资源简介

高三英语学科月考 试题答案2025.11.1
第一部分：听力 (共两节，满分 30 分)
1-5 BCABC 6-10 ACBAB 11-15 BACBA 16-20 CABCA
第二部分：阅读 (共两节，满分 50 分)
(共 15 个小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分)
21-23 CDA 24-27 CBBA 28-31 DBDC 32-35 BCAD
第二节 (共 5 个小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分)
36-40 ADCEG
第三部分：语言运用 (共两节，满分 30 分)
(共 15 个小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
41-45 BCDAB 46-50 BDACB 51-55 BACDA
第二节 (共 10 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分)
56. brings 57. wisdom 58. dug 59. delivering 60. how 61. actively 62. with
63. ecological 64. to support 65. the
第一节：应用文（满分15分）
AI and Our Study
As a high school student, I have noticed that AI is increasingly being used in our study. Many online learning platforms now incorporate AI to provide personalized study plans and real-time feedback.
In my opinion, the use of AI in study has both advantages and challenges. On one hand, it can adapt to our individual learning styles and paces, making learning more efficient. It can also offer immediate help and explanations when we encounter difficulties. However, there are also concerns. For example, over-reliance on AI might reduce our ability to think independently.
To make the best of AI in our study, we should use it as a tool to assist us, but not rely on it completely. We still need to develop our own critical thinking and problem-solving skills. I believe that with the right approach, AI can greatly enhance our learning experience and help us achieve better academic results.
第二节：读后续写 (满分 25 分)
One possible version:
My blood turned to ice. My heart pounded violently when I realized I was holding a stranger's hand. I looked up at the man—he had kind eyes and a gentle smile. "Are you lost " he asked, crouching down to my height. I nodded, fighting back tears. Without hesitation, he asked a nearby guard for help, describing my parents and keeping me calm. Though he was a stranger, his patience and warmth made the terrifying moment feel a little safer. Then I heard Dad's voice calling my name.
There he was, just three people away. He came rushing toward me through the crowd, his face pale with worry. The second he saw me, his shoulders relaxed, and he pulled me into a tight hug. He thanked the kind stranger again and again, his voice shaking. As we walked away, I glanced back at the man, already lost in the crowd. That day, I learned something—Beijing's beauty wasn't just in its golden rooftops or ancient walls, but in people like him, who stopped to help a scared little child.
答案详解
A篇
21. C 考察细节理解。文中第一段提到 “walking 7,000 steps daily can significantly enhance brain function and lower the risk of major diseases”，说明每天走 7000 步可以显著降低疾病风险。故选择 C。
22. D 考察推理判断。文中 “Health Expert Opinions” 部分多位专家强调的 “realistic and regular”“consistency matters most” 以及 “routine daily activities... in the long run” 都指向可持续的健康习惯。故选择 D。
