Unit 1~2 第一次月考检测试题(含答案)外研版(2024)英语八年级上册

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Unit 1~2 第一次月考检测试题(含答案)外研版(2024)英语八年级上册

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2025-2026学年外研版(2024)英语八年级上册
一、完形填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中,选出可 以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Every one of us, rich or poor, should at least have one or two good friends. Your friends will 31 you when you speak, will take care of you when you are sick, and will be together 32 you on your journey through life.
Everyone 33 friends. Friendship can make us happier. 34 can we find a good friend and get on well with each other Here 35 some advice.
36 friends with a person who is easy to get along with.
You should make friends with a person who has 37 in common with you.
Give your friend a 38 when he or she is in trouble. Friends should always be ready to 39 each other.
Believe in each other. This is the most 40 thing in a friendship.
Even the best friends may have a fight sometimes. When this happens, don’t let it last too long. Try to make up with (与……和好) your friends soon.
Friendship is a kind of treasure (珠宝) in our life. It is like a bottle of wine (酒)—the longer it is kept, the better it will be.
31.A.listen to B.hear C.sound
32.A.for B.from C.with
33.A.gets B.needs C.buys
34.A.What B.When C.How
35.A.has B.is C.will
36.A.Make B.Feel C.Tell
37.A.nothing B.anything C.something
38.A.book B.hand C.pen
39.A.help B.look C.find
40.A.loud B.quiet C.important
二、阅读理解(共 25 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 50 分)
本题分为三节:第一节共 5 小题,计 10 分;第二节共 15 小题,计 30 分;第三节共 5 小题,计 10 分。
第一节 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容判断其后面所给句子的对错,并在答题卡上 将所选的对应选项涂黑。选“对 ”涂 A ,选“错 ”涂 B。
In China, there is an old saying, “Food is the first necessity of people (民以食为天)”.
The main rule for choosing breakfast in many cities across China is that it should be quick and easy. Jianbing is a famous breakfast in Tianjin and now it is a favourite for people all over the country. Chongqing small noodles play an important part in the breakfast of Chongqing people. But in Guangdong, people enjoy the long process (过程) of having the breakfast tea.
Many young people study and work in big cities like Beijing, Shanghai or Chengdu, and they don’t have much time for lunch. So, the restaurants serve easy and fast meals to them.
After a day’s hard work, most Chinese people like to go back home to have dinner with their families. Happy families always sit around the table, sharing the same dishes.
Lots of Chinese people enjoy their last meal of the day at night. That is the midnight snack. It is often found in the streets. There are many different kinds of delicious midnight snacks, such as stinky tofu and BBQ.
41. Jianbing plays an important part in the breakfast of Chongqing.
A. Right. B. Wrong.
42. People in Guangdong enjoy a quick and easy breakfast.
A. Right. B. Wrong.
43. In big cities, a lot of young workers choose fast meals.
A. Right. B. Wrong.
44. Most Chinese people like to have dinner with their families.
A. Right. B. Wrong.
45. Stinky tofu is a kind of delicious midnight snacks in China.
A. Right. B. Wrong.
第二节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出一个能回答 所提问题或能完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
In my free time, I love playing computer games with friends and listening to music online. In the evening, I usually watch TV with my family. TV is very popular in the UK. People watch about twenty-eight hours of TV every week. That is a relaxing way for the English. —Lucy
I’m really interested in sports. I play tennis and I’m in a girls’ football team. I also like meeting my friends in my free time. We meet every Saturday. People play football for fun in parks and playgrounds all over the UK. It’s a very popular team sport. —Amy
I’ve got a lot of different hobbies, such as painting and photography. And I’m quite good at taking photos. I also spend some time on drama (戏剧). What’s more, I enjoy doing outdoor activities like camping. I’m in a camp with 20 kids. There we learn many new things. At the moment, I’m learning how to cook. —Sarah
46. What is the relaxing way for the English according to Lucy
A. Swimming. B. Watching TV. C. Playing tennis. D. Playing games.
47. How often do Amy and her friends meet
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day. D. Once a month.
48. What is Sarah learning in the camp now
A. Painting. B. Photography. C. Drama. D. Cooking.
49. Which is true according to the passage
A. All the three kids are from the UK.
B. Sarah likes to spend her free time outside.
C. Amy thinks tennis is a very popular team sport.
D. Lucy watches twenty-eight hours of TV every week.
50. What is the passage mainly about
A. Subjects. B. Dreams. C. Hobbies. D. Sports
B
SARA
I started going to drama school when I was nine. I love it! It’s the biggest drama school in the country. My dad drives me there.
The school day begins with drama lessons at 8 o’clock. In the morning, we do dance, music, theatre, or project work. After lunch, we change into our school uniform (制服) and have normal (正常) school lessons until 4:30 in the afternoon. At the weekend, we sometimes put on shows, or have sports competitions with other schools.
MARIAN
My parents decided to teach me at home when we moved to the countryside because my old school was too far away.
I get up at 8 o’clock, and begin studying an hour later. In the morning, my dad teaches me maths and science. In the afternoon, I do sports or art with my mum.
