幻灯片). His teammates became his assistants (助手)-Daniel bringing materials, Emma typing notes, and they following Ryan’s instructions. Whenever one of them, especially Emma, suggested a new idea, Ryan turned it down. “I know what works,” he would say. In his mind, they only slowed him down.
After weeks of work, a smart recycling robot was built exactly as Ryan had planned. He was proud of its design and certain it would impress the judges.
On the day of the contest, the team carried their project onto the stage. Other schools showed apps and energy-saving machines, each team member speaking with confidence and sharing roles equally. Ryan’s team, however, just stood behind him as he introduced the robot.
At first, the speech went very well. The robot moved across the platform, picking up a plastic bottle and dropping it into the right box. Ryan smiled proudly. But then the judges began to ask questions. “How does the robot know different kinds of bottles ” one asked. Another judge asked about future improvements. Ryan couldn’t give an answer. He turned to his teammates for help, but they stood silently, unprepared.
The judges exchanged their opinions. When the results were told, Ryan’s team was not among the winners. Ryan couldn’t accept the failure.
After the contest, Ryan sat alone on the steps of the stage, his shoulders heavy and his head down. He couldn’t stop thinking about the contest.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Just then, Emma walked over to Ryan.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
After the conversation, Ryan decided to change.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025—2026年度上学期河南省高一年级第一次联考
英语
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1 What would the man like extra for breakfast today
A. A cup of coffee. B. A sandwich. C. A salad.
2. What do the speakers mainly talk about
A. The height. B. The family. C. The weight.
3. What will the man probably do next
A. Finish his schoolwork. B. Borrow a bike from his father. C. Get his mother’s car repaired.
4. How did the speakers promise to help Mrs. Yang out
A. By fixing her chair. B. By working in her garden. C. By bringing her some food.
5. Which season is it now
A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Winter.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man
A. He broke his pocket. B. He lost his keys. C. He was late for work.
7. What will the speakers do first
A. Call their friends.
B. Walk back to their friends’ house.
C. Have someone come to open the door.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why does the woman talk to the man
A. To ask for some information. B. To make an invitation. C. To discuss a problem.
9 Which language is the most difficult according to the man
A. German. B. Arabic. C. French.
10. When does the French course end
A. In February. B. In March. C. In April.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Writer and reader. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student.
12. Who is retiring this year
A. The man. B. Mrs. Guppy. C. The woman’s husband.
13. What does the man want to write
A. Plays. B. Novels. C. Poems.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Where did Emily read the articles
A. In a newspaper. B. In a magazine. C. On the Internet.
15. What does the man think of the present situation
A. Renewable energy is not enough.
B. Wind and sun power are popular.
C. It takes ten years to stop climate change.
16. What are many countries building according to the woman
A. Wind farms. B. Electric cars. C. Power plants.
17. What are the speakers concerned about
A. Energy. B. Climate change. C. Technological development.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Where is the Guangzhou-Los Angeles Friendship Garden
A. In Los Angeles. B. In New York. C. In Guangzhou.
19. In which year did Guangzhou and Los Angeles become “sister cities”
A. 1979. B. 1981. C. 2021.
20. What is the main idea behind “sister cities”
A. To share goods and ideas.
B. To help fight climate change.
C. To support each other through difficult times.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. A 10. C 11. B
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. A 18. E 19. C 20. D
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. visited
37. a 38. to create
39. truly 40. drawing
41. attraction
42. and 43. larger
44. for 45. humans
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】参考范文：
Dear Chris,
How are you doing I’m writing to tell you about the Campus Sharing Session our school held last Friday.
Since some of us were feeling stressed and confused about high school life, the session aimed to help us adapt to high school life faster. The teachers gave us tips on time management and how to handle the homework, while some seniors talked about their own experiences of balancing studies and hobbies.
It was really meaningful. It not only eased our worries but also showed us practical ways to fit in. I feel much more confident about my senior high life now!
Looking forward to your early reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】参考范文：
Just then, Emma walked over to Ryan. Ryan, who didn’t want anyone to see his tears, wiped them quickly and turned his face away to avoid Emma’s eyes. But Emma didn’t leave. Instead, her voice was soft, “Ryan, you don’t have to carry everything by yourself. We could have answered those questions together if we had prepared as a real team,” she said. Her words cut through the silence like a light in the dark. Ryan realized how serious a mistake he had made.
After the conversation, Ryan decided to change. At the next practice, Ryan asked everyone to share their ideas and listened closely, even when they disagreed. The room was full of energy: Emma worked on the blueprint, Daniel improved the design, and Ryan tested the machine. Months later, when they returned with a new project, each teammate spoke with confidence. Although the prize was important, what mattered more was their teamwork. Ryan realized that true innovation did not belong to one person, but to many hearts working together.

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