23. A 考察细节理解。文中 “Practical Advice” 部分第一条明确建议 “Make it social: Walk with friends/family to stay motivated and enjoy quality time.”，指出与朋友 / 家人同行能增加动力和乐趣。故选择 A。
B篇
24. C 考察写作方法。文中第一段提到 “the ancient Hawaiian concept of mālama (to care for) which encourages...”，通过解释定义的方式来引入主题。故选择 C。
25. B 考察细节理解。文中第三段提到 “on Maui, you can help restore native forests”，说明志愿者可以参与恢复当地森林的活动。故选择 B。
26. B 考察细节理解。文中第五段提到 “Greg Solatario, whose family has taken care of this land for generations”，说明他的家族长期保护这片土地。故选择 B。
27. A 考察主旨大意。全文围绕 “mālama” 一词展开，强调游客通过参与环保活动使旅行更有意义，还能改善当地环境，这符合 A 项 “The wise improve what they enjoy (智者改善他们所享受的)” 所表述的哲理。故选择 A。
C篇
28.D 细节理解题。解析:根据第一段的内容可知,新研究发现有阅读障碍和无阅读障碍儿童的发展轨迹在18个月左右开始出现差异。根据第二段的内容可知,人们当前都是要等到二、三年级才发现有阅读障碍的孩子。由此可知,阅读障碍出现的时间比人们之前认为的要早得多。
29.B 词义猜测题。解析:根据第一段最后一句话及第二段的“the younger a brain is...it is for language input”可知,年龄越小,大脑对语言输入的可塑性越强,即更容易受语言输入的影响和改变。plastic在此处表示“易受影响或改变的”。
30.D 段落大意题。解析:第三段讲述了Gaab和她的合著者研究了130名参与者(最小的3个月大),在十多年的时间里使用MRI扫描追踪从婴儿期到童年期的大脑发育情况及其与读写能力之间的关系,此处还提到了样本的来源。这些内容都涉及研究的过程。
31.C 推理判断题。解析:倒数第二段中,Turesky提到其他研究样本量更大但更关注典型成熟过程,而他们的研究是唯一从婴儿期开始追踪大脑发育并得出综合读写能力结果的纵向研究,且没有其他研究像他们这样从婴儿期开始、对同一批孩子追踪这么久并包含学业成果测量。这说明他们采用的纵向研究方法具有开创性。
D篇
32.B 考查知识点:细节理解。解析:题目询问AI预测地震事件的方式。根据第二段最后一句:“Once trained,the AI offered predictions by detecting early indicators of quakes hidden within the planet’s low- frequency rumbles.” 可知,AI通过分析地球内部的低频隆隆声(即背景声音)来预测地震。选项B与此完全相符。选项A(卫星数据)、C(基于地震记录建模)和D(监测地球磁场变化)均未在文中提及。
33.C 考查知识点:段落主旨理解。解析:第三段中,Alexandros Savvaidis首先指出地震通常毫无预警地发生,强调 preparedness(准备)的重要性,随后提到“Achieving a 70% prediction rate is a considerable achievement...”,并说明这一成果对减少经济损失和人员伤亡、改善全球地震准备的潜在影响。因此,本段旨在强调开发AI地震预测技术的重要意义,选项C正确。选项A(减少地震损失的方法)和B(地震准备的重要性)虽被提及,但均是为了说明AI预测技术的价值;选项D(AI预测方法的局限性)与本段内容不符。
34.A 考查知识点:细节理解与推理。解析:第四段提到,尽管这种AI模型在其他地区的有效性尚不确定,但研究人员认为它在具备可靠地震监测设施的地区有望提高预测准确性,并计划下一步在德克萨斯州进行测试。最后一段还提到,未来希望将系统与物理模型结合,尤其在数据有限的地区具有价值。因此,后续研究的重点是在不同地区进行测试,选项A正确。选项B(应用于其他领域)、C(在德州建更多地震站)和D(扩大数据库提高精度)均未在文中明确提及。
35.D 考查知识点:观点态度判断。解析:全文通过介绍AI模型70%的准确率、对减灾的潜在贡献以及未来研究计划,强调了该技术的突破性(substantial breakthrough)和前景(potential to enhance prediction accuracy)。最后一段引用负责人的话“many advances such as this one... are what moves science forward”进一步表明该技术具有开创性和希望。选项A(稳定但过时)、B(有效但昂贵)和C(潜在且经济)均与文章描述不符。
七选五
36. “But why...” 作为设问句自然过渡，引出下文的科学解释。故选择 A。
37.D 考查上下文衔接。前文提到怀旧 “让人感觉良好” 的表层现象，后文引用心理学家观点揭示怀旧的深层机制。D 项 “However, psychology experts say...” 形成转折递进，表明怀旧不仅是简单的情感愉悦，更有其心理学意义，与后文的专业分析直接衔接。故选择 D。
38.C 考查上下文衔接。该空后使用 “First... Second...” 结构列举怀旧的两大心理功能（提供掌控感、强化社交纽带）。C 项中的 “psychological needs” 准确概括这两个方面，且 “also” 表明这是对前文情感功能的补充。故选择 C。
39.E 考查上下文衔接。后文 “youthful optimism” 与 E 项中的 “feel younger and more optimistic” 形成词义复现。故选择 E。
40.G 考查上下文衔接。前文讨论怀旧可能的危害后，G 项 “Still, in general...” 以转折语气进行总结，既承认潜在问题又强调其总体积极性，与后文 “It helps us reconnet... who we really are.” 形成完美呼应。故选择 G。
完形填空
41.B 考察动词。这里是指老师 “意识到（Sensing）” 学生的好奇心。故选择 B。
42.C 考察动词。老师选择通过体验而非单纯 “解释（explain）” 来教学。故选择 C。
43.D 考察名词。后文提到 “forest's edge（森林边缘）”，故选择 D。
44.A 考察动词。学生紧张地问 “我们甚至要从中‘活下来（survive）’吗？”，这里的问题从为什么去，到是否有野生动物，再到是否能生存，情感逐步递进，体现孩子们对未知的恐惧。故选择 A。