My weekends are free. I like home schooling because I can learn my own subjects, and I can wear what I like.
FREDDY
I live at my school on school days! My parents live in Spain and I go home to see them in the holidays. I often miss them.
We wake up early, at 6:45 in the morning, have breakfast at 8 o’clock, and start the first lesson at 8:45. There are six lessons every weekday. All lessons are over at 4:30 in the afternoon. We also have two lessons on Saturday morning. There is no uniform, but we have to wear smart clothes. I’m not great at studying—maths is the hardest for me—but I win a lot of prizes (奖项) for football and tennis.
Which kind of school do you think is the best
51. What does the underlined word “drama school” in Paragraph 1 means
A. 戏剧学校 B. 寄宿 C. 体育学校 D. 网络学校
52. What time does Marian begin his study on weekdays
A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 6:45. D. At 8:45.
53. Who needs school uniforms
A. Sara. B. Sara and Marian. C. Freddy. D. Marian and Freddy.
54. What can we learn from the text
A. Sara’s weekdays are busy but weekends are free. B. Marian lives far away from his school.
C. Freddy always lives with his parents. D. Freddy is really good at sports.
55. What does the text mainly talk about
A Student life. B. Daily life. C. School life. D. Weekend life.
C
Wang Haoze was born in 1990 in Luanping County, Hebei Province. Her mother is a middle school teacher and her father is a policeman. Growing up in a family like that, she learned the importance of working hard from an early age.
After taking gaokao in 2008, Wang got into Southeast University in Nanjing. During her time at university, she showed great learning ability and was always at the top of her class. Besides studying, she was also a sports lover and often took part in sports competitions.
In 2015, Wang finished her studies and started working as a rocket engine (发动机) engineer in Beijing. One day, she heard about the selection (选拔) of astronauts (航天员) and decided to try for it.
The selection began in May 2018 and ended in September 2020. About 2,500 people took part in it. Wang passed all the tests and became the only woman among 18 astronauts.
From then on, Wang Haoze faced many new challenges. She went through difficult times in deserts and at sea. And one test was that she couldn’t sleep for 72 hours. However, nothing could make her give up. “I kept going and after nearly 1,000 times of practice, I finally met the training requirements (要求),” Wang said. In October 2024, she became a member of the Shenzhou-19 crew.
On October 30th, 2024, Wang was successfully sent into space with two other astronauts. She became the third Chinese woman to realize her lifelong dream of travelling to space.
56. What are the first two paragraphs mainly about
A. Wang’s middle school life. B. Wang’s love for all kinds of sports.
C. Wang’s interest in becoming an astronaut. D. Wang’s family background and university life.
57. How long did the selection of astronauts last
A. For four months. B. For one year.
C. For over two years. D. For over three years.
58. What can we infer (推断) from the passage
A. Wang is a woman with a strong mind.
B. The training was easy for every astronaut.
C. Wang won’t go through such training again.
D. Wang passed the training because of good luck.
59. Which is the correct order (顺序) about Wang’s story
①She got into space.
②She studied in Southeast University.
③She began her work as a rocket engineer.
④She became a member of the Shenzhou-19 crew.
⑤She took part in the astronaut selection and passed.
A. ②⑤③④① B. ②③⑤④① C. ②③④⑤① D. ②⑤④③①
60. Why does the writer write the passage
A. To let girls learn from Wang Haoze.
B. To show China’s Shenzhou-19 crew.
C. To ask people to have a big dream early.
D. To tell about a great Chinese woman astronaut.
第三节 阅读短文,将下面选项还原到文中空白处,使短文内容完整、通顺,每个 选项只能用一次。
Everyone wants to be happy, but sometimes we need a little help to make it .____61____
Take a deep breath.
When you feel unhappy, taking slow, deep breaths can calm your mind. Breathing deeply helps you relax and feel happier. ____62____
Spend time with friends.
Being with people you like can bring joy to your life. ____63____ You can talk, laugh, or do fun activities together.
Help others.
Helping others not only makes them happy but also makes you feel good. You can help a friend with homework, or do something nice for your family. Small acts of kindness can bring big smiles.
____64____
Writing down your feelings can help you understand yourself better. It’s a good way to express your thoughts and let go of worries.
Enjoy your hobbies.
Doing things you love can make you happy. ____65____ Just spend some time on what you enjoy!
Remember, happiness is often around you—you just need to find it!
A. Write a diary. B. It’s a great way to share your feelings. C. So try to take a deep breath when you feel unhappy. D. For example, if you like painting, just do it! E. Here are some easy ways to help you feel happy again.
非选择题(三大题,共计 60 分)
四、根据汉语提示完成句子,每空一词。(共 5 小题;每空 1 分,满分 10 分)
66. 他推到了围墙,告诉孩子们花园是他们的了。
He the wall and tells childen the garden is theirs.
67. 然而,疑虑和恐惧常常会阻碍我们前进。
However, doubts and fears often us .
68. 起初,他比以前跑得更慢了。
, he was slower than before.