45.B 考察形容词。老师保持 “沉默（silent）” 与后文 “I said nothing” 直接呼应。故选择 B。
46.B 考察名词。从上下文可知，学生不知道要去哪里，心里充满各种 “猜测（guesses）”。故选择 B。
47.D 考察形容词。前文提到学生们 “思绪纷飞（minds racing with guesses）”，表明他们正处于一种过度脑补的心理状态，因此此处狮子和蛇是学生 “想象的（imaginary）” 而非真实存在的。故选择 D。
48.A 考察动词。随着前行，焦虑 “加剧了（grew）”。故选择 A。微信公众号朝文道 CwD
49.C 考察动词短语。老师 “转向（Turning to）” 学生并微笑，这里的 “转向” 包含身体转向和注意力转移的双重含义，最贴合老师停下脚步面对学生的场景。故选择 C。
50.B 考察名词。学生沉浸在 “恐惧（fear）” 中，忽略了当下。故选择 B。
51.B 考察动词。这里是指因过度关注想象中的危险而 “错过（missed）” 现实中鸟鸣等的美好事物。故选择 B。
52.A 考察名词。与 “鸟鸣”“阳光” 并列的是周围的 “美好（beauty）”。故选择 A。
53.C 考察动词。从上下文可知，我们会因为过于担忧未来而 “忘记（forget）” 活在当下。故选择 C。
54.D 考察名词。这里用 “旅程（journey）” 既能呼应文中师生的行动，又隐喻人生历程。故选择 D。
55.A 考察名词。这里点明全文主旨是专注 “当下（present）”，塑造未来。故选择 A。
语法填空
56.brings 考察动词时态。主语是 “This smart network”，为单数名词，且讲述客观事实用一般现在时。故填 brings。
57.wisdom 考察词性转换。形容词性物主代词 “Chinese farmers’” 后需接名词。故填 wisdom。
58. dug 考察非谓语动词。动词 dig 与 wells 构成被动关系，用过去分词作后置定语。故填 dug。
59. delivering 考察非谓语动词。动词 deliver 与 canals 构成主动关系，用现在分词作后置定语。故填 delivering。
60. how 考察宾语从句。引导词在从句中作方式状语。故填 how。
61. actively 考察词性转换。现在分词 “supporting” 需用副词修饰。故填 actively。
62. with 考察介词。in harmony with 为固定短语，表示 “与…… 和谐相处”。故填 with。
63. ecological 考察词性转换。修饰名词 “importance” 需用形容词。故填 ecological。
64. to support 考察非谓语动词。be designed to do 表示 “被设计用来做某事”，用不定式表目的。故填 to support。
65. the 考察冠词。stand the test of time 表示 “经受时间的考验”，故填 the。
听力原文
(Text 1)
W: I started working here as a factory worker as I left school, but now it is closing down.
M: Did you say that your mom worked here too
W: Yes, right up to her retirement. The factory has been part of my whole life.
(Text 2)
M: I was looking at John's school report from last year. His math has improved so much and his attitude is great.
W: That's wonderful. He really wanted to make you proud.
M: Yes, I'll take him to see a movie as a reward.
(Tezt 3)
W: I love watching that baking show where some singers are required to bake various desserts.
M: Me too. During the first week, I thought that they would never learn to bake, but by the end I'd want to eat what they have cooked.
W: Me too!
(Text 4)
M: I'm not sure what to do. I've signed up for a night school course in creative writing, but because of the demands of childcare, I'll always be a few minutes late.
W: Well, don't worry. I'm sure if you speak to the teachers, they will understand.
(Text 5)
W: I have been watching Wimbledon Championships on TV. The tennis players serve the ball so well. I wish I could do that, but I never learned when I was younger.
M: It's never too late to learn something new. I've just started swimming lessons.
(Text 6)
M: Hi, here's your package.
W: I can't wait to open it.
M: Can you sign for the package first, please
W: Sure. Oh, it's a soup maker. I can't wait to try it.
M: Great! I love soup. Carrot soup, chicken soup... I love all flavors.
W: I like the mushroom one. T have a brilliant recipe that my grandma gave me.
M: Sounds delicious! I haven't had soup in a while.
(Text 7)
M: When I talk to my friends back at home in France, they don't realize that we study in English.
W: That's the same with me. I told my friends I had French, German, Chinese, and Thai friends. They asked how anyone understands one another.
M: I know, right! They also think that we study mainly in Vietnamese, because that's the native language of the country where we are living.
W: True. And yet, hardly any of the students are from Vietnam. Anyway, I do love learning about local culture and customs.
M: Me too. I also find it interesting when things are different. There are so many motorcycles here.
W: Yes. The food here is amazing, too. I love eating the noodles.
M: It is making my mouth water just thinking about them.
W: Anyway, we'd better head to the science lab. I don't want to be late.
(Text 8)
M: I'm going to spend Christmas Day this year at the homeless shelter making lunches.
W: That's wonderful! How kind of you!
M: It is important that everyone can enjoy a hot meal at Christmas time. The only problem is raising the funds to buy all the food.
W: 1 understand that. How was the problem dealt with in the past
M: Last year, all the children in the local schools did a spelling competition to raise funds.
W: That's cool.
M: And the year before, people had a yard sale. But this year we're not sure.
W: Have you thought about a bake sale or a coffee morning
M: That could work.
W: It is great what you are doing. If I didn't have small children, I would help too.
(Text 9)
M: Hi, Miss Donaldson. I'm Fred. I am so excited to meet you.
W: Well, that's nice to hear. Let me sign your books for you. Have you traveled far
M: Not really. I live in the next town, so we had to get the 9:00 am bus, to be sure that we would make it to the library on time. It was a 20-minute bus journey and then a 10-minute walk.
W: That's good. What did you do during the bus journey
M: I read your book, of course. The latest in the series is amazing.
W: Well, it's lovely that you enjoyed it. Shall we pose for a photo, Fred
M: Yes, please.
W: Seeing young enthusiastic readers like you makes all the long lonely hours worthwhile.
M: Oh, this has been the best day of my life.
W: Ha-ha! I think I'll include a character like you in my next story.
M: Wow! That's amazing!
W: Well, Fred, keep an eye out for my next story. There may be a young boy, with a big smile and a kind heart, full of energy like you, in it.
M: Thank you.
(Text 10)
M: Attention, students! This is your head teacher speaking with an important announcement. The stormy skies have decided to show their anger and the wind is racing around, eager to make things difficult. Because of this wild weather, our school is closing early today. Remember this isn't a holiday where you disappear into the sunset or rain! Standards must not drop.
At exactly 1:00 pm, all students are to gather in the school hall, where our day will come to an early end.
Year 7 students will leave first at 1:15 pm. And then Year 8 students will leave 15 minutes later. The rest of the year groups will follow one by one. The order will be Year 7, Year 8, Year 9 and so on. Year 13 will leave last at 2:45 pm.
Please remember, even though the school may take a break tomorrow to recover, you'll need to check your accounts for updates. The clouds may make up their minds by morning, and we must be ready to respect them and respond. If you are not back in class, then your teachers will be on the screen to guide you through the day.泉州一中2026届高三英语月考（2025.11.01）
（考试时间120分钟，试卷总分150分）
注意事项
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A worker. B. A factory. C. A school.
2. What does the man mean
A. Reward the woman. B. Write a school report. C. Watch a film with John.
3. What does the man mean
A. The singers’ cooking skills are improved.
B. The baking show isn’t worth watching.
C. The desserts are very easy to make.
4. What does the woman suggest the man do
A. Sign up for a course. B. Talk to the teachers. C. Pick up kids on time.
5. What has the man begun to do
A. Fix a TV. B. Play tennis. C. Have swimming lessons.
第二节 (共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is in the package
A. A kitchen device. B. Some vegetables. C. A cookbook.
7. What kind of soup does the woman like
A. Carrot soup. B. Chicken soup. C. Mushroom soup.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Where does the man come from
A. Vietnam. B. France. C. China.
9. What does the woman say about the food
A. Delicious. B. Unappealing. C. Common.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Employer and employee.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. What is the man worried about
A. When to buy food. B. How to raise funds. C. Whether to prepare a meal.
12. What did the children in the local schools do for the man’s problem last year
A. They held a spelling competition.
B. They organized a sale in the yard.
C. They sold morning coffee.
13. How does the woman feel about what the man is doing
A. Strange. B. Crazy. C. Nice.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 14 至 17 题。
14. What is the woman
A. A photographer. B. A writer. C. A driver.
15. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a library. B. On a bus. C. At the station.