69. 从那以后,他再也没在那里看到过一个孩子。
, he hasn't seen a child there.
70. 孩子们看起来很害怕。
The children .
五、语法填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 20 分)
A
阅读下面短文,根据音标或汉语提示在空白处填入单词的正确形式。每空 1 个单词。
I___71___/s 'p z/ everyone has something they don't like about themselves. For me, it was the ___72___(胎记) on my face. It was ___73___(鲜艳的) red, the colour of a ___74___/'str :b ri/ .
Sometimes, I felt people secretly looking at my face. But when I turned my head, they looked away. On ___75___/'kra d d/ buses and trains, it felt just like a disaster. With so many people around me, my birthmark burned red hot. Therefore, I always kept my hair long to ____76__/'k v / it until that day.
It was a cloudy morning. A new student named Maddie___77___(到达)in our class. She sat right beside me. ___78___/ n'sted/ of looking away, Maddie studied my face. This made me so ___79___(紧张). Clouds came through the window and filled my heart. ____80__(突然), she said something I would never forget.
B
阅读下面短文,在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空 1 个单词。
“Sally, right ” Maddie said. “You have___81___(冠词) red rose on your face. How beautiful!”
I looked up and met her smiling ___82___(eye). ___83___(连词) I only replied “thank you”, it turned___84___(sun) in my heart. When I___85___(get) home, I rushed to the bathroom and looked in the mirror. For the first time, I could___86___(look) at my birthmark without quickly___87___(turn) away. The shape of it was truly like a flower. The next day, to my surprise, Maddie painted a red rose___88__(介词)her own face!
I haven't___89___(tell) Maddie the whole story yet. Anyway, she has changed me. I have already learnt that I am what I am. Everyone has something special and___90___(difference)– that is what's interesting.
阅读表达(共 10 分;每题 2 分)
Every afternoon, the children play in the Giant's garden. It is a large garden with soft, green grass. Here and there, over the grass, stand beautiful flowers, like stars.
The Giant has been away for a long time. One day, he comes back and sees the children in his garden. “What are you doing here ” he shouts in a very angry voice.
The children run away. The Giant closes the gate and builds a high wall around the garden. Since then, he hasn't seen a child there.
Then spring comes. But in the Giant's garden, it is still winter. There are no birds or flowers. “①I cannot understand why spring has not come since last year,” says the Giant. “I hope the weather changes soon.”
But spring never comes, nor summer. Autumn gives golden fruit to every other garden. But it gives none to the Giant's garden.
One morning, the Giant suddenly hears birds singing. “I haven't heard that beautiful birdsong for a while. I believe spring has come at last.” ②巨人跳下床,向外望去.
The Giant sees a hole in the wall. Also, there is a little child in every tree. And the trees are so glad that they have covered themselves with flowers. The birds fly about and sing with joy. “How selfish I've been!” he says. “Now I know why spring wouldn't come here.”
What does “it”refer to(指代) in paragraph 1
_____________________________________________________
Why does the giant shout in a very angry voice
_____________________________________________________
请将①处划线句子译为汉语。
_____________________________________________________
请将②处划线句子译为英语。
_____________________________________________________
95. 在文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。 The birds fly around and sing happily.
七、书面表达(满分 20 分)
根据以下要点和要求,写一篇介绍中国运动员苏炳添的英文短文。
要点:
苏炳添于2006 年开始了他的运动生涯。苏炳添刻苦训练,很快就成为亚洲跑得最
快的运动员之一。
2. 然而,苏炳添并不满足。为了跑进10秒内,2014 年,他改变了起跑腿。他不得不从零开始。然而,苏炳添战胜了他的恐惧,成为了一名体育英雄。他也成为了首位跑入奥运会100 米决赛的中国运动员。
3. 苏炳添曾告诉年轻人:永远不要让年龄阻碍你。只要你尝试并坚持下去,没有什么是不可能的。
要求:
1. 可根据提示适当发挥,文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称;
2. 词数不少于 80 词。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案
完形填空
A 32.C 33.B 34.C 35.B 36.A 37.C 38.B 39.A 40.C
判断对错
B 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. A
阅读
A篇 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C
B篇 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. C
C篇 56. D 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. D
61. E
62. C
63. B
64. A
65. D
knocks down
hold back
At first
Since then
look afraid
suppose 72. birthmark 73. bright 74. strawberry 75. crowded
cover 77. arrived 78. Instead 79.nervous 80. Suddenly
a 82. eyes 83. Although 84. sunny 85. got
86. look 87. turning 88. on 89.told 90. different
作文:
Su Bingtian began his sporting life in 2006. Su trained hard and quickly became one of the fastest runners in Asia.
However, Su wasn't satisfied. To run in under 10 seconds, in 2014, he changed his
starting leg. He had to start from zero. However, Su fought his fears and became a sporting hero. He also became the first Chinese athlete to run in the Olympic 100 m final.
Su Bingtian has told youngsters: Never let your age hold you back. Nothing is impossible as long as you try and stick to it.

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