16. What does the woman invite Fred to do
A. Travel with books. B. Read the series. C. Take a picture.
17. What is Fred like according to the woman
A. Enthusiastic. B. Honest. C. Ambitious.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. Why is the school closing early
A. There will be a meeting. B. The weather is horrible. C. The hall will be occupied.
19. When will Year 13 leave school
A. At 1:15 p.m.. B. At 1:30p.m.. C. At 2:45 p.m..
20. What are the students required to do tomorrow
A. Pay attention to the latest updates.
B. Show respect for their teachers.
C. Take a break at home.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A groundbreaking study published in The Lancet Public Health reveals that walking 7,000 steps daily can significantly enhance brain function and lower the risk of major diseases, challenging the widely accepted but unscientific 10,000-step standard.
Key Findings:
After analyzing data from more than 160,000 adults globally, researchers discovered that compared to just 2,000 steps per day, achieving 7,000 steps leads to:
25% lower risk of heart disease
6% reduced chance of cancer
38% decreased dementia risk
22% lower likelihood of depression
Lead researcher Dr. Melody Ding clarifies that the 10,000-step target traces back to a 1960s Japanese pedometer marketing strategy rather than medical evidence.
Health Expert Opinions:
Dr. Daniel Bailey (Brunel University London) recommends 7,000 steps as a "realistic and regular" daily goal, rather than occasional intense efforts.
Dr. Andrew Scott (University of Portsmouth) advises that while "more movement is better", consistency matters most.
Prof. Azeem Majeed (Imperial College London) highlights that routine daily activities like gardening or cleaning also contribute meaningfully in the long run.
Practical Advice:
Make it social: Walk with friends/family to stay motivated and enjoy quality time.
Start small: Even 4,000 daily steps show measurable health improvements over inactivity.
Focus on feeling good: Regular walker Jon Stride emphasizes that mental well-being benefits outweigh strict step counts.
While official guidelines recommend 150 weekly exercise minutes, this study shows regular 7,000-step walking provides major health benefits. The key is consistent movement—whether through walking, daily tasks, or other activities—without overemphasizing perfect numbers. Small, sustainable efforts make the real difference.
21.How many steps per day can significantly lower disease risks according to the study
A. 2,000 steps. B. 4,000 steps. C. 7,000 steps. D. 10,000 steps.
22.What do health experts emphasize in walking advice
A. Impressive records. B. Official guidance.
C. Intensive movement. D. Sustainable habits.
23.What is recommended to make walking more enjoyable
A. Sharing walks with friends. B. Starting with small goals.
C. Focusing on step counts. D. Setting MUST-DO daily tasks.
B
My husband, children and I were in Hawaii. Here, we were introduced to the ancient Hawaiian concept of malama (to care for) which encourages visitors to give back to the environment and local communities through activities like habitat restoration, beach cleanups or food provision. But malama goes beyond eco-tourism - it's about leaving a place better than you found it.
And after seeking out these experiences during a three-week stay, we found malama not only improves Hawaii, but it also made our time there much more meaningful.
Malama volunteer experiences are found across the islands. For example, on Maui, you can help restore native forests and volunteer at a nursery; while on O'ahu, visitors can clear invasive algae from Maunalua Bay. In some cases, travelers booking with partnering hotels and participating in designated activities will qualify for a discounted—or even free- night at dozens of hotels and resorts.
"Malama today is more vital than ever," our guide Rogers said. "Too many tourists walk carelessly on our land, ignoring restrictions and damaging sensitive ecosystems... Don't just think Hawaii is beautiful; help keep it that way. It's a shared responsibility." As Rogers explained, malama isn't just about seeing or appreciating a landscape; it invites visitors to connect and contribute to it, with the idea that caring for a place fosters a stronger relationship with it.
After eight days, we ventured to Molokai, Hawaii's least developed island. No resorts or chain stores spoiled its wild beauty—just dramatic cliffs meeting rough seas. Deep in the eastern wilderness, we met Greg Solatario, whose family has taken care of this land for generations. His simple off-grid life perfectly embodied malama. Greg welcomed us warmly before leading us through jungle-covered ruins of ancestral villages. As we approached, his son Devak blew a conch shell—a traditional request to enter. "The land remembers," Greg explained, showing us medicinal plants and ancient fishing spots. His parting words stayed with me: "Malama shouldn't be just Hawaiian—the whole world needs this way of caring."
24.How does the author present the topic in the first paragraph
A. By quoting an expert. B. By giving examples.
C. By explaining a concept. D. By providing statistics.
25.What can Malama volunteers experience in Hawaii
A. Developing Maunalua Bay. B. Reviving local forests.
C. Asking for hotel discounts. D. Organizing big activities.
26.What do we know about Greg Solatario's family
A. They built new resorts in the wild. B. They have long protected the land.
C. They offered guided tours to locals. D. They fixed up the old village ruins.
27.Which of the following best describes the author's trip in Hawaii
A. The wise improve what they enjoy. B. Where there is a will, there is a way.
C. God helps those who help themselves. D. When in Rome, do as the Romans do.
C
Experts have long known that reading skills develop before kindergarten,but new research from the Harvard Graduate School of Education suggests they may begin as early as infancy(幼儿期).The study,led by Nadine Gaab,found that developmental trajectories(轨迹) between children with and without reading disabilities start to differ around 18 months of age.It stresses the need for early identification,early intervention,and improved early literacy courses in preschools.
Gaab explained some children enter kindergarten with a less-developed brain for learning to read,and that these differences appear in toddlerhood.“We're currently waiting until second or third grade to find kids who are struggling readers,"she said.“We should intervene way earlier because we know the younger a brain is,the more plastic it is for language input."
Gaab and her co-authors worked with 130 participants,starting as early as 3 months old.For over a decade,they used MRI scans to track brain development from infancy to childhood and its relation to literacy skills.Their sample included children from Boston and Canada,combined with data from the Calgary Preschool MRI Dataset.
While other studies track brain development,this is the only longitudinal(纵向的)study that follows brain development from infancy with comprehensive literacy outcomes.“Those other studies had bigger sample sizes,but they were more focused on typical maturation,"said co-author Ted Turesky.“We didn't see other studies that started in infancy,tracked brain maturation in the same set of kids for as long,and included academic outcome measures."
The findings suggest that children who struggle with reading may begin school already showing brain differences that affect literacy learning.Gaab emphasized that understanding when and how these differences arise could help improve early screening and support.She believes such basic research can inform education policy and help more children succeed in reading from the start.
28.What does the new study find about reading disabilities
A.They emerge after kindergarten. B.They change a person's character.
C.They are tough to identify early. D.They appear much earlier than assumed.
29.What does the underlined word “plastic” in paragraph 2 mean
A.Difficult to damage. B.Easily influenced or changed.
C.Capable of remembering things quickly. D.Especially suitable for acquiring new skills.
30.What about the study does paragraph 3 focus on
A.Its scientific bases. B.Its technology limitations.
C.Its significance. D.Its process.
31.What can be inferred from Turesky's words
A.Large sample sizes guarantee reliable findings.
B.The findings may help shape courses in preschools.
C.The longitudinal research method adopted is pioneering.
D.Typical maturation should be involved in following studies.
D
Advances in artificial intelligence (AI) are indicating that accurate quake forecasting may be attainable, thereby casting doubt on the conventional wisdom that such an accomplishment is beyond our capabilities.Researchers at the University of Texas, Austin, created an AI model that, during a test run in China, correctly forecasted approximately 70 percent of earthquakes with a one-week warning and offered reliable assessments of their potential intensity.
The researchers attribute their technique’s effectiveness to its reliance on a straightforward machine leaning framework.The AI was provided with a set of statistical features based on the team’s knowledge of earthquake physics, and then instructed to train itself using a five-year database of earthquake recordings.Once trained, the AI offered predictions by detecting early indicators of quakes hidden within the planet’s low-frequency rumbles (隆隆声).
The project marks a substantial breakthrough in the exploration of AI for anticipating seismic (地震) events.According to Alexandros Savvaidis,a senior researcher heading the Texas Seismological Network,"Seismic occurrences strike without warning, often in the blink of an eye.Your readiness is all you can influence.Achieving a 70% prediction rate is a considerable achievement that could significantly restrict the impact of earthquakes, reducing both the financial burden and loss of life, and the potential to remarkably improve earthquake preparation worldwide."
Although the effectiveness of this method in different regions remains uncertain, the researchers believe that their AI model has the potential to enhance prediction accuracy when carried out in regions equipped with dependable seismic monitoring facilities.Their next step is to test artificial intelligence in Texas,where the University of Texas’s TexNet operates a network of 300 earthquake stations and over six years’ worth of continuous records, making it an ideal location for these purposes.
Ultimately, the authors aim to combine the system with physics-based models.This approach could be particularly valuable in areas characterized by limited or inadequate data."That may be a long way off, but many advances such as this one, taken together, are what moves science forward,"concludes Scott Tinker, the bureau’s director.
32.How does the AI predict seismic events
A.It identifies data from the satellites.
B.It analyzes background sounds in the Earth.
C.It models data based on earthquake recordings.
D.It monitors changes in the Earth’s magnetic field.
33.What does Alexandros Savvaidis intend to show in paragraph 3
A.The ways to reduce losses in earthquakes.
B.The importance of preparing for earthquakes.
C.The significance of developing the AI prediction.
D.The restrictions of AI-based methods in earthquake prediction.
34.What does the subsequent research focus on
A.Conducting tests in different locations.
B.Applying the AI approach to other fields.
C.Building more earthquake stations in Texas.
D.Enlarging the database to train the calculation accuracy.
35.Which words can best describe the earthquake-predicting technology
A.Stable but outdated. B.Effective but costly.
C.Potential and economical. D.Pioneering and promising.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Nostalgia—the warm feeling of longing for the past is everywhere in today's culture. Movies like Barbie, Indiana Jones, and Top Gun are drawing huge crowds by bringing back old favorites. 36
On the surface, nostalgia simply makes us feel good. 37 According to Professor Ziyan Yang from the Institute of Psychology, CAS, nostalgia creates feelings of warmth, belonging, and even a mental escape to the past. During tough times—whether personal struggles or global crises—nostalgia acts like an emotional safety net. Movies and music are powerful triggers because they recreate familiar emotions and experiences.
38 First, it gives us a sense of control. Even when life feels unpredictable, reflecting on our past helps us feel more grounded and secure. Second, nostalgia strengthens social bonds. Though it seems like a personal experience, nostalgic memories often remind us of family, friends, and shared moments.
What does nostalgia do to our brains Mostly good things! Studies show it boosts happiness, creativity, and energy by activating positive emotions. 39 This youthful optimism encourages us to take risks and chase our goals. Some researchers suggest nostalgia acts like a "psychological immune system", helping us cope with stress.
But can too much nostalgia be harmful In small amounts, it's healthy. However, if we think about the past too much, it can keep us from moving forward. The key is balance—enjoying memories without losing sight of the present. 40 It helps us reconnect with our true selves and remember who we really are.
In short, nostalgia isn't just about reliving the past; it's a tool that helps us navigate the present and future with hope.
A. But why do we love nostalgia so much
B. This is why reunions feel so meaningful to us.
C. Nostalgia also serves key psychological needs.
D. However, psychology experts say there's more to it.
E. It can even make us feel younger and more optimistic.
F. Remembering happy memories brings comfort and joy.
G. Still, in general, nostalgia is a natural and positive part of life.
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节, 满分30分)
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One afternoon, as I was diving into life's deeper questions with my students, a thoughtful boy named Jack raised his hand. "Why do so many people feel lost " he asked. 41 their curiosity, I decided to show them the ropes through experience rather than simply 42 . "Follow me," I said, leading them toward the nearby 43 .
Whispers filled the air. "Why are we going there " Emma murmured. "Are there wild animals " Liam added nervously. "Are we even going to 44 this " A voice trembled from the back. I stayed 45 , walking calmly ahead. The students trailed behind me, their minds racing with 46 . Some panicked over 47 lions; others pictured snakes. With every step, their anxiety 48 , yet I said nothing.
After forty minutes, we stopped at the forest's edge. 49 them, I smiled. "Don't worry—we won't be entering. But tell me, what did you notice on our way here " The students fell silent. "You were so caught up in 50 of the unknown," I continued, "that you 51 the birds singing; tthe sunlight filtering through the leaves and the 52 round you."
Jack's eyes lit up with realization. "So... we worry so much about the future that we 53 to live now "
"Exactly," I replied. "Life is a 54 . If we let fear take over, we'll miss its wonders." The students nodded, their faces brightening.
As we walked back, they laughed, finally noticing the world they'd overlooked before. The lesson was simple but profound: The 55 shapes the future. Don't let fear steal today's gifts.
41.A. Ignoring B. Sensing C. Inspiring D. Celebrating
42.A. complain B. argue C. explain D. announce
43.A. mountain B. river C. desert D. forest
44.A. survive B. enjoy C. remember D. control
45.A. curious B. silent C. shocked D. amused
46.A. plans B. guesses C. decisions D. jokes
47.A. hungry B. magical C. fierce D. imaginary
48.A. grew B. emerged C. faded D. fell
49.A. Calling on B. Pointing at C. Turning to D. Waiting for
50.A. joy B. fear C. anger D. hope
51.A. heard B. missed C. avoided D. recorded
52.A. beauty B. harmony C. warmth D. mystery
53.A. refuse B. pretend C. forget D. hate
54.A. game B. battle C. gift D. journey
55.A. present B. chance C. effort D. luck
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1. 5分, 满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The karez is a 2,000-year-old underground water system from Xinjiang, showcasing China's brilliant ancient engineering. This smart network of wells and tunnels 56.______ (bring) mountain water to deserts without pumps or electricity, which helps turn dry land into green farms, proving Chinese farmers' 57.________ (wise) in fighting harsh nature.
The system is made up of three carefully engineered parts: vertical wells 58.______ (dig) for maintenance, underground tunnels built with a precise 0.1% slope, and surface canals 59._______
(deliver) water to farmlands. Believed to have originated during the Han Dynasty, the karez reflects early Chinese innovation. "It demonstrates 60.______ our ancestors solved problems creatively," notes Dr. Li from the Turpan Museum. Today, around 400 karez systems remain in use, 61._______ (active) supporting 30% of Turpan's famous grape farms.
Unlike modern water systems, the karez operates in harmony 62._______ nature. "Relying on gravity instead of power, it's a model of sustainability," explains farmer Ablimit. Impressed by its efficiency, UNESCO has recognized its 63._______ (ecology) importance since its inclusion in the World Heritage Irrigation Structures list in 2016.
More than just an engineering feat, the karez embodies Chinese philosophy. As visitor Wang Ying observes, "While ancient civilizations focused on building monuments reaching for the sky, the Chinese created underground networks designed 64._______ (support) life."
Still inspiring modern water management, this ancient system proves sustainable solutions can stand 65.______ test of time and that ancient innovations still hold valuable lessons today.
第四部分 写作 (共两节, 满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
66. 假如你是李华，你们学校的校报英语论坛（English Forum）正在组织一次讨论活动。主题是“AI And Our Study”。请你写一篇英语文章投稿。
内容包括： 1. AI用于学习的现状；
2. 你的看法或建议。
注意： 1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When I was ten, my parents told me we were going to China for our summer holiday. I was over the moon—I had only ever seen the Great Wall and the Forbidden City in books, and now I would actually get to walk through history!
For weeks, I imagined the towering palaces, the red-and-gold gates, and the stories hidden in every corner. Finally, the day arrived, and there I was, standing in the heart of Beijing, staring up at the most magnificent buildings I had ever seen.
The Forbidden City was even more incredible in real life. The golden roofs shone under the sun, the delicate carvings told silent tales of emperors and warriors, and the vast courtyards made me feel like I had stepped into a fairy tale. Every turn revealed something new—a dragon statue, a marble staircase, a hidden garden—and I couldn't stop taking pictures, desperate to capture every detail. My parents laughed as I dragged them from one spot to another, insisting on yet another photo.
What struck me most were the colors. The imperial yellow of the rooftops against the deep red walls looked brighter than any picture could show. Even the stone pathways seemed to glow with centuries of footsteps. I remembered running my fingers along a carved marble railing, wondering how many hands had touched that same spot over six hundred years.
The place was packed with tourists, all murmuring in different languages, their faces filled with the same amazement as mine. Some pointed at the architecture, others posed for pictures, and a few just stood quietly, taking it all in. The energy was infectious—everyone seemed to feel the magic of this ancient place.
As the afternoon wore on, we followed the crowd toward the exit. The sea of people was overwhelming, and I, being small for my age, grasped my father's hand tightly, afraid to get lost in the rushing crowd. The noise, the heat, and the excitement made everything feel like a blur—until suddenly, I looked down at the large hand I was holding—the wrong watch, the wrong-colored ring.
注意：续写词数应为 150 左右；请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My blood turned to ice. There he was, just three people away.

展开更多......

收起↑